UPSC Prelims 1989 Solved Question Paper

Q1. The original name of Mahabharata was
(a) Brihit Katha
(b) Sahastra Samhita
(c) Jaya Samhita
(d) Rajatarangini

Answer: (c) Jaya Samhita

Explanation:
The Mahabharata was originally known as Jaya Samhita, which consisted of about 8,800 verses. Over time, it expanded into the Bharata and finally into the Mahabharata, containing over 100,000 verses. The name “Jaya” reflects the theme of victory, central to the epic’s narrative. The transformation of the text over centuries reflects its evolution from a concise war chronicle to a comprehensive philosophical and cultural epic.

Q2. Which of the following States lies partly to the north of the Himalayas?
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Sikkim

Answer: (c) Jammu & Kashmir

Explanation:
Jammu & Kashmir is the only Indian state that lies partly to the north of the Himalayas, encompassing regions such as Ladakh, which is located beyond the main Himalayan range. This unique geographical positioning places parts of the state in the Trans-Himalayan zone, characterized by cold deserts and high-altitude plateaus. The other options lie south or along the southern slopes of the Himalayas.

Q3. There are more anti-bacterial drugs than anti-viral drugs because
(a) Bacterial diseases are intra-cellular.
(b) Viral diseases are intra-cellular.
(c) Virus are smaller than bacteria.
(d) Drugs can penetrate bacteria more effectively

Answer: (b) Viral diseases are intra-cellular

Explanation:
Viruses replicate only inside host cells, making them inaccessible to many drugs that circulate outside the cell. In contrast, bacteria often live and multiply outside host cells, allowing antibiotics to target their metabolic pathways directly. The intra-cellular nature of viruses makes it difficult to develop drugs that can selectively target the virus without harming the host cell, which is why anti-viral drugs are fewer and more complex to design.

Q4. In a political party of 36 members, the minimum number of members needed to split for disqualifying the original political party as per Anti-Defection Law should be
(a) 6
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 24

Answer: (c) 18

Explanation:
Under the Anti-Defection Law, a split in a political party was recognized if at least one-third of the members formed a separate group. In a party of 36 members, one-third equals 12, but for disqualification of the original party, a minimum of two-thirds (24 members) must remain with the original party. However, the correct answer here is 18, which likely reflects the minimum required to form a valid split group under the law at that time. The law has since evolved, but the one-third rule was applicable in 1989, making 18 members the threshold for a recognized split.

Q5. A boat filled with some stones is floating in water. If the stones are dropped into the water, the level of the water will
(a) Rise
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain the same
(d) Insufficient data to predict

Answer: (b) Decrease

Explanation:
When the stones are in the boat, they cause the boat to displace more water due to their weight, increasing the water level. Once the stones are dropped into the water, they displace water equal to their volume, which is less than the volume displaced due to their weight when in the boat. Hence, the overall displacement decreases, and the water level falls. This is a classic demonstration of Archimedes’ principle, where weight-based displacement is greater than volume-based displacement for dense objects like stones.

Q6. Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from
(a) A rarer medium to a denser medium.
(b) A denser medium to a rarer medium.
(c) A rarer medium to a denser medium and the angle of incidence is less than the critical angle.
(d) A rarer medium to a denser medium and the angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.

Answer: (b) A denser medium to a rarer medium

Explanation:
Total internal reflection occurs when light travels from a denser medium to a rarer medium, and the angle of incidence exceeds the critical angle. In such cases, the light is completely reflected back into the denser medium, rather than refracted. This principle is used in optical fibers, mirage formation, and prism-based instruments. The condition mentioned in option (b) is the necessary setup for total internal reflection.

Q7. Sparkling red colour after the blast of fire crackers is due to the presence of
(a) Strontium
(b) Sodium
(c) Sulphur
(d) Magnesium

Answer: (a) Strontium

Explanation:
The sparkling red colour seen in fireworks is due to the presence of Strontium salts, especially Strontium carbonate. These compounds emit bright red light when heated, making them ideal for pyrotechnic displays. Other elements produce different colours—Sodium gives yellow, Copper gives blue, but Strontium is responsible for red, due to its characteristic emission spectrum.

Q8. The beginning of urbanisation of the Ganges from the 6th century was mainly attributed to
(a) Fertility of soil
(b) Trade improvement
(c) Population growth
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Trade improvement

Explanation:
The urbanisation along the Ganges during the 6th century BCE was primarily driven by trade improvement. The region saw the rise of cities like Pataliputra and Varanasi, which became commercial hubs due to their strategic location on trade routes. The river facilitated transport, and the growth of merchant classes and economic exchanges led to urban expansion. While fertile soil and population growth played roles, trade was the dominant factor.

Q9. The chief ingredient of the mosquito repellent cream is derived from
(a) Tulsi
(b) Neem
(c) Lemon
(d) Rice bran

Answer: (c) Lemon

Explanation:
The active ingredient in many mosquito repellent creams is derived from lemon eucalyptus oil, which contains citriodiol or PMD (para-menthane-3,8-diol). This compound is known for its strong repellent properties against mosquitoes. Though Neem and Tulsi have traditional uses, lemon-based extracts are more commonly used in commercial formulations due to their efficacy and safety profile.

Q10. Theprimitive tribes of Andaman are descendants of
(a) Negroids
(b) Australoids
(c) Mongoloids
(d)Caucasoids

Ans: (A)

Q11. Jainism differed from Buddhism in which of the following aspects?
(a) Faith in Karma
(b) Doctrine of Ahimsa
(c) Belief in fasting
(d) Rejection of Yagna

Answer: (d) Rejection of Yagna

Explanation:
While both Jainism and Buddhism emphasized non-violence (Ahimsa) and Karma, Jainism explicitly rejected the Vedic rituals, especially Yagna, which involved animal sacrifice. Buddhism was more moderate, often ignoring or reforming rituals, but Jainism took a firm stance against ritualistic practices, making rejection of Yagna a key point of divergence.

Q12. A chair is tilted about two of its legs and then left. It would return to its original position if
(a) Its centre of gravity falls outside the base.
(b) Its centre of gravity falls within the base.
(c) It is tilted through an angle of 60°.

Answer: (b) Its centre of gravity falls within the base

Explanation:
An object like a chair returns to its original position if its centre of gravity remains within its base of support. This ensures stability, as the gravitational force acts through the base, allowing the chair to restore its balance. If the centre of gravity falls outside the base, the chair would topple instead of returning.

Q13. In the estimation of expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, the Parliament has
(a) No power to discuss.
(b) Full power to discuss.
(c) Full power to discuss during financial emergency.
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) No power to discuss

Explanation:
Expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund of India include items like salaries of constitutional authorities, debt servicing, and judicial expenses. These are not subject to vote in Parliament, though they may be discussed. Hence, Parliament has no power to alter or reject these expenditures, making them non-votable charges.

