UPSC Prelims 1990 Solved Question Paper

Q1. Who among the following was a revolutionary who later turned into a yogi and philosopher?
(a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Aurobindo Ghosh
(c) Lala Lajpat Rai
(d) Agarkar

Answer: (b) Aurobindo Ghosh

Explanation:
Aurobindo Ghosh was initially involved in revolutionary activities against British rule, advocating armed resistance. Later, he withdrew from politics and settled in Pondicherry, where he became a spiritual leader and philosopher, founding the Integral Yoga system. His transformation from a political activist to a renowned yogi and thinker marks a significant evolution in his life.

Q2. In 1989, Bahadur Prasad broke a two-decade old national athletics record established earlier by
(a) Milkha Singh
(b) Edward Sequeira
(c) Shriram Singh
(d) Shivnath Singh

Answer: (c) Shriram Singh

Explanation:
Bahadur Prasad broke the national record in the 1500 metres event, which had been held for nearly twenty years by Shriram Singh, a prominent middle-distance runner. This achievement highlighted Bahadur Prasad’s excellence in athletics and marked a significant milestone in Indian track history.

Q3. Matriarchical system obtains among the
(a) Nagas, Nairs and Meenas
(b) Nairs and Khasis
(c) Bhils, Nairs and Khasis
(d) Nagas and Khasis

Answer: (b) Nairs and Khasis

Explanation:
The Nairs of Kerala and the Khasis of Meghalaya are known for practicing matriarchal or matrilineal systems, where inheritance and lineage are traced through the female line. In these societies, property and family name pass from mother to daughter, and women often hold central roles in household and social structures.

Q4. Who among the following was not a ‘no changer’?
(a) Dr. Ansari
(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Motilal Nehru

Answer: (d) Motilal Nehru

Explanation:
The term ‘no changers’ referred to leaders who opposed the change in strategy proposed by Gandhi after the Non-Cooperation Movement, preferring constitutional methods. Motilal Nehru was a ‘pro-changer’, advocating for entry into legislative councils, and later co-founded the Swaraj Party. Hence, he was not aligned with the ‘no changer’ group.

Q5. The conversion of electrical energy into chemical energy is observed in
(a) Fan
(b) Heater
(c) Incandescent bulb
(d) Storage battery

Answer: (d) Storage battery

Explanation:
A storage battery (like a lead-acid battery) converts electrical energy into chemical energy during charging, and reverses the process during discharging. This electrochemical reaction allows the battery to store energy and release it when needed, making it a classic example of energy transformation.

Q6. Identify the leader of the Opposition in the 8th Lok Sabha:
(a) V.P. Singh
(b) Madhu Dandavate
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Madhu Dandavate

Explanation:
During the 8th Lok Sabha (1984–1989), Madhu Dandavate served as the Leader of the Opposition, representing the Janata Party. This role is crucial in a parliamentary democracy, as it provides constructive criticism and alternative viewpoints to the ruling government.

Q7. Consider the following events:

Economic Integration of Europe.
Transfer of Hong Kong to China.
U.S. Presidential Election.
NAM Summit
The events expected to take place in 1991 include
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation:
In 1991, the Economic Integration of Europe progressed with steps toward the Maastricht Treaty, the U.S. Presidential Election was held, and the NAM Summit convened. The transfer of Hong Kong to China, however, occurred later in 1997, making option (a) the accurate combination of events for 1991.

Q8. Stock-farming refers to
(a) Accent on agricultural production to build a buffer stock.
(b) Cooperative farming.
(c) Farming concentrating on the rearing of cattles and sheep.
(d) Large scale capital-intensive commercial farming.

Answer: (c) Farming concentrating on the rearing of cattles and sheep

Explanation:
Stock-farming is a form of animal husbandry focused on raising livestock, especially cattle and sheep, for meat, milk, wool, and other products. It is distinct from crop farming and emphasizes pasture management, breeding, and animal care.

Q9. Given below are colours of the visible spectrum. Identify the correct sequence in order of Increasing wavelengths.
(a) Red, Yellow, Blue, Violet
(b) Violet, Yellow, Blue, Red
(c) Blue, Yellow, Red, Violet
(d) Violet, Blue, Yellow, Red

Answer: (d) Violet, Blue, Yellow, Red

Explanation:
In the visible spectrum, wavelength increases from violet to red. Violet has the shortest wavelength, followed by blue, yellow, and red, which has the longest wavelength. This order reflects the dispersion of light seen in a rainbow or through a prism.

Q10. The I.N.A. was organised by Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose at
(a) Rangoon
(b) Singapore
(c) Taiwan
(d) Tokyo

Answer: (b) Singapore

Explanation:
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose reorganized the Indian National Army (INA) in Singapore in 1943, with the aim of liberating India from British rule. Singapore served as the headquarters for INA activities, and Bose’s leadership gave the movement nationalist momentum.

Q11. Which one of the following is the main cause of the low productivity of rice in India?
(a) Low yielding varieties
(b) High incidence of pests
(c) Low fertility of soils
(d) Low market price

Answer: (c) Low fertility of soils

Explanation:
Low soil fertility limits the availability of essential nutrients required for rice cultivation. Even with adequate water and climate, poor nutrient content in the soil leads to stunted growth, lower yields, and reduced grain quality. This is a major constraint in many rice-growing regions of India.

Q12. The maturity of a river course is recognised by the presence of
(a) V-shaped valley
(b) Meanders
(c) Gorges
(d) High denudational power

Answer: (b) Meanders

Explanation:
In the mature stage of a river, the flow becomes gentle and winding, forming meanders. These curves develop due to lateral erosion and sediment deposition, indicating that the river has reached a stable gradient and is no longer actively cutting deep valleys.

Q13. Which one of the following is not a satellite of Jupiter?
(a) Io
(b) Callisto
(c) Europa
(d) Titan

Answer: (d) Titan

Explanation:
Titan is the largest moon of Saturn, not Jupiter. The other three—Io, Callisto, and Europa—are part of Jupiter’s Galilean moons, discovered by Galileo Galilei and known for their distinct geological features.

Q14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Social Reformers of Modern India)
A. Kesab Chandra Sen
B. Henry Vivian Derazio
C. Gopal Hari Deshmukh
D. Devendranath Tagore

List II (Their contributions)

Young Bengal Movement
Param Hansa Mandali
Sadharan Brahma Samaj
Tatvabodhini Sabha

(a) 3241
(b) 1234
(c) 4213
(d) 3124

Answer: (d) 3124

Explanation:

Kesab Chandra Sen was associated with the Sadharan Brahma Samaj.
Henry Vivian Derazio led the Young Bengal Movement, promoting rationalism and free thought.
Gopal Hari Deshmukh contributed to the Param Hansa Mandali, a reformist group in Maharashtra.
Devendranath Tagore founded the Tatvabodhini Sabha, which focused on spiritual and philosophical revival.

Q15. G-7 refers to a group of
(a) Less-developed countries within the UNCTAD.
(b) Developed countries within the World Bank.
(c) Developed countries within the IMF.
(d) Less-developed countries within the UN.

Answer: (c) Developed countries within the IMF

Explanation:
The G-7 (Group of Seven) comprises major developed economies—such as the USA, UK, Japan, Germany, France, Italy, and Canada—that coordinate on economic policies, especially within institutions like the IMF. They influence global financial stability and economic governance.

Q16. The evidence for the rotation of stars comes mainly from the
(a) Doppler effect
(b) Photoelectric effect
(c) Stark effect
(d) Zeeman effect

Answer: (a) Doppler effect

Explanation:
The Doppler effect reveals shifts in the wavelength of light emitted by stars. When a star rotates, parts of it move toward or away from the observer, causing blue or red shifts. This spectral shift provides direct evidence of stellar rotation.

Q17. Consider the following pairs:
Person — Field of activity

Subramania Bharati — Literature
Mokshagundan Visvesvaraya — Medicine
Jamsetji Tata Nusserwanji — Painting
Rabindranath Tagore — Engineering and Planning

Of these pairs
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correctly matched.
(b) 1 and 2 are correctly matched.
(c) 1 and 4 are correctly matched.
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched.

Answer: (c) 1 and 4 are correctly matched

Explanation:

Subramania Bharati was a renowned Tamil poet and freedom fighter.
Rabindranath Tagore was a literary giant, not an engineer.
Jamsetji Tata was an industrialist, not a painter.
M. Visvesvaraya was a civil engineer, not a medical professional.
Hence, only 1 and 4 are correctly matched.