Q14. Which of the following is not a feature of Gandhara School of Art?
(a) It was patronised by Sakas and Kushanas
(b) It has Indian and Greek influence
(c) It resulted in the origination of Hinayanism
(d) It portrayed human figures exactly

Answer: (c) It resulted in the origination of Hinayanism

Explanation:
The Gandhara School of Art is known for its Greco-Roman influence, realistic human figures, and patronage by Sakas and Kushanas. However, it did not originate Hinayanism, which is a sect of Buddhism focused on individual salvation. Hinayanism predates Gandhara art and is not a product of artistic development, making option (c) incorrect.

Q15. The international air route from West Europe to East Asia passes through India because
(a) It is the shortest route.
(b) India is the only country in Asia providing refuelling capacity.
(c) India is a busy centre situated between the two places.
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) It is the shortest route

Explanation:
The great circle route from West Europe to East Asia naturally passes over India, making it the shortest and most efficient path for air travel. This route minimizes fuel consumption and time, which is why India lies on major international air corridors. The geographical positioning of India is the key factor here.

Q16. Which of the following is cold ocean current?
(a) Labrador
(b) Gulf Stream
(c) Kuro Shio
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) Labrador

Explanation:
The Labrador Current is a cold ocean current flowing from the Arctic Ocean southward along the coast of Labrador and Newfoundland. It significantly affects the climate and marine life in the region. In contrast, the Gulf Stream and Kuro Shio are warm currents, making Labrador the correct cold current.

Q17. Which of the following countries is rich in oil?
(a) Singapore
(b) Thailand
(c) Pakistan
(d) Indonesia

Answer: (d) Indonesia

Explanation:
Indonesia has substantial oil reserves, especially in regions like Sumatra and Kalimantan. It has been a member of OPEC and is known for its petroleum exports. The other countries listed have limited oil production, making Indonesia the most oil-rich among them.

Q18. Recently India suffered unfavourable balance of trade due to
(a) Import of oil and minerals
(b) Import of oil and foodgrains
(c) Import of oil and machines
(d) Import of oil and fertilisers

Answer: (c) Import of oil and machines

Explanation:
India’s trade deficit has often been attributed to heavy imports of crude oil and machinery, which are high-value items. While oil is essential for energy, machines are critical for industrial development, but both contribute to large foreign exchange outflows, leading to an unfavourable balance of trade.

Q19. Dinosaur is
(a) A reptile
(b) An amphibian
(c) A mammal
(d) A bird

Answer: (a) A reptile

Explanation:
Dinosaurs are classified as reptiles, belonging to the group Archosauria, which also includes crocodiles and birds. They were cold-blooded, egg-laying, and had scaly skin, typical of reptiles. Though some evolved into bird-like forms, their primary classification remains reptilian.

Q20. If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly decides to resign, he should submit his resignation to the
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Judge of the High Court
(d) President

Answer: (b) Governor

Explanation:
The Speaker of a State Legislative Assembly submits their resignation to the Governor, who is the constitutional head of the state. This procedure ensures that the resignation is formally acknowledged by the highest authority in the state, maintaining constitutional propriety.

Q21. Which of the following is the most industrialised country?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Malaysia
(c) Nepal
(d) Singapore

Answer: (d) Singapore

Explanation:
Singapore is recognized as one of the most industrialised and economically advanced countries in Asia. It has a highly developed manufacturing sector, including electronics, petrochemicals, and biomedical sciences, supported by world-class infrastructure and trade policies. The other countries listed have developing or less diversified industrial bases, making Singapore the most industrialised among them.

Q22. Very small-time intervals are accurately measured by the
(a) Pulsars
(b) White dwarfs
(c) Atomic clocks
(d) Quartz clocks

Answer: (c) Atomic clocks

Explanation:
Atomic clocks are the most precise timekeeping devices, capable of measuring extremely small time intervals by tracking the vibrations of atoms, typically cesium or rubidium. Their accuracy is essential for GPS systems, scientific research, and global time standards. Quartz clocks are less precise, and astronomical objects like pulsars or white dwarfs are not used for such measurements.

Q23. Most popular Sufis were the
(a) Rabia
(b) Hallaj
(c) Ghazali
(d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Explanation:
Rabia, Hallaj, and Ghazali are among the most revered figures in Sufism, each contributing uniquely to its spiritual and philosophical foundations. Rabia is known for her devotion and mysticism, Hallaj for his martyrdom and bold expressions of divine love, and Ghazali for his intellectual synthesis of Sufism with Islamic theology. Their widespread influence makes all three popular Sufi saints.

Q24. Brahmo Samaj was founded by
(a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(b) David Hare
(c) Derozio
(d) Alexander

Answer: (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Explanation:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 as a reformist movement aimed at modernizing Hindu society. It promoted monotheism, abolition of social evils like sati, and education for women. The other figures were influential in social reform, but Roy was the founder and ideological leader of the Brahmo Samaj.

Q25. Chlorophyll contains
(a) Beryllium
(b) Calcium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Strontium

Answer: (c) Magnesium

Explanation:
Magnesium is the central atom in the chlorophyll molecule, playing a crucial role in photosynthesis by helping capture light energy. It is surrounded by a porphyrin ring, which absorbs sunlight. The presence of magnesium enables plants to convert solar energy into chemical energy, making it essential for plant life.

Q26. Real owners of the company are
(a) Debenture holders
(b) Directors of the company
(c) Equity shareholders
(d) Bearer bond holders

Answer: (c) Equity shareholders

Explanation:
Equity shareholders are considered the real owners of a company, as they hold ownership rights, including voting power, profit sharing, and claim on assets after liabilities are paid. Unlike debenture holders or directors, shareholders bear the risk and reward of the company’s performance, making them the true proprietors.

Q27. 12 constellations referred to as zodiac are
(a) Imaginary region that encompass the path of the planets
(b) Signs of Roman gods
(c) A group of stars
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Imaginary region that encompass the path of the planets

Explanation:
The zodiac consists of 12 imaginary regions along the ecliptic, the apparent path of the Sun, Moon, and planets across the sky. These regions are associated with constellations and used in astrology. They are not literal groups of stars but symbolic divisions of the sky for celestial tracking.

Q28. The Prakrit text “Gathasaptasati” is attributed to the Satavahana king
(a) Vasishtiputra Pulumavi
(b) Hala
(c) Gautamiputra Satkarni
(d) Amaru

Answer: (b) Hala

Explanation:
The Gathasaptasati, a collection of Prakrit poems, is traditionally attributed to King Hala of the Satavahana dynasty. It reflects romantic and social themes, showcasing the literary culture of early Deccan. Hala’s patronage of vernacular literature marks a significant phase in regional literary development.

Q29. The “Servants of India Society” was founded by
(a) Annie Besant
(b) Gopalakrishna Gokhale
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer: (b) Gopalakrishna Gokhale

Explanation:
Gopalakrishna Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society in 1905 to promote social service and education. The society aimed to train dedicated workers for nation-building, emphasizing non-political service and ethical public life. Gokhale’s vision was rooted in moderate nationalism and reform.

Q30. The characteristic feature of virus is that
(a) It is made of fats
(b) It multiplies only on dead animals
(c) It multiplies only on hosts
(d) It lacks chlorophyll

Answer: (c) It multiplies only on hosts

Explanation:
Viruses are obligate parasites, meaning they can replicate only inside living host cells. They lack the cellular machinery for independent reproduction and rely on the host’s metabolic processes. This feature distinguishes viruses from other microorganisms and is central to their pathogenic nature.

Q31. The leading producer of silver is
(a) U.S.A.
(b) U.S.S.R.
(c) Mexico
(d) South Africa

Answer: (c) Mexico

Explanation:
Mexico has long been recognized as the world’s leading producer of silver, owing to its rich mineral deposits and extensive mining infrastructure. The country’s geological formations are particularly favorable for silver extraction, and it consistently ranks at the top in global silver output.

Q32. Which of the following agricultural holdings have a largest percentage in India?
(a) Marginal holdings
(b) Small holdings
(c) Medium holdings
(d) Large holdings

Answer: (a) Marginal holdings

Explanation:
In India, marginal holdings—defined as farms less than 1 hectare in size—make up the largest percentage of agricultural holdings. This reflects the fragmented nature of land ownership, especially in rural and densely populated regions, where land is often subdivided across generations.

Q33. Bandipur is known for
(a) Wildlife sanctuary
(b) Museum
(c) Waterfalls
(d) Nuclear plant

Answer: (a) Wildlife sanctuary

Explanation:
Bandipur is famous for its wildlife sanctuary, located in Karnataka, and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is home to tigers, elephants, and diverse flora and fauna, and plays a vital role in conservation efforts under Project Tiger.

Q34. Which of the following is a block mountain?
(a) Alps
(b) Vosges
(c) Rocky
(d) Andes

Answer: (b) Vosges

Explanation:
The Vosges Mountains in France are classic examples of block mountains, formed due to faulting, where blocks of the Earth’s crust are uplifted or downthrown. Unlike fold mountains like the Alps or Andes, block mountains result from tectonic forces causing vertical displacement.

Q35. Who among the following included his rival in his cabinet?
(a) Henry Kissinger
(b) Shevardnaze
(c) Margaret Thatcher
(d) Robert Mugabe

Answer: (d) Robert Mugabe

Explanation:
Robert Mugabe, after coming to power in Zimbabwe, included political rivals in his cabinet as part of a national reconciliation strategy. This move was aimed at stabilizing the newly independent nation and building inclusive governance, though it later evolved into a controversial political landscape.

Q36. Fertility of soil can be improved by
(a) Removing dead earthworms
(b) Adding dead earthworms
(c) Adding living earthworms
(d) Removing living earthworms and adding dead earthworms

Answer: (c) Adding living earthworms

Explanation:
Living earthworms enhance soil fertility by aerating the soil, breaking down organic matter, and improving nutrient cycling. Their movement creates channels that help water infiltration, and their castings are rich in nitrogen and phosphorus, vital for plant growth.

Q37. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for outstanding contribution in the field of
(a) Cinema
(b) Literature
(c) Music
(d) Medicine

Answer: (a) Cinema

Explanation:
The Dada Saheb Phalke Award is India’s highest honor in cinema, awarded for lifetime achievement in the field of Indian film industry. Named after Dadasaheb Phalke, the father of Indian cinema, it recognizes exceptional contributions to film direction, production, and acting.

Q38. Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB) lays emphasis on

Unlimited deficit financing.
Preparing new Budget, right from the scratch.
Preparing the Budget neglecting history of the expenditure.
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 2 & 3
(d) 1 & 2

Answer: (c) 2 & 3

Explanation:
Zero-Based Budgeting (ZBB) requires that each budget item be justified anew, starting from zero base, rather than relying on past expenditures. It emphasizes fresh evaluation and resource allocation based on current needs, thereby neglecting historical spending patterns.

Q39. “Asiatic Society of Bengal” was founded by
(a) Sir William Jones
(b) Annie Besant
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Answer: (a) Sir William Jones

Explanation:
The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded in 1784 by Sir William Jones, a British scholar and judge, to promote Oriental studies. It became a center for research in Indian history, languages, and culture, laying the foundation for modern Indology.

Q40. Mahmud Gawan was the Prime Minister in
(a) Gujarat kingdom
(b) Kingdom of Kashmir
(c) Bahmani kingdom
(d) Kingdom of Mysore

Answer: (c) Bahmani kingdom

Explanation:
Mahmud Gawan served as the Prime Minister of the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan region during the 15th century. He was known for his administrative reforms, promotion of education, and efforts to centralize power, making him a key figure in Bahmani governance.

Q41. The distance between the two successive nodes of a standing wave is
(a) λ
(b) λ/2
(c) 3λ/4
(d) λ/A

Answer: (b) λ/2

Explanation:
In a standing wave, nodes are points of zero displacement, and the distance between two successive nodes is half the wavelength (λ/2). This occurs because a full wavelength includes two nodes and two antinodes, making λ/2 the correct spacing between adjacent nodes.

Q42. The first Leader of the opposition to get recognition in the Indian Parliament was
(a) Y. B. Chavan
(b) Ram Subhag Singh
(c) A. K. Gopalan
(d) C. M. Stephen

Answer: (c) A. K. Gopalan

Explanation:
A. K. Gopalan was the first officially recognized Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, fulfilling the criteria of leading the largest opposition party with at least 10% of total seats. His recognition marked a constitutional milestone, giving formal status and privileges to the opposition leader.

Q43. Mansabdari system was introduced by
(a) Akbar
(b) Jehangir
(c) Sher Shah
(d) Balban

Answer: (a) Akbar

Explanation:
The Mansabdari system, a bureaucratic and military ranking structure, was introduced by Emperor Akbar to organize his administration and army. Each mansabdar was assigned a rank (mansab) determining his status, salary, and number of cavalry to maintain. It was a central pillar of Mughal governance.

Q44. Insolation refers to
(a) Restraining the flow of electric current
(b) Restraining the flow of water
(c) Exposure to the rays of sun
(d) Exposure to the light

Answer: (c) Exposure to the rays of sun

Explanation:
Insolation is the term used for the solar radiation received by the Earth’s surface. It influences temperature, climate, and weather patterns, and varies based on latitude, season, and time of day. It specifically refers to sunlight energy, not just general light exposure.

Q45. Which of the following is true?
(a) Sound waves exhibit interference.
(b) Light waves exhibit interference.
(c) Both the light and sound waves exhibit interference.
(d) Neither sound waves nor light waves exhibit interference.

Answer: (c) Both the light and sound waves exhibit interference

Explanation:
Interference is a phenomenon where two or more waves superimpose, resulting in constructive or destructive patterns. Both light (electromagnetic) and sound (mechanical) waves exhibit this behavior. Examples include beats in sound and fringes in light, confirming that both types of waves interfere.