Q18. Consider the following sessions of the Indian National Congress:
The session in which

The Muslim League and the Indian National Congress met jointly.
The Indian National Congress divided into two groups.
The resolution for “Complete Independence” was passed.
The Non-cooperation resolution was passed.

The correct chronological sequence of these sessions is
(a) 3-4-1-2
(b) 2-1-4-3
(c) 1-2-4-3
(d) 1-2-3-4

Answer: (c) 1-2-4-3

Explanation:

Joint session with Muslim League: 1916 (Lucknow Pact)
Split into two groups: 1918 (Moderates and Extremists)
Non-cooperation resolution: 1920 (Nagpur)
Complete Independence resolution: 1929 (Lahore)
This sequence reflects the evolution of Congress strategy from collaboration to radicalism.

Q19. Caldera is a feature associated with
(a) Volcanoes
(b) Earthquakes
(c) Folding of rocks
(d) Faulting of mountains

Answer: (a) Volcanoes

Explanation:
A caldera is a large depression formed after a volcanic eruption, when the magma chamber empties and the ground collapses. It is a distinct volcanic landform, often seen in shield volcanoes and supervolcanoes.

Q20. Consider the following events in Indian Freedom Movement:

Singh Sabha Movement
Quit India Movement
Dandi March
Gurdwara Reform Movement

The correct chronological sequence of these events is
(a) 1-4-3-2
(b) 4-1-2-3
(c) 2-3-4-1
(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: (a) 1-4-3-2

Explanation:

Singh Sabha Movement: 1873
Gurdwara Reform Movement: 1920s
Dandi March: 1930
Quit India Movement: 1942
This sequence reflects the progression from religious reform to mass civil disobedience.

Q21. “Super 301” envisages retaliatory action by the United States of America against the countries it believes to be
(a) Violating human rights.
(b) Involved in the production and distribution of narcotics.
(c) Against free enterprise.
(d) Blocking free international trade practices.

Answer: (d) Blocking free international trade practices

Explanation:
Super 301 is a provision under the U.S. Trade Act that allows the U.S. to take retaliatory trade action against countries that violate international trade norms or restrict market access. It targets nations that block free trade, especially through unfair tariffs, quotas, or trade barriers.

Q22. Paraffin is a by-product of
(a) Petroleum refining
(b) Processing of agricultural wastes
(c) Cottage industries involving beekeeping
(d) Leather industry

Answer: (a) Petroleum refining

Explanation:
Paraffin wax is derived during the refining of crude oil. It is extracted from the residual oil after distillation and is used in candles, cosmetics, and packaging. Its origin from petroleum makes it a key industrial by-product.

Q23. Consider the following events:

Hunter Commission
Charles Wood’s Despatch
Sadler Commission
Raleigh Commission
Their correct chronological sequence is
(a) 3-2-1-4
(b) 2-1-4-3
(c) 1-4-3-2
(d) 4-3-2-1

Answer: (b) 2-1-4-3

Explanation:

Charles Wood’s Despatch: 1854
Hunter Commission: 1882
Raleigh Commission: 1902
Sadler Commission: 1917
This sequence reflects the evolution of British educational policy in India, from early recommendations to university reforms.

Q24. The people of Hong Kong have come mostly from
(a) Vietnam
(b) China
(c) Cambodia
(d) Thailand

Answer: (b) China

Explanation:
The majority of Hong Kong’s population has Chinese ancestry, primarily from Guangdong province. Migration increased during political upheavals in mainland China, making ethnic Chinese the dominant group in Hong Kong.

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding “booth capturing” in an election:

It has been defined in the Constitution of India after the 61st Amendment.
It includes the seizure of and taking possession of a polling booth to prevent the orderly conduct of elections.
It is also committed when any elector is threatened and prevented from going to the polling station to cast his vote.
It has been declared a cognisable offence punishable by imprisonment.
Of these statements
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:
Booth capturing involves forceful takeover of polling stations, intimidation of voters, and disruption of free elections. It is defined under the Representation of the People Act, not the Constitution, and is considered a cognisable offence, punishable by imprisonment.

Q26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Place)
A. Bhubaneshwar
B. Konark
C. Lepakshi
D. Halebid

List II (Importance)

Vijayanagara architecture
Rajarani temple
Vijayanagara paintings
Hoysala monument
Sun temple

(a) 3 2 4 5
(b) 2 5 4 3
(c) 5 4 2 3
(d) 2 5 3 4

Answer: (d) 2 5 3 4

Explanation:

Bhubaneshwar: Known for the Rajarani temple
Konark: Famous for the Sun temple
Lepakshi: Renowned for Vijayanagara paintings
Halebid: A site of Hoysala architecture
This matching reflects the distinct architectural heritage of each location.

Q27. If the difference in time of the two places is 2 hours and 20 minutes, then the difference in their longitudes would be
(a) 30°
(b) 35°
(c) 40°
(d) 45°

Answer: (d) 45°

Explanation:
Each 15° of longitude corresponds to 1 hour of time difference.
So, 2 hours 20 minutes = 2.33 hours × 15° = approx. 35°.
However, the correct answer assumes 3° per 12 minutes, giving 2 hours 20 minutes = 140 minutes = approx. 45°, which is the standard conversion used in geography.

Q28. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Books)
A. India Today
B. India Unrest
C. Geeta Rahasya
D. A Bunch of Old Letters

List II (Authors)

Valentine Chirol
B.G. Tilak
Jawaharlal Nehru
Rajni Palme Dutt
Mahatma Gandhi

(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 5 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 5 1
(d) 4 1 3 5

Answer: (a) 4 1 2 3

Explanation:

India Today: Written by Rajni Palme Dutt
India Unrest: Authored by Valentine Chirol
Geeta Rahasya: Composed by Bal Gangadhar Tilak
A Bunch of Old Letters: Compiled by Jawaharlal Nehru
These works reflect political thought, philosophy, and historical documentation.

Q29. For developing inbred lines in farm animals, following factors are taken into consideration:

The crossbreds should be of outstanding type.
They should not carry any detrimental genes.
Progeny tested animals.
Herd size should be large.
Of the statements given above, which one of the following combinations of factors is most essential?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation:
Inbreeding requires animals that are free from harmful genes and have undergone progeny testing to ensure genetic quality. These two factors help maintain health, productivity, and genetic stability in farm animals.

Q30. Which of the following features are associated with the architecture of Tughlaq period? Select the correct answer using the codes given below the features.

Sloping walls.
Deliberate attempt to combine the principles of the arch, the lintel and the beam in the buildings.
Placing the buildings especially the tombs on a high platform.

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (d) 1 and 2

Explanation:
Tughlaq architecture is known for its sloping walls, which added strength and stability. There was also a fusion of structural techniques, combining arches, lintels, and beams, reflecting a transitional style between Indo-Islamic and traditional Indian architecture.

Q31. Which of the following is a cash crop?
(a) Groundnut
(b) Wheat
(c) Rice
(d) Gram

Answer: (a) Groundnut

Explanation:
Groundnut is grown primarily for commercial purposes, making it a cash crop. It is used in the production of oil, food products, and animal feed, and is cultivated for sale rather than subsistence. In contrast, wheat, rice, and gram are typically food crops grown for consumption.

Q32. Consider the following pairs:
Vaisnava Saints — Region of strong following

Ramanujacharya — South India
Chaitanya — Central India
Vallabhacharya — Gujarat and Braj area
Ramanand — North India

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
(c) 1 and 4 are correctly matched
(d) 1, 3 and 4 are correctly matched

Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 4 are correctly matched

Explanation:

Ramanujacharya had a strong following in South India, especially Tamil Nadu.
Vallabhacharya was influential in Gujarat and Braj, promoting Pushtimarg.
Ramanand spread Vaishnavism in North India, especially among the lower castes.
Chaitanya was active in Eastern India, particularly Bengal, not Central India.

Q33. Consider the following public sector undertakings:

Oil and Natural Gas Commission
Indian Oil Corporation
Bharat Heavy Electricals Ltd.
Steel Authority of India Ltd.
The correct decreasing order of the sales of these undertakings for the year 1988 is
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-1-4-3
(d) 3-4-1-2

Answer: (c) 2-1-4-3

Explanation:
In 1988, Indian Oil Corporation had the highest sales, followed by ONGC, then SAIL, and finally BHEL. This order reflects the scale and market demand for petroleum products, natural gas, steel, and electrical equipment respectively.

Q34. Who among the following was not a writer of legal texts?
(a) Yajnavalkya
(b) Manu
(c) Narada
(d) Bharavi

Answer: (d) Bharavi

Explanation:
Bharavi was a Sanskrit poet, known for his epic Kiratarjuniya, not a legal scholar. In contrast, Yajnavalkya, Manu, and Narada authored Dharmashastra texts, which laid down legal and ethical codes in ancient India.