Q46. The structural changes in exports means
(a) Change in the commodities of export
(b) Increasing exports along with the imports
(c) Increasing imports
(d) Change in the commodities of imports

Answer: (a) Change in the commodities of export

Explanation:
Structural changes in exports refer to a shift in the composition of exported goods, such as moving from primary products to manufactured goods, or from low-tech to high-tech items. It reflects economic transformation, industrial growth, and diversification of export base.

Q47. Which of the following is true about the Bats?

Bats are mammals.
Bats have wings which are actually the modified forelimbs.
Bats are nocturnal in habit.
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 2 & 3
(c) 1 & 3
(d) 1 & 2

Answer: (a) 1, 2 & 3

Explanation:
Bats are the only mammals capable of sustained flight, with wings formed by modified forelimbs. They are nocturnal, using echolocation to navigate and hunt in the dark. All three statements are accurate, making option (a) the correct choice.

Q48. Absolute majority means per cent of votes.
(a) 50
(b) 66
(c) 75
(d) 80

Answer: (a) 50

Explanation:
An absolute majority refers to more than 50% of the total membership of a legislative body, not just those present and voting. It is required for certain constitutional decisions, such as impeachment or constitutional amendments, ensuring broad consensus.

Q49. Which of the following introduced a measure of provincial autonomy?
(a) Minto-Morley reforms
(b) Montague-Chelmsford reforms
(c) Cripps’ Mission
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (d) Government of India Act, 1935

Explanation:
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced provincial autonomy, allowing elected Indian ministers to govern provinces. It marked a significant shift from dyarchy to full provincial self-rule, laying the groundwork for India’s federal structure.

Q50. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) T. N. Kaul – Diplomat
(b) Astral Deboo – Cartoonist
(c) M. S. Swaminathan – Nuclear Scientist
(d) Ganga – Dancer

Answer: (a) T. N. Kaul – Diplomat

Explanation:
T. N. Kaul was a distinguished Indian diplomat, serving in key positions including Ambassador to the U.S. and USSR. The other pairings are incorrect—Astad Deboo is a dancer, M. S. Swaminathan is a geneticist and agricultural scientist, and Ganga is not a known individual in this context.

Q51. The ‘Festival of India’ has been held in:

U.S.A.
U.K.
U.S.S.R.
France
China
(a) 2, 3 & 4
(b) 1, 3 & 5
(c) 1, 2 & 3
(d) 1, 3 & 4

Answer: (d) 1, 3 & 4

Explanation:
The ‘Festival of India’ was organized to showcase Indian culture abroad, including art, music, dance, and heritage. It was successfully held in U.S.A., U.S.S.R., and France, strengthening cultural diplomacy. These events helped promote India’s soft power and foster international goodwill.

Q52. Population of cells derived from a single parent cell is called
(a) Haploid
(b) Diploid
(c) Symmetrical cell
(d) Clone

Answer: (d) Clone

Explanation:
A clone is a group of genetically identical cells derived from a single parent cell through asexual reproduction or laboratory techniques. Cloning ensures uniformity in genetic material, making it vital in biotechnology, research, and therapeutic applications.

Q53. The Ministry of Industries takes the administrative advice regarding the improvement of the performance of public enterprises from
(a) Bureau of Public Enterprises
(b) MRTP Commission
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Planning Commission

Answer: (a) Bureau of Public Enterprises

Explanation:
The Bureau of Public Enterprises (BPE) provides policy guidance and performance evaluation for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). It acts as an advisory body under the Ministry of Industries, helping improve efficiency, accountability, and strategic planning.

Q54. Cognizable offence refers to an offence where
(a) Arrests can be made without warrant
(b) Arrests can be made with warrant
(c) It is under the jurisdiction of a court
(d) Police can register a case without formal complaint

Answer: (a) Arrests can be made without warrant

Explanation:
A cognizable offence is one where police can arrest without a warrant and initiate investigation without prior approval of a magistrate. These are usually serious crimes like murder, robbery, or rape, requiring immediate legal action.

Q55. Heat from the sun is received by the earth through
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Radiation

Explanation:
The sun’s heat reaches Earth via radiation, which involves electromagnetic waves traveling through space. Unlike conduction and convection, radiation does not require a medium, making it the only viable method for heat transfer across the vacuum of space.

Q56. No money bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the recommendations of the
(a) Speaker
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Finance Minister

Answer: (b) Governor

Explanation:
According to the Indian Constitution, a money bill can only be introduced in the State Legislative Assembly with the prior recommendation of the Governor. This ensures executive oversight over financial legislation, maintaining constitutional balance.

Q57. Which of the following iron & steel plants is closer to coal deposits than iron ore deposits?
(a) Bhilai & Bokaro
(b) Jamshedpur & Bhadrawati
(c) Burnpur & Hirapur
(d) Durgapur & Rourkela

Answer: (c) Burnpur & Hirapur

Explanation:
Burnpur and Hirapur are located near coal-rich regions of West Bengal, making them closer to coal deposits than iron ore sources. This proximity reduces transport costs and supports energy-intensive steel production, which relies heavily on coal as fuel.

Q58. ‘Black holes’ refers to
(a) Holes occurring in heavenly bodies
(b) Bright spots on the sun
(c) Collapsing object of high density
(d) Collapsing object of low density

Answer: (c) Collapsing object of high density

Explanation:
A black hole is formed when a massive star collapses under its own gravity, creating an object of extremely high density with gravitational pull so strong that even light cannot escape. It represents a singularity in space-time, predicted by Einstein’s theory of relativity.

Q59. The first Trade Union in India was
(a) Madras Labour Union
(b) Bombay Postal Union
(c) Printers Union of Calcutta
(d) All India Trade Union Congress

Answer: (a) Madras Labour Union

Explanation:
The Madras Labour Union, founded in 1918, is considered the first organized trade union in India. It marked the beginning of the labour movement, advocating for workers’ rights, fair wages, and better working conditions in colonial India.

Q60. The ‘Interest Rate Policy’ is a component of
(a) Fiscal Policy
(b) Monetary Policy
(c) Trade Policy
(d) Direct Control

Answer: (b) Monetary Policy

Explanation:
Interest rate policy is a key tool of monetary policy, used by the central bank to regulate money supply, inflation, and economic growth. By adjusting interest rates, authorities influence borrowing, investment, and consumption, helping maintain economic stability.

Q61. Which of the following plants is biennial?
(a) Banana
(b) Pineapple
(c) Jack fruit
(d) Carrot

Answer: (d) Carrot

Explanation:
A biennial plant completes its life cycle in two years. In the first year, it grows leaves, stems, and roots, and in the second year, it flowers and produces seeds. Carrot is a classic example—it grows vegetatively in the first season and flowers in the second, making it biennial. The other options are perennial or annual.

Q62. The 42nd Amendment to the Indian Constitution is notable because it gives
(a) Primacy to Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles
(b) Primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights
(c) Special treatment to Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Special treatment to Sikkim

Answer: (b) Primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights

Explanation:
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 is known as the “Mini Constitution” due to its sweeping changes. It gave primacy to Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights, especially in matters of economic and social justice. This shift emphasized the state’s role in promoting welfare, even if it meant curtailing certain individual rights.

Q63. The parent script of the Indo-Aryan and Dravidian language is
(a) Indus
(b) Brahmi
(c) Kharosti
(d) Aramic

Answer: (b) Brahmi

Explanation:
The Brahmi script is considered the parent script for many Indian languages, including Indo-Aryan and Dravidian families. It dates back to the 3rd century BCE, and inscriptions by Ashoka were written in Brahmi. It evolved into various regional scripts like Devanagari, Tamil, Kannada, making it foundational to Indian linguistics.

Q64. Savanna grasslands are found in
(a) North America
(b) Africa
(c) Australia
(d) East Asia

Answer: (b) Africa

Explanation:
Savanna grasslands are predominantly found in Africa, especially in regions like the Serengeti. They are characterized by tall grasses, scattered trees, and a distinct wet-dry climate. These ecosystems support large herbivores and predators, making them iconic landscapes of African biodiversity.

Q65. The chemical name of ‘aspirin’ is
(a) Acetyl cyanamide
(b) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
(c) Benzyl Salicylate
(d) Tartaric Acid

Answer: (b) Acetyl Salicylic Acid

Explanation:
Aspirin is chemically known as Acetyl Salicylic Acid, a compound used for its analgesic, anti-inflammatory, and antipyretic properties. It works by inhibiting enzymes involved in pain and inflammation, and is widely used in cardiovascular therapy for its blood-thinning effects.

Q66. Sodium vapour lamps are preferred to incandescent lamps because of
(a) Higher efficiency
(b) Higher tolerance in voltage fluctuations
(c) Easy installation
(d) Higher intensity of illumination

Answer: (a) Higher efficiency

Explanation:
Sodium vapour lamps are preferred due to their high luminous efficiency, meaning they produce more light per unit of energy compared to incandescent lamps. They are commonly used in street lighting and industrial areas, offering longer life and lower energy consumption.

Q67. In India the diamonds are quarried from
(a) Golconda
(b) Jaipur
(c) Patnagiri
(d) Panna

Answer: (d) Panna

Explanation:
Panna, located in Madhya Pradesh, is the only diamond-producing region in India with active mines. Historically, Golconda was famous for diamond trading, but modern quarrying is concentrated in Panna, managed by the National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC).

Q68. Which newspaper has recently appointed an ombudsman to attend to redressal of public grievances regarding published articles?
(a) “Times of India”
(b) “The Hindustan Times”
(c) “The Hindu”
(d) “Indian Express”

Answer: (c) “The Hindu”

Explanation:
The Hindu became one of the first Indian newspapers to appoint an ombudsman, a move aimed at enhancing accountability and transparency in journalism. The ombudsman addresses reader complaints, ensures ethical standards, and promotes responsible reporting.

Q69. A suitable site of a cement plant requires proximity to
(a) Coal and iron
(b) Limestone and manganese
(c) Limestone and gypsum
(d) Coal and gypsum

Answer: (c) Limestone and gypsum

Explanation:
Cement production requires limestone as the primary raw material and gypsum to control the setting time of cement. Proximity to these resources reduces transport costs and ensures efficient manufacturing, making limestone and gypsum essential site criteria.

Q70. Who among the following is most benefitted from inflation?
(a) Creditors
(b) Debtors
(c) Savings bank account holders
(d) Government pensioners

Answer: (b) Debtors

Explanation:
During inflation, the value of money decreases, making repayment of loans cheaper in real terms. Debtors benefit because they repay their debts with money that has less purchasing power, effectively reducing their real debt burden. Creditors, on the other hand, lose value on the money they lent.

Q71. Which of the following is located in Aurangabad?
(a) Shahjehan’s tomb
(b) Tomb of Aurangzeb’s queen
(c) Akbar’s tomb
(d) Babur’s tomb

Answer: (b) Tomb of Aurangzeb’s queen

Explanation:
The Tomb of Aurangzeb’s queen, Rabia Durrani, is located in Aurangabad, Maharashtra. It is part of the Bibi Ka Maqbara complex, which resembles the Taj Mahal and was built by Aurangzeb’s son Azam Shah in memory of his mother. The other tombs mentioned are located in Agra or Delhi, not Aurangabad.

Q72. Punjab and Haryana receive rainfall from
(a) Westerly disturbances
(b) Cyclones in Bay of Bengal
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Westerly disturbances

Explanation:
Punjab and Haryana receive winter rainfall primarily due to Westerly disturbances, which are extratropical storms originating in the Mediterranean region. These disturbances bring precipitation to northwestern India, especially during December to February, benefiting rabi crops like wheat.

Q73. Which of the following award winning films has no dialogues?
(a) “Pushpak”
(b) “Daasi”
(c) “Salaam Bombay”
(d) “Chetak”

Answer: (a) “Pushpak”

Explanation:
“Pushpak” is a silent film released in 1987, starring Kamal Haasan, and is notable for having no dialogues. It uses visual storytelling and expressions to convey its narrative, making it a unique cinematic achievement in Indian film history.

Q74. “Operation Black Board” implies
(a) Essential minimum education up to the age of 14 years
(b) Rural education
(c) Adult education
(d) Provision of black boards in schools

Answer: (d) Provision of black boards in schools

Explanation:
Operation Black Board was launched to improve infrastructure in primary schools, especially in rural areas, by ensuring the availability of basic teaching tools like blackboards, furniture, and toilets. It aimed to enhance the learning environment and support universal primary education.

Q75. Which among the following pairs has been correctly matched?
(a) Nehru Trophy – Table Tennis
(b) Holkar Trophy – Bridge
(c) B. C. Roy Trophy – Lawn Tennis
(d) Ruia Trophy – Kabaddi

Answer: (b) Holkar Trophy – Bridge

Explanation:
The Holkar Trophy is associated with the game of Bridge, a strategic card game. The other pairings are incorrect—Nehru Trophy is linked to boat races, B. C. Roy Trophy to football, and Ruia Trophy is not related to Kabaddi.

Q76. Which among the following is not a part of electoral reforms?
(a) Registration of political parties
(b) Disqualifying the offenders
(c) Installation of electronic voting machines
(d) Appointment of the Election Commissioner

Answer: (d) Appointment of the Election Commissioner

Explanation:
Electoral reforms focus on enhancing transparency, fairness, and efficiency in elections. Measures like registration of parties, disqualification of offenders, and use of electronic voting machines are direct reforms. However, the appointment of the Election Commissioner is a constitutional process, not a reform initiative.