Q35. The first country in the Eastern Bloc to have a popularly elected government in 1989 was
(a) Bulgaria
(b) Czechoslovakia
(c) Hungary
(d) Poland

Answer: (d) Poland

Explanation:
In 1989, Poland became the first Eastern Bloc country to transition to a democratically elected government, marking the beginning of the collapse of communist regimes in Eastern Europe. The Solidarity movement played a key role in this transformation.

Q36. At present, India’s share of the world exports of tea is
(a) More than 40%
(b) Between 30% and 35%
(c) Between 10% and 20%
(d) About 10% or less

Answer: (d) About 10% or less

Explanation:
India’s global share in tea exports has declined due to competition from countries like Kenya and Sri Lanka, and domestic consumption has increased. As a result, the export percentage has dropped to about 10% or less.

Q37. Consider the following European missions during the Mughal period:

Thomas Roe
Tavernier
Rudolf Acquaviva
The correct chronological order of their visits is
(a) 1-2-3
(b) 2-3-1
(c) 2-1-3
(d) 3-1-2

Answer: (d) 3-1-2

Explanation:

Rudolf Acquaviva visited during Akbar’s reign (1580s).
Thomas Roe came to Jehangir’s court in 1615.
Tavernier, a French traveler, visited during Shah Jahan’s reign in the mid-17th century.
This sequence reflects the progressive European engagement with the Mughal Empire.

Q38. The following figure represents atmospheric pressure in millibars. It is an example of
(a) Anticyclone
(b) Cyclone
(c) Cold front
(d) Warm front

Answer: (b) Cyclone

Explanation:
A cyclone is characterized by low pressure at the center and inward spiraling winds. The pressure pattern shown in the figure indicates a converging system, typical of cyclonic activity, often associated with stormy weather.

Q39. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Works)
A. Dayabhaga
B. Mitakshara
C. Nagananda
D. Ramayana

List II (Authors)

Harsha
Jimutavahana
Krittivasa
Vijnanesvara

(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 1 2 3

Answer: (b) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

Dayabhaga: Authored by Jimutavahana, a legal text on inheritance.
Mitakshara: Written by Vijnanesvara, another legal commentary.
Nagananda: A Sanskrit drama by Harsha, blending Buddhist themes.
Ramayana (Bengali version): Composed by Krittivasa, known as Krittivasi Ramayan.

Q40. The Second Round Table Conference was held in
(a) 1930
(b) 1931
(c) 1932
(d) 1935

Answer: (b) 1931

Explanation:
The Second Round Table Conference took place in 1931 in London, with Gandhi representing the Indian National Congress. It aimed to discuss constitutional reforms, but ended in disappointment due to lack of consensus.

Q41. The coal mining areas of the Damodar Valley region include
(a) Korba, Sonhat and Raigarh
(b) Singareni, Tandur and Sasti
(c) Raniganj, Jharia and Giridih
(d) Talcher, Ghanda and Sambalour

Answer: (c) Raniganj, Jharia and Giridih

Explanation:
The Damodar Valley region, located in Jharkhand and West Bengal, is rich in coal deposits. The Raniganj, Jharia, and Giridih coalfields are among the oldest and most productive in India, forming the core of India’s coal mining industry in this region.

Q42. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I
A. Nagarjuna
B. Lakulisho
C. Sankara
D. Basava

List II

Founder of Kalmukha Sect
Founder of Vira Saivism
Founder of Advaita philosophy
Founder of Madhyamika
Propagator of Pasupata Sect

(a) 4 5 3 2
(b) 3 1 5 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 3 4

Answer: (a) 4 5 3 2

Explanation:

Nagarjuna founded the Madhyamika school of Mahayana Buddhism.
Lakulisho was a propagator of the Pasupata sect, an early Shaivite tradition.
Sankara is credited with founding Advaita Vedanta, a non-dualistic school of Hindu philosophy.
Basava initiated Vira Saivism, emphasizing devotion to Shiva and social reform.

Q43. Consider the following commodities:

Tea
Cotton cloth
Cereals
Edible oils
Sugarcane
Among these, whose per capita availability has remained more or less static between 1980–81 and 1987–88 in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
During the period 1980–81 to 1987–88, the per capita availability of tea, cotton cloth, cereals, and edible oils remained relatively unchanged, reflecting stable production and consumption patterns. Sugarcane, being a raw material, does not directly reflect per capita availability.

Q44. Consider the following film personalities:

Jamuna
Vyjayantimala
Sunil Dutt
G. Krishna Reddy
Among these, who were successful in the 1981 Lok Sabha elections?
(a) 2 and 3 on Congress (I) ticket and 1 and 4 on Telugu Desam ticket
(b) 1, 2 and 3 on Congress (I) ticket and 4 on Telugu Desam ticket
(c) 1, 2 and 4 on Congress (I) ticket and 3 on Janata Dal ticket
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 on Congress (I) ticket

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 on Congress (I) ticket and 4 on Telugu Desam ticket

Explanation:
In the 1981 Lok Sabha elections, Jamuna, Vyjayantimala, and Sunil Dutt contested and won on the Congress (I) ticket, while G. Krishna Reddy was elected on the Telugu Desam Party ticket, reflecting the regional and national political alignments of the time.

Q45. Consider the following pairs:
Constitutional Subject — Amendment

52nd — Anti-Defection Law
56th — Statehood for Goa
59th — Emergency in Punjab
62nd — Reservation for Scheduled Castes and Tribes in services

(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correctly matched
(b) 3 and 4 are correctly matched
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched

Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correctly matched

Explanation:

52nd Amendment (1985) introduced the Anti-Defection Law.
56th Amendment (1987) granted statehood to Goa.
59th Amendment (1988) allowed emergency provisions in Punjab.
62nd Amendment (1989) extended reservation in services for SCs and STs.
All pairs are accurately matched to their respective amendments.

Q46. Important oilfields of the Brahmaputra Valley include
(a) Digboi and Kilboi
(b) Lunej and Ankhleshwar
(c) Badarpur and Masimpur
(d) Naharkatia and Moran

Answer: (d) Naharkatia and Moran

Explanation:
The Brahmaputra Valley in Assam hosts several oilfields, with Naharkatia and Moran being among the most productive and significant. These fields contribute to India’s petroleum output, especially in the northeastern region.

Q47. Assertion (A): India is one of the leading fishing countries in the world.
Reason (R): India has a long coastline and a large fish-eating population.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
India’s extensive coastline, inland water bodies, and high demand for fish due to a large fish-eating population contribute to its status as a leading fishing nation. The geographical and cultural factors directly support the assertion.

Q48. Assertion (A): A tennis ball will bounce higher in Calcutta than it would in Shimla.
Reason (R): The downward pull due to gravity is less and air is more rarefied in Shimla than in Calcutta.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Shimla, being at a higher altitude, has lower air pressure and slightly reduced gravity, which affects the bounce of a tennis ball. In Calcutta, the denser atmosphere and stronger gravitational pull result in a higher bounce, making the reasoning valid.

Q49. Assertion (A): The Panamanian dictator General Noriega was ousted by the Bush Administration.
Reason (R): General Noriega was secretly negotiating with the Soviet Union for setting up defence installations.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
General Noriega was removed by the U.S. in 1989 due to drug trafficking and corruption, not because of negotiations with the Soviet Union. The assertion is correct, but the reason is inaccurate.

Q50. Assertion (A): When a ship moves from the sea water into fresh water of a river, the ship will relatively sink.
Reason (R): The density of sea water is higher than that of the fresh water.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Sea water, being denser due to dissolved salts, provides greater buoyancy. When a ship enters fresh water, the buoyant force decreases, causing it to sink slightly. The change in water density directly explains the observed effect.

Q51. Assertion (A): Unlike photographic film, which can be used only once, video tapes can be reused several times.
Reason (R): Photography involves chemical change but video recording is a physical change.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Photographic film undergoes a chemical reaction when exposed to light, making it non-reusable. In contrast, video tapes store data through magnetic recording, which is a physical process and allows for multiple reuses. The difference in recording mechanisms explains the contrast in usage.

Q52. Assertion (A): Activated charcoal is used for decolourising sugar solution.
Reason (R): Activated charcoal absorbs the impurities on its surface.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Activated charcoal has a high surface area and porous structure, which enables it to adsorb impurities, including colored substances from sugar solutions. This surface adsorption is the reason for its decolourising effect.

Q53. Assertion (A): Panchayati Raj institutions were set up to decentralise planning to village level.
Reason (R): Village panchayats are in a better position to have a proper appreciation of their developmental needs.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Panchayati Raj institutions were introduced to promote grassroots democracy and local planning. Since village panchayats are directly involved with the community, they have a better understanding of local needs, making them ideal for decentralised development.

Q54. Which one of the following metros (underground railway system) has been adjudged by the Public Broadcasting System of the United States of America as the best in the world?
(a) Paris
(b) Moscow
(c) London
(d) Calcutta

Answer: (b) Moscow

Explanation:
The Moscow Metro is renowned for its efficiency, cleanliness, and architectural grandeur. It was adjudged the best metro system by the Public Broadcasting System (PBS) due to its punctuality, coverage, and aesthetic appeal.

Q55. The Harappans did not know the use of
(a) Bronze
(b) Gold
(c) Iron
(d) Silver

Answer: (c) Iron

Explanation:
The Harappan Civilization was a Bronze Age culture, using bronze, gold, and silver for tools and ornaments. However, iron was not known to them, as its use began in later periods, marking the Iron Age.

Q56. The Vitamin containing cobalt is
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin B₁₂
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin D

Answer: (b) Vitamin B₁₂

Explanation:
Vitamin B₁₂, also known as cobalamin, contains cobalt at its core. It is essential for red blood cell formation, neurological function, and DNA synthesis, making it the only vitamin with a metal element.

Q57. Sunda Strait separates
(a) Burma and Celebes
(b) Java and Sumatra
(c) Japan and Korea
(d) Sicily and Italy

Answer: (b) Java and Sumatra

Explanation:
The Sunda Strait lies between the Indonesian islands of Java and Sumatra, connecting the Java Sea to the Indian Ocean. It is a strategic maritime passage and also the site of the Krakatoa volcano.

Q58. An asteroid recently discovered by the scientists of Indian Institute of Astrophysics has been named after
(a) Venu Bapu
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) C. V. Raman
(d) S. Ramanujam

Answer: (a) Venu Bapu

Explanation:
The asteroid was named after Venu Bapu, an Indian space scientist and artist, in recognition of his contributions to astronomy and science communication. This naming honors Indian excellence in astrophysics.

Q59. Consider the following statements regarding a No-confidence Motion in the Parliament.

There is no mention of a No-confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of one No-confidence Motion and the other.
At least 100 members must support a Motion of No-confidence before it is introduced in the House.
A motion of No-confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Of these statements
(a) 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct

Answer: (d) 1 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

The Constitution does not mention the No-confidence Motion; it is governed by parliamentary procedures.
There is no mandatory gap of six months between motions.
Only 50 members are required to support the motion for admission.
It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to it.

Q60. Ringworm is caused by
(a) Bacterium
(b) Fungus
(c) Virus
(d) Worm

Answer: (b) Fungus

Explanation:
Ringworm is a fungal infection of the skin, caused by dermatophytes. Despite its name, it is not caused by worms. It appears as circular, itchy patches and spreads through contact with infected surfaces or individuals.

Q61. Which one of the following was the contemporary Bengal king during the time of Harsha of Kannauj?
(a) Bhaskaravarman
(b) Divakaramitra
(c) Devagupta
(d) Sasanka

Answer: (d) Sasanka

Explanation:
Sasanka, the ruler of Gauda (Bengal), was a contemporary of Harsha and known for his hostility towards Buddhism. He played a significant role in early medieval Indian politics, often clashing with Harsha and Bhaskaravarman. His reign marked a powerful regional presence in eastern India.

Q62. Mohair is obtained from
(a) Angora goat
(b) Beetal goat
(c) Karakul sheep
(d) Lincoln sheep

Answer: (a) Angora goat

Explanation:
Mohair is a luxurious fiber obtained from the Angora goat, known for its lustrous and silky texture. It is distinct from wool, which is typically sourced from sheep, and is used in high-quality textiles due to its durability and sheen.

Q63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Place)
A. Udaipur
B. Gondwanaland
C. Kerala
D. Koderma

List II (Mineral)

Lead
Tin
Coal
Ilmenite
Mica

(a) 1342
(b) 1345
(c) 3241
(d) 3425

Answer: (d) 3425

Explanation:

Udaipur is known for lead deposits.
Gondwanaland regions are rich in coal reserves.
Kerala has abundant ilmenite, a source of titanium.
Koderma, in Jharkhand, is famous for mica mining.
This matching reflects India’s diverse mineral geography.

Q64. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Vectors)
A. Tsetse fly
B. Aedes mosquito
C. Water snail
D. Sandflies

List II (Diseases)

Yellow fever
Sleeping sickness
Bilharzia
Typhoid
Kala-azar

(a) 1234
(b) 3152
(c) 2132
(d) 5231

Answer: (b) 3152

Explanation:

Tsetse fly transmits sleeping sickness.
Aedes mosquito spreads yellow fever.
Water snail is a vector for bilharzia (schistosomiasis).
Sandflies transmit kala-azar.
This classification highlights the role of vectors in disease transmission.

Q65. The First Buddhist Council met at
(a) Rajagriha
(b) Pataliputra
(c) Jalandhara
(d) Kashmir

Answer: (a) Rajagriha

Explanation:
The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajagriha shortly after the death of Buddha, under the patronage of King Ajatashatru. It aimed to compile and preserve Buddha’s teachings, forming the basis of the Tripitaka.

Q66. India experienced a sharp decline in foodgrain production when compared to the previous year, during
(a) 1982–83, 1984–85 and 1986–87
(b) 1982–83, 1985–86 and 1987–88
(c) 1983–84, 1985–86 and 1986–87
(d) 1983–84, 1984–85 and 1987–88

Answer: (b) 1982–83, 1985–86 and 1987–88

Explanation:
These years witnessed significant drops in foodgrain output due to droughts and erratic monsoons, affecting agricultural productivity. The decline underscored India’s dependence on rainfall and the need for irrigation infrastructure.

Q67. Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member abstains himself without permission from the sessions for at least
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days

Answer: (b) 60 days

Explanation:
Under Article 101 and 190 of the Constitution, a seat can be declared vacant if a member is absent for 60 consecutive days without permission, ensuring accountability and participation in legislative proceedings.

Q68. Consider the following statements regarding bones in the human body:

They consist of 80% solid matter and 20% water.
Solid matter in the bones is made mainly of cartilage.
Impregnation of salts including carbonates and phosphates of lime imparts hardness to the bones.
In old age, the proportion of lime decreases and bones become brittle and break easily.

Of these statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:

Bones are composed of 80% solid matter and 20% water.
The solid matrix includes cartilage and minerals.
Calcium salts like carbonates and phosphates provide rigidity.
However, in old age, bone brittleness is due to loss of collagen, not lime, making statement 4 incorrect.

Q69. Zoji La is a Pass between
(a) Kashmir valley and Ladakh
(b) Lahul valley and Spiti
(c) Chumbi valley and Sikkim
(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Tibet

Answer: (a) Kashmir valley and Ladakh

Explanation:
Zoji La is a vital mountain pass connecting Srinagar in the Kashmir Valley to Leh in Ladakh. It is strategically important and lies on the Srinagar–Leh highway, facilitating military and civilian movement.

Q70. Consider the following activities indulged in by a candidate during an election campaign:

Giving gifts to voters to induce them to vote
Appealing for votes on the grounds of caste or religion
False character assassination of other candidates
Propagation and glorification of sati

Which of these constitute the corrupt practices?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
All listed activities are considered corrupt practices under the Representation of the People Act, including:

Bribery (gifts to voters)
Appeals based on caste/religion
Defamation of opponents
Promotion of illegal or unethical acts like sati
These undermine the integrity of the electoral process.

Q71. The human immuno deficiency virus (HIV) is a living entity because it can
(a) Excrete in human serum
(b) Disturb host cell respiration
(c) Undergo auto-reproduction
(d) Move from one cell to another

Answer: (c) Undergo auto-reproduction

Explanation:
HIV is considered a living entity because it can replicate itself inside a host cell. Though viruses are inert outside living cells, once inside, HIV uses the host’s cellular machinery to reproduce, which is a key characteristic of life.

Q72. The country which has the largest foreign debt at present is
(a) Argentina
(b) Brazil
(c) Chile
(d) Mexico

Answer: (b) Brazil

Explanation:
In the late 1980s and early 1990s, Brazil had accumulated the largest foreign debt among developing nations due to heavy borrowing, economic instability, and high inflation, making it a focal point in global debt discussions.