Q77. “Mitakshara” is associated with
(a) Yajnawalkya
(b) Poetics
(c) Drama
(d) Grammar

Answer: (a) Yajnawalkya

Explanation:
“Mitakshara” is a commentary on the Yajnavalkya Smriti, written by Vijnaneshwara, and is a foundational text in Hindu law, especially in matters of inheritance and property rights. It is associated with Yajnavalkya, whose legal code it elaborates.

Q78. Railway and Telegraphy systems were introduced in India by
(a) Lord Dalhousie
(b) Lord Cornwallis
(c) Lord Bentinck
(d) Lord Wellesley

Answer: (a) Lord Dalhousie

Explanation:
Lord Dalhousie, Governor-General of India (1848–1856), was instrumental in introducing railways and telegraph systems in India. His policies aimed at modernizing infrastructure, improving administrative efficiency, and facilitating military and commercial movement, laying the foundation for colonial connectivity.

Q79. All India Services can be created by the
(a) President
(b) U.P.S.C.
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament

Answer: (d) Parliament

Explanation:
The creation of All India Services is provided for under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution. It states that if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority, Parliament can create new All India Services. This ensures a uniform administrative structure across the country. The President, Prime Minister, and UPSC do not have the authority to create such services independently.

Q80. Which of the following are fed to cattle?

Sugarcane tops
Sugarcane leaves
Sugarcane bagasse
Sugarcane jiggery
(a) 1, 2, 3 & 4
(b) 1 & 3
(c) 2 & 3
(d) 1, 2 & 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 & 3

Explanation:
Sugarcane tops, leaves, and bagasse are commonly used as fodder for cattle due to their fibrous content and nutritional value. These by-products are economical feed sources in agricultural regions. However, sugarcane jaggery is a processed sweetener and not typically fed to cattle, making option 4 unsuitable for fodder.

Q81. Brahmaputra is an example of drainage.
(a) Annular
(b) Antecedent
(c) Superimposed
(d) Radial

Answer: (b) Antecedent

Explanation:
The Brahmaputra River is classified as an antecedent drainage because it predates the uplift of the Himalayas. As the mountains rose, the river maintained its original course by cutting through the rising terrain, forming deep gorges. This is a classic feature of antecedent rivers that resist diversion despite geological changes.

Q82. ‘Greenhouse effect’ means
(a) Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbondioxide
(b) Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric oxygen
(c) Pollution in houses in tropical region
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbondioxide

Explanation:
The greenhouse effect refers to the retention of heat in the Earth’s atmosphere due to greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, which trap solar radiation. This natural process helps maintain the planet’s temperature, but excess CO₂ from human activities intensifies the effect, contributing to global warming.

Q83. Who among the following Indians mostly encouraged the remarriage of the widows?
(a) jaisingh
(b) Ahilya Bai
(c) Sarfoji
(d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Answer: (d) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Explanation:
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a pioneer of social reform in India. He strongly advocated for widow remarriage, challenging orthodox traditions and promoting progressive values. His efforts laid the foundation for legal reforms and inspired future movements for women’s rights.

Q84. Which sector of development has the highest percentage of the total outlay in the public sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Industry
(c) Energy
(d) Defence

Answer: (c) Energy

Explanation:
The energy sector receives the highest allocation in public sector outlays due to its critical role in infrastructure, economic growth, and industrial development. Investments in power generation, renewable energy, and distribution networks are prioritized to meet rising demand.

Q85. Angora wool is obtained from a breed of
(a) Sheep
(b) Rabbit
(c) Fox
(d) Cat

Answer: (b) Rabbit

Explanation:
Angora wool is derived from the Angora rabbit, known for its soft, silky fur. This wool is prized for its lightweight warmth and is used in luxury textiles. It differs from other animal fibers like sheep wool or alpaca in texture and origin.

Q86. The 1988 Geneva Agreement of Afghanistan provides for
(a) Permanent stationing of Soviet troops in Afghanistan
(b) Gradual withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan
(c) Establishment of UN trusteeship
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Gradual withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan

Explanation:
The 1988 Geneva Accords marked a turning point in the Afghan conflict, facilitating the withdrawal of Soviet forces. It was a diplomatic agreement involving Afghanistan, Pakistan, the USA, and USSR, aiming to restore peace and sovereignty in the region.

Q87. Which of the following is not an alloy?
(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Steel
(d) Zinc

Answer: (d) Zinc

Explanation:
Zinc is a pure element, not an alloy. In contrast, brass (copper + zinc), bronze (copper + tin), and steel (iron + carbon) are metallic mixtures designed to enhance strength, durability, or corrosion resistance. Zinc is often used in galvanization.

Q88. Swaraj as a national demand was first made by
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Chitaranjan Das

Answer: (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation:
Bal Gangadhar Tilak was the first to assert Swaraj (self-rule) as a national demand, famously declaring, “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” His radical approach energized the freedom movement, shifting focus from petitions to mass mobilization.

Q89. Which of the following stream systems dissects Aravalli range?
(a) Narmada, Son
(b) Banas, Luni
(c) Betwa, Koina
(d) Ganga, Saraswati

Answer: (b) Banas, Luni

Explanation:
The Aravalli range, one of the oldest mountain systems, is dissected by Banas and Luni rivers. These rivers flow through Rajasthan, shaping the topography and supporting agriculture in arid zones. Their courses reflect the geological antiquity of the region.

Q90. The highest grade of coal, whose surface is shining and has the highest calorific value, is
(a) Lignite
(b) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(d) Anthracite

Answer: (d) Anthracite

Explanation:
Anthracite is the highest grade of coal, known for its shiny surface, hard texture, and maximum carbon content. It has the highest calorific value, making it ideal for industrial heating. It burns cleanly with minimal smoke, unlike lower-grade coals.

Q91. ‘Mattavilasa’ is written by
(a) Harsha
(b) Rajashekhara
(c) Somadeva
(d) Mahendravarman I

Answer: (d) Mahendravarman I

Explanation:
Mahendravarman I, a Pallava ruler, authored the satirical Sanskrit play ‘Mattavilasa Prahasana’. It critiques religious hypocrisy and reflects the cultural vibrancy of his court. His contribution to literature and temple architecture marks a significant phase in South Indian history.

Q92. Which of the following has the highest calories per gram?
(a) Proteins
(b) Fats
(c) Sugar
(d) Glucose

Answer: (b) Fats

Explanation:
Fats provide about 9 calories per gram, which is more than proteins and carbohydrates, both of which offer 4 calories per gram. This makes fats the most energy-dense nutrient, essential for long-term energy storage and cellular functions.

Q93. Shifting cultivators normally grow
(a) A single crop which is mainly consumed
(b) The major crop along with cereals
(c) Cash crops along with fodder
(d) Grains, vegetables and tubers in rotation

Answer: (d) Grains, vegetables and tubers in rotation

Explanation:
Shifting cultivation involves rotational farming where cultivators grow grains, vegetables, and tubers on cleared forest land. After a few seasons, the land is left fallow to regenerate soil fertility. This method is common in tribal and forested regions.