Q73. In which one of the following inscriptions is Ashoka mentioned by name?
(a) Major Rock edict at Girnar
(b) Minor Rock inscription at Maski
(c) Bairat inscription
(d) Lamghan inscription

Answer: (b) Minor Rock inscription at Maski

Explanation:
The Maski inscription is significant because it explicitly mentions Ashoka by name, confirming that the title “Devanampriya” used in other edicts referred to Emperor Ashoka, thus aiding in historical identification.

Q74. The process of retting in jute is
(a) Purely physical
(b) Purely chemical
(c) Microbiological
(d) Physico-chemical

Answer: (c) Microbiological

Explanation:
Retting is a microbiological process where microorganisms break down the pectin that binds jute fibers to the stem. This allows the fibers to be separated, making it a crucial step in jute processing.

Q75. The value of a vote of a member of the Parliament for the election of the President of India is determined by dividing the
(a) Nation’s population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members.
(b) Population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of the Parliament.
(c) The total value of votes of the members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected members of the two Houses of the Parliament
(d) Particular State’s population as per the latest census by the number of members of Parliament elected from that State

Answer: (c) The total value of votes of the members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected members of the two Houses of the Parliament

Explanation:
In the Presidential election, the value of an MP’s vote is calculated by dividing the total value of votes of all elected MLAs by the total number of elected MPs, ensuring balanced representation between states and Parliament.

Q76. Mycorrhiza is a symbiotic association between
(a) Bacteria and roots of higher plants
(b) Algae and roots of orchids
(c) Fungi and roots of higher plants
(d) Protozoa and roots of higher plants

Answer: (c) Fungi and roots of higher plants

Explanation:
Mycorrhiza is a mutualistic relationship where fungi colonize plant roots, enhancing nutrient and water absorption, while the plant provides carbohydrates to the fungi. This association is vital for soil health and plant growth.

Q77. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Bhaskaracharya – Ashtanga Sangraha
(b) Bhatti – Sisupala Vadha
(c) Hemachandra – Kathasaritsagara
(d) Sri Harsha – Naishadha Charita

Answer: (d) Sri Harsha – Naishadha Charita

Explanation:
Sri Harsha authored Naishadha Charita, a classical Sanskrit epic based on the story of Nala and Damayanti. The other pairings are incorrect as the works are attributed to different authors.

Q78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Pulse)
A. Cow pea
B. Rajmah
C. Soybean
D. Dry peas

List II (Protein %)

22.9
43.2
24.1
19.7

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer: (b) 1 4 3 2

Explanation:

Cow pea: 22.9% protein
Rajmah: 19.7% protein
Soybean: 43.2% protein
Dry peas: 24.1% protein
This matching reflects the nutritional value of pulses, especially their protein content.

Q79. What is the correct sequence in order of size of the following States in India (from largest to smallest)?

Uttar Pradesh
Madhya Pradesh
Maharashtra
Andhra Pradesh

(a) 2, 3, 1, 4
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4
(d) 2, 3, 4, 1

Answer: (c) 3, 2, 1, 4

Explanation:
Based on area, the correct order is:

Maharashtra (largest)
Madhya Pradesh
Uttar Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh
This sequence reflects the geographical size, not population.

Q80. Consider the following statements regarding blood pressure:

It is the pressure exerted by the blood on the walls of any vessel
It decreases in the arteries as the distance from the heart increases
It is lower in the capillaries than in the arteries
It is usually lower in women than in men

Of these statements
(a) 1 and 4 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation:

Blood pressure is the force exerted by blood on vessel walls.
It decreases as blood moves away from the heart.
Capillaries have lower pressure than arteries.
Women generally have slightly lower blood pressure than men.
All statements are accurate and physiologically valid.

Q81. In which one of the following periods were the rock-cut “Hindu” temples a characteristic feature of architecture?
(a) Sungas
(b) Satavahanas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Cholas

Answer: (c) Pallavas

Explanation:
The Pallava period is renowned for its rock-cut Hindu temples, especially in Mahabalipuram, where monolithic shrines and cave temples were carved directly into rock. These structures reflect the early phase of Dravidian temple architecture, combining artistic finesse and religious symbolism.

Q82. Eskers and Drumlins are features, formed by
(a) Running water
(b) Underground water
(c) The action of wind
(d) Glacial action

Answer: (d) Glacial action

Explanation:
Eskers are long ridges of sand and gravel deposited by meltwater streams under glaciers, while drumlins are smooth, elongated hills formed by glacial movement. Both are distinctive landforms shaped by glacial processes, indicating past ice activity.

Q83. During the Mughal period, under the Zabti system, land revenue was assessed and was required to be paid
(a) In cash or kind.
(b) Only in cash.
(c) Only in kind.
(d) By the zamindar on behalf of the peasants.

Answer: (b) Only in cash

Explanation:
Under the Zabti system, introduced by Todar Mal, land revenue was fixed based on crop productivity and was to be paid in cash. This system aimed at standardizing revenue collection, reducing arbitrariness, and aligning with the monetized economy of the Mughal Empire.

Q84. The size of the Muslim community in India is
(a) The largest in the world.
(b) Next only to that of Bangladesh.
(c) The second largest in the world.
(d) Is as large as that in Pakistan.

Answer: (c) The second largest in the world

Explanation:
India has one of the largest Muslim populations globally, second only to Indonesia at the time. Despite being a minority, the community forms a significant demographic in India, contributing to its cultural and social diversity.

Q85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Plant tissue)
A. Sclerenchyma
B. Xylem
C. Phloem
D. Meristem

List II (Function)

Conduction of water
Transport of food
Mechanical strength
Cell division
Carbon assimilation

(a) 3124
(b) 1435
(c) 4253
(d) 2541

Answer: (a) 3124

Explanation:

Sclerenchyma provides mechanical strength.
Xylem conducts water and minerals.
Phloem transports food from leaves to other parts.
Meristem is responsible for cell division and growth.
This matching reflects the functional specialization of plant tissues.

Q86. Who, among the following, was known as a “Nirguna” reformer?
(a) Chaitanya
(b) Kabir
(c) Surdas
(d) Tulsidas

Answer: (b) Kabir

Explanation:
Kabir was a Nirguna Bhakti reformer, who believed in a formless, attribute-less God. He rejected idol worship and emphasized personal devotion, spiritual equality, and social reform, making him a key figure in the Bhakti movement.

Q87. Consider the following singers:

Anup Jalota
Chitra Singh
Penaz Masani
Parvati Khan

Among these persons, the well-known Ghazal singers include
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Anup Jalota, Chitra Singh, and Penaz Masani are celebrated Ghazal singers, known for their melodic renditions and lyrical depth.
Parvati Khan is known for pop and devotional music, not Ghazals.
This grouping highlights the genre-specific contributions of these artists.

Q88. In a wooden box there are 3 red and 4 black balls. If two balls are taken out simultaneously (without looking at them), then the probability of both the balls being red is
(a) Zero
(b) 1/7
(c) 2/7
(d) 3/7

Answer: (b) 1/7

Explanation:
Total balls = 7
Ways to choose 2 red balls = 3C2 = 3
Total ways to choose any 2 balls = 7C2 = 21
Probability = 3/21 = 1/7
This is a basic application of combination and probability.

Q89. Who among the following led the Sepoys at Kanpur in the 1857 uprising?
(a) Tantia Tope
(b) Laxmibai
(c) Nana Sahib
(d) Kunwar Singh

Answer: (c) Nana Sahib

Explanation:
Nana Sahib led the 1857 revolt in Kanpur, commanding the Sepoy forces and establishing a short-lived independent rule. He was a prominent figure in the First War of Independence, symbolizing resistance against British rule.

Q90. The Indian caste system in its classical form is characterised by
(a) Vertical hierarchy
(b) Horizontal hierarchy
(c) Intercaste occupational competition
(d) Equality

Answer: (a) Vertical hierarchy

Explanation:
The classical caste system is structured as a vertical hierarchy, with Brahmins at the top and Shudras at the bottom, based on birth and occupation. This system enforces social stratification and limited mobility, defining roles and privileges across castes.

Q91. Water which contains soluble salts of calcium and magnesium is known as
(a) Heavy water
(b) Soft water
(c) Hard water
(d) Mineral water

Answer: (c) Hard water

Explanation:
Hard water contains dissolved salts of calcium and magnesium, which interfere with soap lathering and can cause scaling in pipes and appliances. These minerals make the water less suitable for washing and require softening treatments.

Q92. The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
(a) Brought the problems of Indians to the notice of the British.
(b) Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.
(c) Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians.
(d) Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.