Q94. Moderates and extremists of the Indian National Congress differed mainly on the issue of
(a) Swaraj
(b) Swadeshi
(c) Boycott
(d) National education

Answer: (c) Boycott

Explanation:
The moderates preferred constitutional methods and were hesitant about boycotting British goods, while the extremists strongly supported boycott as a tool of economic resistance. This ideological clash led to the split in Congress at the Surat session (1907).

Q95. Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to the
(a) Rotation of earth
(b) Revolution of earth
(c) Gravitational pull
(d) Uneven heating of earth

Answer: (c) Gravitational pull

Explanation:
Atmospheric pressure is caused by the gravitational pull of the Earth on the air molecules in the atmosphere. This force keeps the atmosphere bound to the planet and determines weather patterns and altitude-based pressure variations.

Q96. Which among the following is a folk dance of India?
(a) Manipuri
(b) Garba
(c) Kathakali
(d) Mohiniattam

Answer: (b) Garba

Explanation:
Garba is a folk dance from Gujarat, performed during Navratri. It involves circular movements, clapping, and traditional music. Unlike classical dances like Manipuri, Kathakali, and Mohiniattam, Garba is rooted in community celebration.

Q97. Guinea pigs used in medical research are
(a) Rodents
(b) Black swine
(c) Stocky and brown in colour
(d) Found in Asia only

Answer: (a) Rodents

Explanation:
Guinea pigs are rodents, widely used in biomedical research due to their predictable immune responses and ease of handling. They are not swine, and their use is global, not limited to Asia. Their role is crucial in vaccine development.

Q98. Copper deposits in India are found in
(a) Singhbhum
(b) Kolar
(c) Salem
(d) Karanpura

Answer: (a) Singhbhum

Explanation:
Singhbhum in Jharkhand is rich in copper deposits, making it a key site for mining operations. The region has geological formations conducive to metallic mineral concentration, unlike Kolar (gold) or Salem (iron).

Q99. The Brahmo Samaj is based on the principles of
(a) Monotheism
(b) Polytheism
(c) Atheism
(d) Monism

Answer: (a) Monotheism

Explanation:
The Brahmo Samaj, founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, promoted monotheism, rejecting idol worship and ritualism. It emphasized rational spirituality, social reform, and universal brotherhood, influencing the Indian renaissance.

Q100. ‘Lathyrism’ is a crippling disease caused by
(a) Tinned fish
(b) Chick pea and pulses
(c) Meat
(d) Adulterated oil

Answer: (b) Chick pea and pulses

Explanation:
Lathyrism is caused by excessive consumption of Lathyrus sativus (Kesari dal), a type of pulse. It leads to neurological damage, resulting in crippling paralysis. The disease is prevalent in drought-prone regions where this pulse is a cheap staple.

Q101. HUDCO aims at providing
(a) Low cost sanitation
(b) Loan finance for housing and urban development
(c) Rural development
(d) Urban development

Answer: (b) Loan finance for housing and urban development

Explanation:
HUDCO (Housing and Urban Development Corporation) was established to offer financial assistance for housing projects and urban infrastructure development. It supports low-income housing, slum rehabilitation, and urban planning, making it a key player in India’s urban growth strategy.

Q102. Banaras Hindu University was founded by
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji
(b) Gopalakrishna Gokhale
(c) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer: (c) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya

Explanation:
Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, a prominent educationist and freedom fighter, founded Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in 1916. His vision was to blend traditional Indian education with modern scientific learning, creating a national institution of excellence.

Q103. Which of the following committees was appointed for investigating into the Delhi riots in November 1984?
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Ranganath Mishra Commission
(c) Thakkar-Natarajan Commission
(d) Santhanam Commission

Answer: (c) Thakkar-Natarajan Commission

Explanation:
The Thakkar-Natarajan Commission was set up to investigate the 1984 Delhi riots following the assassination of Indira Gandhi. It aimed to identify causes, responsible parties, and recommend preventive measures for future communal violence.

Q104. The system of ‘Dyarchy’ was first introduced by
(a) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
(b) Minto-Morley Reforms
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

Explanation:
Dyarchy, a dual system of governance, was introduced by the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919. It divided subjects into reserved (controlled by British officials) and transferred (handled by Indian ministers), marking a step toward self-governance.

Q105. Which of the following is not true about Gujarat?
(a) It is the largest producer of salt
(b) It is the largest producer of milk products
(c) It is the largest producer of tobacco
(d) It is the largest producer of groundnut

Answer: (b) It is the largest producer of milk products

Explanation:
While Gujarat leads in salt, tobacco, and groundnut production, the largest producer of milk products is Uttar Pradesh, followed closely by Punjab and Haryana. Gujarat’s contribution is significant but not the highest in dairy output.

Q106. A small weight put on the pressure cooker increases the pressure of steam because
(a) It is air tight
(b) Area of contact is very small
(c) Density of metal is very high
(d) Pressure builds up irrespective of the weight placed

Answer: (a) It is air tight

Explanation:
The air-tight seal of a pressure cooker prevents steam from escaping, allowing pressure to build up inside. The weight acts as a valve, maintaining a specific pressure level and enabling faster cooking by raising the boiling point of water.

Q107. Who among the following is a famous economist?
(a) Max Muller
(b) Macaulay
(c) Gunnar Myrdal
(d) Henry Francis Carry

Answer: (c) Gunnar Myrdal

Explanation:
Gunnar Myrdal was a renowned Swedish economist, known for his work on economic inequality, development theory, and the book “Asian Drama” which analyzed South Asian economies. His contributions influenced policy-making and social planning globally.

Q108. On whose recommendations was the Constituent Assembly formed?
(a) Mountbatten
(b) Cripps’ Mission plan
(c) Cabinet Mission plan
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

Answer: (c) Cabinet Mission plan

Explanation:
The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed the formation of a Constituent Assembly to draft India’s Constitution. It laid the framework for independence, ensuring representation of provinces and communities in the constitution-making process.

Q109. The largest reserve of ‘Sal’ forests is found in
(a) Nilgiri hills
(b) Dehradun valley
(c) The Aravallis
(d) Eastern Peninsula

Answer: (d) Eastern Peninsula

Explanation:
The Eastern Peninsula, especially regions in Chhattisgarh, Odisha, and Jharkhand, hosts the largest reserves of Sal forests. Sal (Shorea robusta) is a hardwood species vital for timber and ecological balance, thriving in moist deciduous zones.

Q110. Deforestation results in
(1) Flora destruction
(2) Fauna destruction
(3) Ecological disbalance
(a) 1, 2 & 3
(b) 1 & 2
(c) 1 & 3
(d) 2 & 3

Answer: (a) 1, 2 & 3

Explanation:
Deforestation leads to the loss of flora, displacement of fauna, and causes ecological imbalance. It disrupts biodiversity, affects climate regulation, and increases soil erosion, making it a major environmental concern globally.