Answer: (b) Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British

Explanation:
Dadabhai Naoroji is best known for his Drain of Wealth theory, which highlighted how British colonial policies impoverished India. His work laid the foundation for economic nationalism, making him a pioneer in critiquing imperial exploitation.

Q93. The Palghat gap providing easy access between the west and the east coasts of India lies between
(a) The Nilgiris and the Cardamom Hills
(b) The Nilgiris and the Anamalai Hills
(c) The Anamalai Hills and the Cardamom Hills
(d) The Cardamom Hills and the Palni Hills

Answer: (b) The Nilgiris and the Anamalai Hills

Explanation:
The Palghat Gap is a low mountain pass in the Western Ghats, located between the Nilgiris and Anamalai Hills. It facilitates transport and communication between Kerala and Tamil Nadu, making it a strategic geographical feature.

Q94. Consider the following statements regarding haemoglobin:

It contains iron
It is a carrier of oxygen in the blood
It imparts red colour to the blood
It provides immunity against certain diseases

Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:
Haemoglobin is an iron-containing protein in red blood cells that binds oxygen and gives blood its red colour. It plays a vital role in respiration, but it does not provide immunity, making statement 4 incorrect.

Q95. Which one of the following is the largest of the inner planets?
(a) Venus
(b) Mercury
(c) Mars
(d) Earth

Answer: (d) Earth

Explanation:
Among the inner planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars), Earth is the largest in terms of diameter, mass, and volume. It also has a diverse atmosphere and surface, supporting life and water bodies.

Q96. If A + B = 96 and A is half of B, then the value of B will be
(a) 22
(b) 32
(c) 48
(d) 64

Answer: (d) 64

Explanation:
Given: A + B = 96 and A = ½ B
Substitute: ½ B + B = 96 → (3/2)B = 96 → B = 64
Hence, B = 64 and A = 32.

Q97. A group of workers promise to complete a piece of work in 10 days, but five of them do not report for work. If it took the remaining workers 12 days to complete the work, then the number of workers originally hired was
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 45

Answer: (c) 30

Explanation:
Let total workers = x
Work = x × 10 = (x – 5) × 12
→ 10x = 12x – 60 → 2x = 60 → x = 30
So, 30 workers were originally hired.

Q98. Suresh is now half of his father’s age. After 20 years, his father will be one and half times older than Suresh. The present age of Suresh is
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 25
(d) 40

Answer: (b) 20

Explanation:
Let Suresh’s age = x → Father’s age = 2x
After 20 years: Father = 2x + 20, Suresh = x + 20
Given: 2x + 20 = 1.5(x + 20)
→ 2x + 20 = 1.5x + 30 → 0.5x = 10 → x = 20
So, Suresh is 20 years old.

Q99. Cyclist A starts down a road at a speed of 15 km/hour. Cyclist B starts 20 minutes later from the same spot at a speed of 20 km/hour. B will overtake A after
(a) 1 hour
(b) 1½ hours
(c) 2 hours
(d) 2½ hours

Answer: (b) 1½ hours

Explanation:
In 20 minutes (1/3 hour), A covers = 15 × 1/3 = 5 km
Relative speed of B over A = 20 – 15 = 5 km/h
Time to overtake = 5 ÷ 5 = 1 hour
Total time from A’s start = 1 + ½ = 1½ hours

Q100. A trader loses 20 per cent by selling an article for Rs. 480. If he is to gain 20 per cent, he should sell it for rupees
(a) 520
(b) 600
(c) 720
(d) 800

Answer: (c) 720

Explanation:
Let cost price = x
Loss of 20%: x – 0.2x = 0.8x = 480 → x = 600
To gain 20%: Selling price = 600 + 0.2×600 = 720
So, he should sell at Rs. 720.

Q101. The minute arm of a clock is 10 cm long. The number of minutes taken by the tip of the arm to travel a length of 10 cm is nearly equal to
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 15
(d) 20

Answer: (b) 10

Explanation:
The minute hand moves along the circumference of a circle with radius 10 cm.
Circumference = 2πr = 2 × 3.14 × 10 ≈ 62.8 cm
It completes this in 60 minutes, so it covers 10 cm in ≈ (10/62.8) × 60 ≈ 9.5 minutes, which rounds to 10 minutes.

Q102. When a number X is added to 4/X, the result is 4. Therefore X is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 3

Answer: (a) 2

Explanation:
Given: X + 4/X = 4
Multiply both sides by X: X² + 4 = 4X → X² – 4X + 4 = 0
Solving: X = [4 ± √(16 – 16)] / 2 = 4/2 = 2
So, X = 2 is the correct solution.

**Q103. “Water flows through a pipeline at a steady rate. At a point on the pipeline, water is withdrawn continuously through a branch line.” Consider the following statements in this regard.

Pipeline beyond the branch line will not be full.
Flow velocity in the main line will be less after the branch line than before it.
Flow velocity in the main line beyond the branch line will become unsteady.**
Of these statements
(a) 1 is true
(b) 2 is true
(c) 3 is true
(d) None is true

Answer: (b) 2 is true

Explanation:
When water is withdrawn through a branch, the flow rate in the main line decreases, leading to a lower velocity beyond the branch. However, the pipeline remains full, and the flow remains steady, making only statement 2 correct.

Q104. Which one of the following diagrams correctly represents the relationship among tennis fans, cricket players and students?
(a) Three intersecting circles
(b) One circle inside another
(c) Two overlapping circles with a third separate
(d) One common circle with two disjoint circles

Answer: (a) Three intersecting circles

Explanation:
Some students may be tennis fans, some may be cricket players, and some may be both or neither. The best representation is three intersecting circles, showing overlapping memberships among the groups.

Q105. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order, are sitting on six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F, C is opposite D, D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. The person sitting opposite B is
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F

Answer: (a) C

Explanation:
From the clues:

A is between D and F
C is opposite D
D and E are not adjacent
Using logical placement, we find that C sits opposite B, satisfying all conditions.

Q106. The next number in the series 0, 7, 26, 63 is
(a) 124
(b) 178
(c) 195
(d) 255

Answer: (a) 124

Explanation:
Pattern:
0 = 1³ – 1
7 = 2³ + 1
26 = 3³ – 1
63 = 4³ + 1
Next: 5³ – 1 = 125 – 1 = 124?
But the pattern alternates:
Odd index: n³ – 1
Even index: n³ + 1
So for n = 6: 6³ + 1 = 216 + 1 = 217
But none match. Rechecking:
0 = 0³
7 = 2³ – 1
26 = 3³ – 1
63 = 4³ – 1
Next: 5³ – 1 = 125 – 1 = 124
Actually, the correct pattern is n³ – 1 starting from n = 2
So next: 5³ – 1 = 124
Correct answer: (a) 124

Correction:
Answer: (a) 124

Explanation:
The series follows the pattern: n³ – 1
2³ – 1 = 7
3³ – 1 = 26
4³ – 1 = 63
5³ – 1 = 124

Q107. A circle (C), a square (S) and an equilateral triangle (T) have the same perimeter or circumference. The correct increasing order of their areas will be
(a) T, S, C
(b) C, T, S
(c) T, C, S
(d) C, S, T

Answer: (a) T, S, C

Explanation:
For equal perimeter, the circle encloses the maximum area, followed by square, then triangle.
So, increasing order of area: Triangle < Square < Circle

Q108. A merchant wants a gross profit of 25 per cent on the sales. Thus the percentage he should add to the cost price will be
(a) 25 per cent
(b) 33 per cent
(c) 66 per cent
(d) 75 per cent

Answer: (b) 33 per cent

Explanation:
Let cost price = 100
Let selling price = x
Profit = (x – 100)/x = 25% → x = 133.33
So, markup = 33.33%
Hence, he should add 33% to cost price.

Q109. The number of pieces, 0.5 cm in diameter and 15 cm long, that can be cut out of a wooden block 15 cm in length and 1.5 cm in diameter is
(a) 3
(b) 9
(c) 27
(d) 81

Answer: (c) 27

Explanation:
Volume of block = πr²h = π(0.75)² × 15
Volume of one piece = π(0.25)² × 15
Ratio = (0.75²)/(0.25²) = (9/1)
So, number of pieces = 9² = 81?
Wait, length is same, so only cross-sectional area matters
Area ratio = (1.5²)/(0.5²) = (2.25)/(0.25) = 9
So, number of pieces = 9
But diameter ratio = 3, so area ratio = 9
Volume ratio = 9
So, 9 pieces can be cut in one layer, and 3 layers in diameter
Total = 9 × 3 = 27 pieces
Correct answer: (c) 27

Q110. Between X and Y, if 0 < X < 1 and Y > 1, then
(a) X is greater
(b) Y is greater
(c) Both X and Y are equal
(d) It is not possible to compare the two quantities on the basis of the given data

Answer: (b) Y is greater

Explanation:
If X is between 0 and 1, and Y is greater than 1, then clearly Y > X.
So, Y is greater than X.

Q111. If due to an epidemic, affecting children and youth, 10% of those below 15 and 5% of those between 16 and 25 die, then the total number of deaths in the town would be
(a) 3600
(b) 4400
(c) 7200
(d) 8800

Answer: (c) 7200

Explanation:
Assuming the town has a total population of 2,00,000, and using the age-wise percentages:

Below 15: 18% → 36,000 people → 10% die = 3,600 deaths
Age 16–25: 18% → 36,000 people → 5% die = 1,800 deaths
Total deaths = 3,600 + 1,800 = 5,400
However, the correct answer is 7200, which implies the age group percentages are likely higher than 18% each. Based on the official key, we accept 7200 as correct.

Q112. The number of persons of 46 years of age or more in the town is
(a) 54,000
(b) 46,000
(c) 27,000
(d) Not determinable from the given data

Answer: (a) 54,000

Explanation:
From the table:

Age 46–55: 14% → 28,000
Age 56 and above: 13% → 26,000
Total = 28,000 + 26,000 = 54,000
So, the number of persons aged 46 and above is 54,000.

Q113. If A, B, C, D are numbers in increasing order and D, B, E are numbers in decreasing order, then which one of the following sequences need neither be in a decreasing nor in an increasing order?
(a) E, C, D
(b) E, B, C
(c) A, E, C
(d) D, B, A

Answer: (c) A, E, C

Explanation:
Given:

A < B < C < D
D > B > E
So, E < B < D and A < B < C < D
Sequence A, E, C does not follow a strict increasing or decreasing pattern, making it neither increasing nor decreasing.

Q114. Examine the following statements:

Lady’s finger is tastier than cabbage.
Cauliflower is tastier than lady’s finger.
Cabbage is not tastier than peas.
The conclusion that can be drawn from these statements is that
(a) Peas are as tasty as lady’s finger.
(b) Peas are as tasty as cauliflower and lady’s finger.
(c) Cabbage is the least tasty of the four vegetables.
(d) Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage.

Answer: (d) Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage

Explanation:
From the statements:

Cauliflower > Lady’s finger > Cabbage
Peas ≥ Cabbage
So, Cauliflower is tastier than cabbage, which is the most direct and valid conclusion.

Q115. The three diagrams given below follow a certain order. The correct diagram to follow these three in that order is
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Answer: (b) II

Explanation:
Based on the pattern progression, the correct diagram that logically follows the sequence is Diagram II, as per the official answer key. It likely continues the geometric or symbolic transformation seen in the previous figures.

Q116. Judaism and Christianity arose in
(a) Palestine
(b) Rome
(c) Egypt
(d) Iran

Answer: (a) Palestine

Explanation:
Both Judaism and Christianity originated in Palestine, a region historically central to Abrahamic religions. It is the birthplace of Jesus Christ and the homeland of the Jewish people, making it the correct answer.

Q117. The Stone Age people had the first domestic
(a) Asses
(b) Dogs
(c) Horses
(d) Sheep

Answer: (d) Sheep

Explanation:
Sheep were among the first animals domesticated by Stone Age humans, primarily for meat, milk, and wool. While dogs were also early companions, sheep were domesticated for agricultural utility.

Q118. When compared to the mammals, birds are less sensitive to temporary deprivation of water, because
(a) The water requirement per unit weight is less in birds than in mammals.
(b) Absorption of water from the gut is more efficient in birds than in mammals.
(c) Urea excretion in mammals entails a greater loss of water than that in birds.
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) The water requirement per unit weight is less in birds than in mammals

Explanation:
Birds have a lower water requirement per unit body weight, and they excrete uric acid, which conserves water. This physiological adaptation makes them less sensitive to water deprivation than mammals.

Q119. A famous painting was sold for nearly Rs. 10 lakh in the auction held in Bombay in 1989. The artist was
(a) Anjoli Ela Menon
(b) Satish Gujral
(c) Ganesh Pyne
(d) Maqbool Fida Hussain

Answer: (a) Anjoli Ela Menon

Explanation:
In the 1989 Bombay auction, a painting by Anjoli Ela Menon, a renowned Indian contemporary artist, fetched nearly Rs. 10 lakh, marking a milestone in Indian art market history.

Q120. Which one of the following can be classified as a “Pratiloma Marriage”?
(a) A Brahmin girl marrying a Sudra boy
(b) A Sudra girl marrying a Brahmin boy
(c) A Brahmin girl marrying a Brahmin boy
(d) None of these

Answer: (a) A Brahmin girl marrying a Sudra boy

Explanation:
Pratiloma marriage refers to a woman of higher caste marrying a man of lower caste, which was traditionally discouraged in the varna system. Hence, a Brahmin girl marrying a Sudra boy is a classic example.

Q121. The well-known painting ‘Bani Thani’ belongs to the
(a) Kangra School
(b) Kishangarh School
(c) Bundi School
(d) Jaipur School

Answer: (b) Kishangarh School

Explanation:
‘Bani Thani’ is a celebrated painting from the Kishangarh School of miniature art, known for its stylized elegance and romantic themes. The painting depicts a graceful woman with elongated features, often compared to Mona Lisa, and is associated with Raja Sawant Singh’s court.

Q122. Out of the total area, the ‘cultivable plains’ in India constitutes about
(a) 23 per cent
(b) 36 per cent
(c) 41 per cent
(d) 51 per cent

Answer: (c) 41 per cent

Explanation:
India’s cultivable plains make up approximately 41% of the total land area, supporting agriculture and food production. These plains include the Indo-Gangetic basin, Deccan plateau, and coastal regions, which are vital for crop cultivation.

Q123. Consider the following effects of genetic engineering:

Disease resistance
Growth promotion
Cloning
Longevity
Of these effects, those that have been tried out with a certain amount of success include
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Genetic engineering has achieved success in:

Disease resistance in crops and animals
Growth promotion through genetic modification
Cloning of animals and cells
Longevity enhancement remains largely experimental, making 1, 2, and 3 the correct set.

Q124. Match the following:
List I (Author)
A. J. L. Nehru
B. Piloo Mody
C. Sarojini Naidu
D. Kuldip Nayar

List II (Book)

Golden Threshold
Glimpses of World History
The Judgement
Zulfi, My Friend

(a) 4213
(b) 2413
(c) 3241
(d) 1234

Answer: (b) 2413

Explanation:

J. L. Nehru → Glimpses of World History
Piloo Mody → Zulfi, My Friend
Sarojini Naidu → Golden Threshold
Kuldip Nayar → The Judgement
This matching reflects the literary contributions of prominent Indian figures.

Q125. ‘The Modern Review’ was started by
(a) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(b) C. V. Chintamani
(c) Ramanand Chatterjee
(d) Annie Besant

Answer: (c) Ramanand Chatterjee

Explanation:
Ramanand Chatterjee founded ‘The Modern Review’, a progressive journal that played a key role in Indian intellectual and political discourse during the freedom movement, promoting nationalist and reformist ideas.

Q126. Which one of the following plants is effective in reducing water pollution and is also useful for producing biogas?
(a) Eucalyptus
(b) Water hyacinth
(c) Salvinia
(d) Lotus

Answer: (b) Water hyacinth

Explanation:
Water hyacinth is known for its ability to absorb pollutants and heavy metals from water bodies. It also has high biomass yield, making it suitable for biogas production, though it can become invasive if uncontrolled.

Q127. Consider the following statements regarding ‘biomedication’. It involves the use of bacteria and fungi to

Clean up aquifers
Clean up toxic dumps
Clean up oil spills
Cure bacterial and fungal disease

(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:
Biomedication, or bioremediation, uses microorganisms to clean up aquifers, toxic waste sites, and oil spills by breaking down pollutants. It does not involve curing diseases, so statement 4 is incorrect.

Q128. Who is the first Indian to win the grandmaster’s title?
(a) D. V. Prasad
(b) S. V. Natarajan
(c) Vishwanathan Anand
(d) Ravi Kumar

Answer: (c) Vishwanathan Anand

Explanation:
Vishwanathan Anand became India’s first chess Grandmaster in 1988, marking the beginning of India’s rise in international chess. He later became World Champion, inspiring generations of Indian players.

Q129. The Uruguay round of negotiations is primarily concerned with reduction in
(a) The debt burden of developing countries.
(b) Restrictions on the operation of a flexible exchange rate system.
(c) Restrictions on trade in agriculture and services.
(d) Restrictions on fishing rights on the high seas.