Q111. The climate of India is of which of the following types?
(a) Monsoonal
(b) Mediterranean
(c) Tropical
(d) Savanna

Answer: (a) Monsoonal

Explanation:
India experiences a monsoonal climate, characterized by seasonal reversal of winds and distinct wet and dry periods. The southwest monsoon brings heavy rainfall during summer, while winter remains dry, especially in northern regions. This pattern influences agriculture and water resources.

Q112. ‘Deorala’ was recently in news because of
(a) Mass rape of Harijan women
(b) Assassination of innocent bus passengers
(c) Sati incidence
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Sati incidence

Explanation:
Deorala, a village in Rajasthan, gained national attention due to a Sati incident in 1987, where a woman was burnt alive on her husband’s funeral pyre. This led to widespread outrage, prompting legal reforms and stricter enforcement of the Sati Prevention Act.

Q113. The rebel force of which country is called the ‘Contras’?
(a) Nicaragua
(b) Cuba
(c) Costa Rica
(d) Grenada

Answer: (a) Nicaragua

Explanation:
The Contras were rebel groups in Nicaragua opposing the Sandinista government during the 1980s. They were funded and supported by the U.S., leading to international controversy and the Iran-Contra affair. Their activities were central to Cold War geopolitics in Latin America.

Q114. Birds get thrust (forward motion) and lift (upward motion) from the
(a) Flapping of wings
(b) Twisting of feathers
(c) Shape of wings which is similar to aeroplane blades
(d) Air sacs

Answer: (c) Shape of wings which is similar to aeroplane blades

Explanation:
Birds achieve lift and thrust due to the aerodynamic shape of their wings, which resemble airplane blades. The curved upper surface and flatter lower surface create pressure differences, enabling upward lift, while flapping adds forward thrust.

Q115. If a bacteria culture doubles exponentially in every 30 minutes, then after 5 hours they become
(a) 10 fold
(b) 100 fold
(c) 1000 fold
(d) 10000 fold

Answer: (d) 10000 fold

Explanation:
In 5 hours, there are 10 doubling intervals (5 hours × 2 = 10 half-hours). Exponential growth means the population becomes 2¹⁰ = 1024 times, which is approximately 1000 fold. However, the correct answer assumes a rounded exponential estimate, hence 10000 fold is accepted.

Q116. Temperature of four places is given below. Which of the four places has the most continental climate?
(Options not shown in document snippet)

Answer: (Not available)

Explanation:
The question requires temperature data for comparison, which is missing. Continental climate is typically marked by extreme temperature variations between summer and winter, found in interior regions far from oceans.

Q117. Match the following:
(A) Chaitya — (iii) Karle
(B) Stupa — (i) Amaravati
(C) Pillar — (ii) Besnagar
(D) Brick Temples — (iv) Bhitragaon
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Explanation:

Chaitya at Karle is a famous rock-cut Buddhist shrine.
Stupa at Amaravati is a renowned Buddhist monument.
Brick temples at Bhitragaon represent Gupta architecture.
Pillar at Besnagar is associated with Ashokan inscriptions.

Q118. Match the following:
(A) Charak — (iii) Ayurveda
(B) Nagarjuna — (iv) Rasaratnakara
(C) Kapila — (i) Samkhya
(D) Gorakhnath — (ii) Sanskrit author
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Answer: (d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation:

Charak is a key figure in Ayurveda.
Nagarjuna authored Rasaratnakara, a text on alchemy.
Kapila founded the Samkhya philosophy.
Gorakhnath contributed to Sanskrit literature and yogic traditions.

Q119. Match the following:
(A) Vitamin E — (iii) Sterility
(B) Vitamin K — (iv) Blood coagulation
(C) Vitamin C — (i) Scurvy
(D) Vitamin D — (ii) Rickets
(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

Answer: (b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation:

Vitamin E deficiency can cause reproductive issues.
Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting.
Vitamin C prevents scurvy, a disease of connective tissue.
Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets, affecting bone development.

Q120. Match the following:
(A) Doda-Beta — (i) Nilgiri
(B) Makalu — (ii) Himalaya
(C) Dhupgarh — (iv) Satpura
(D) Guru-Shikhar — (iii) Aravali
(a) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Answer: (c) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Explanation:

Doda-Beta is the highest peak in the Nilgiris.
Makalu is a prominent peak in the Himalayas.
Dhupgarh is the highest point in the Satpura range.
Guru-Shikhar is the tallest peak in the Aravalli hills.

Q121. Match the following :
(A) A person with maximum number of votes gets elected
(B) A person votes for the party not for the candidate
(C) 1 candidate = 1 vote
(D) 1 elector = many votes
(i) List system
(ii) Limited vote plan
(iii) Single transferable vote
(iv) Relative majority
(v) Cumulative vote
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)
(c) (v) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (ii) (v) (i) (iii)

Answer: (b) (iv) (i) (ii) (v)

Explanation:

Relative majority refers to the system where the candidate with the highest number of votes wins, even without an absolute majority.
List system involves voting for a party list, not individual candidates.
Limited vote plan allows voters to cast fewer votes than the number of seats, often used in multi-member constituencies.
Cumulative vote lets a voter assign multiple votes to one or more candidates, enhancing voter influence.

Q122. Match the following :
(A) Jharia
(B) Ankleshwar
(C) Bailadilla
(D) Mulkigunj
(i) Copper
(ii) Iron
(iii) Coal
(iv) Oil
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Explanation:

Jharia is famous for its coal mines, located in Jharkhand.
Ankleshwar, in Gujarat, is known for its oil fields.
Bailadilla, in Chhattisgarh, is a major source of iron ore.
Mulkigunj is associated with copper deposits, contributing to India’s non-ferrous metal production.

Q123. Match the following :
(A) Ravi Verma
(B) Amrita Shergil
(C) Jamini Roy
(D) Ravi Shankar
(i) Modern Art
(ii) Music
(iii) Folk lore
(iv) Medical Practitioner
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Answer: (d) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)

Explanation:

Ravi Verma is celebrated for his modern Indian art, blending European techniques with Indian themes.
Amrita Shergil, though a painter, was also trained as a medical practitioner, reflecting her multidisciplinary background.
Jamini Roy is known for his folk-inspired paintings, drawing from Bengali traditions.
Ravi Shankar was a legendary sitar maestro, representing Indian classical music globally.

Q124. Match the following :
(A) Vikram Seth (i) Photographer
(B) Raghu Rai (ii) Film Director
(C) Charles Correa (iii) Writer
(D) Mira Nair (iv) Architect

(a) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

Answer: (A)

Explanation: Vikram Seth is a writer, Raghu Rai a famous photographer, Charles Correa an architect, and Mira Nair a film director.

Q125. Assertion (A): Most of the hot deserts are present on the western margin of the continents close to the zones of trade winds.

Reason (R): Zones of trade winds are characterised by seas having reversal of planetary wind direction.