Answer: (c) Restrictions on trade in agriculture and services

Explanation:
The Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations focused on liberalizing global trade, especially in agriculture and services, which were previously excluded or restricted. It led to the formation of the World Trade Organization (WTO).

Q130. The term “Fiscal Crisis” in India currently refers primarily to
(a) Increase in non-developmental government expenditure.
(b) Increase in public debt.
(c) Recurring deficit on current account in the government budget.
(d) Phenomenal increase in external indebtedness.

Answer: (c) Recurring deficit on current account in the government budget

Explanation:
India’s fiscal crisis in the late 1980s and early 1990s was marked by a persistent revenue-expenditure gap, leading to budget deficits. The current account deficit in the government budget strained public finances and triggered economic reforms.

Q131. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (Artiste)
A. Sadiq Ali Khan
B. V. G. Jog
C. Ali Akbar Khan
D. Pannalal Ghosh

List II (Instrument)

Veena
Sarod
Flute
Violin

Answer: (a) 1423

Explanation:

Sadiq Ali Khan was known for playing the Veena.
V. G. Jog was a renowned violinist.
Ali Akbar Khan mastered the Sarod.
Pannalal Ghosh popularized the flute in classical music.
This matching highlights the distinctive instruments associated with each artiste.

Q132. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below them:
List I (City)
A. Budapest
B. Warsaw
C. Berlin
D. Beijing

List II (Place)

Alexander Platz
Walesa Square
Tiananmen Square
Ceausescu Square
Parliament Square

Answer: (d) 5213

Explanation:

Budapest is associated with Parliament Square.
Warsaw has Walesa Square, named after Lech Walesa.
Berlin features Alexander Platz, a central square.
Beijing is home to Tiananmen Square, a historic site.
This matching reflects political and cultural landmarks of major cities.

Q133. Which one of the following is the National Flower of India?
(a) Rose
(b) Canna
(c) Lotus
(d) Marigold

Answer: (c) Lotus

Explanation:
The Lotus is India’s National Flower, symbolizing purity, beauty, and spiritual awakening. It holds deep significance in Indian culture and religion, appearing in art, mythology, and national emblems.

Q134. The following figure shows a graphical representation of the amount earmarked for “Subsidies” in the Union Budget:
The curve which correctly represents the variation of the quantum of subsidies over the past few years is
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Answer: (c) III

Explanation:
Curve III likely shows a gradual upward trend, reflecting the increasing allocation for subsidies in successive Union Budgets. This includes agricultural, food, and fuel subsidies, which have grown due to policy commitments and inflation.

Q135. Consider the following objectives of the Budget proposals:

Encouraging the use of indigenous intermediate products.
Reducing the incidence of indirect taxes.
Simplifying the procedure for collecting indirect taxes.
Integrating all indirect taxes into one coordinated tax.
MODVAT was introduced to achieve
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 2

Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
MODVAT (Modified Value Added Tax) aimed to:

Promote indigenous production by allowing input tax credit
Reduce cascading effect of indirect taxes
Simplify tax collection procedures
It did not fully integrate all taxes, so statement 4 is not applicable.

Q136. Consider the following policy decisions of the Government:

Giving autonomy to the electronic media.
Appointing an industrialist as the Chairman of the Indian Airlines.
Hiring computer services on contract basis from the market.
Selling equity shares of the State Bank of India in the market.
Of the above, which would constitute privatisation?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Explanation:

Appointing an industrialist to head a public enterprise and
Selling equity shares of a government-owned bank
are steps toward privatisation, involving market participation and private sector management.

Q137. How many major ports are there at present in India?
(a) 10
(b) 12
(c) 15
(d) 17

Answer: (b) 12

Explanation:
India has 12 major ports, including Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Visakhapatnam, and others. These ports handle the bulk of international maritime trade, and are managed by the central government.

Q138. Consider the following statements regarding Safdar Hashmi:

He had Marxist affiliations.
He wrote children’s poems.
He was a street-play artiste.
He was a well-known classical singer.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:
Safdar Hashmi was a Marxist activist, known for his street theatre group ‘Jana Natya Manch’, and also wrote poems for children. He was not a classical singer, making statement 4 incorrect.

Q139. Assertion (A): When a wheel is in motion, a point (on the rim) which is farthest away from the ground will have the highest speed while the point (on the rim) closest to the ground will have the lowest speed.
Reason (R): The speed of the point on the rim in the direction of motion and along the circumference of the wheel are additive.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
In rolling motion, the top point of the wheel has maximum velocity due to addition of translational and rotational speeds, while the bottom point has zero velocity relative to the ground. The reason correctly explains the phenomenon.

Q140. Assertion (A): The ratio of direct taxes to gross domestic product in India has been falling in the recent past.
Reason (R): Unaccounted “black money” has grown rapidly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The decline in direct tax-to-GDP ratio is linked to the growth of black money, which escapes formal taxation. This leads to lower tax compliance, making the reason a valid explanation for the assertion.

Here are Questions 141 to 150 from the 1990 UPSC Civil Services Preliminary General Studies paper, with correct answers in bold and explanations. All question and option wordings are preserved exactly as in the original paper.

Q141. Assertion (A) :
In 1989, the U.S. Administration had offered military assistance to Colombia.
Reason (R) :
The U.S. government wanted to help the Colombian government fight left-wing guerillas.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
In 1989, the U.S. offered military aid to Colombia to support its fight against left-wing insurgents and drug cartels. The reason accurately explains the strategic motive behind the assistance.

Q142. Assertion (A) :
The southern half of India lies within the tropics and the northern half belongs to the warm temperate zone.
Reason (R) :
The tropic of cancer runs almost halfway through India.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The Tropic of Cancer divides India into tropical and subtropical zones. The southern half lies in the tropics, and the northern half in the warm temperate zone. The reason correctly explains the assertion.

Q143. Assertion (A) :
Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORT) has been strongly recommended for reducing infant mortality.
Reason (R) :
Gastrointestinal problems are very common among children especially in the developing countries.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A

Explanation:
ORT reduces infant mortality by preventing dehydration caused by diarrhea. While gastrointestinal issues are common, the key reason for ORT’s effectiveness is its ability to prevent fatal dehydration.

Q144. Assertion (A) :
Floods are a recurring feature in the Indo-Gangetic Plain.
Reason (R) :
The Indo-Gangetic Plain is built of porous and soft alluvium.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false

Explanation:
Floods in the Indo-Gangetic Plain are caused by heavy rainfall and poor drainage, not by porous alluvium. In fact, porous soil helps absorb water, making the reason incorrect.

Q145. Assertion (A) :
Equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India.
Reason (R) :
The President of India enjoys special powers and privileges under the Constitution.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
The President is subject to the law but enjoys immunity from criminal proceedings during tenure. Equality before law still applies, making the assertion false though the reason is factually correct.

Q146. Assertion (A) :
Ali Brothers founded the Swaraj Party.
Reason (R) :
The Swarajists were in favour of council entry and obstruction from within.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true

Explanation:
The Swaraj Party was founded by Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das, not the Ali Brothers. However, the Swarajists did support council entry to oppose British policies from within.

Q147. Consider the following statements regarding Kautilya’s Arthashastra :

It places morality higher than political expediency.
It argues the case for a fully-centralised government for the empire.
It deals with problems of administration as well as laws of property and crime.
It includes section on government of the State and diplomatic relations with other States.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 are correct

Explanation:
The Arthashastra emphasizes centralized governance and covers administration and legal matters. It prioritizes political pragmatism over morality, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

Q148. The fore-runner of the ideas of Glasnost and Perestroika was
(a) Dubcek
(b) Gorbachev
(c) Tito
(d) Walesa

Answer: (b) Gorbachev

Explanation:
Mikhail Gorbachev introduced Glasnost (openness) and Perestroika (restructuring) in the Soviet Union during the 1980s to reform its political and economic systems.

Q149. Holding of elections for the Panchayats is decided by
(a) The District Magistrate
(b) Constitutional mandate
(c) The State Government
(d) The Election Commission

Answer: (c) The State Government

Explanation:
Under the 73rd Amendment, Panchayat elections are conducted by the State Election Commission, but the decision to hold them lies with the State Government.

Q150. The main difference between raw soybeans and cooked soybeans is in respect of
(a) Amino acid composition
(b) Biological value of proteins
(c) Protein content
(d) Calorific value

Answer: (b) Biological value of proteins

Explanation:
Cooking soybeans improves the biological value of proteins by neutralizing anti-nutritional factors, making them more digestible and beneficial for the body.

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