1. Consider the following events:
- The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India
- India’s then largest bank, “Imperial Bank of India” was renamed “State Bank of India”
- Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier
- Goa became a part of independent India
Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
a) 4-1-2-3
b) 3-2-1-4
c) 4-2-1-3
d) 3-1-2-4
Answer: b) 3-2-1-4
Explanation: Air India was nationalized in 1953, marking a shift toward state control in strategic sectors. The Imperial Bank of India was renamed as State Bank of India in 1955, strengthening public banking infrastructure. In 1957, Kerala elected the first democratically elected communist government, a landmark in global parliamentary history. Goa was integrated into India in 1961 after Operation Vijay, ending Portuguese colonial rule. This sequence reflects India’s post-independence consolidation across transport, finance, political ideology, and territorial sovereignty.
2. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer: c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
Explanation: The Right to Privacy was upheld as a fundamental right by the Supreme Court in the 2017 Puttaswamy judgment, interpreting it as a core element of Article 21, which guarantees Right to Life and Personal Liberty. This right is embedded within Part III of the Constitution, which safeguards civil liberties such as freedom of expression, equality before law, and protection against arbitrary state action. The ruling expanded the scope of privacy to include informational self-determination, bodily autonomy, and decisional freedom, reinforcing its role in preserving human dignity, individual agency, and democratic values.
3. Consider the following:
- Areca nut
- Barley
- Coffee
- Finger millet
- Groundnut
- Sesamum
- Turmeric
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 7 only
b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
c) 1, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer: b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
Explanation: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is declared for crops that are part of the government’s procurement system. Barley, finger millet, groundnut, and sesamum are included in the MSP list due to their role in food security and oilseed promotion. Areca nut and coffee, being plantation crops, are regulated by commodity boards and not covered under MSP. Turmeric, though widely cultivated, is also excluded from MSP. This reflects a policy focus on nutritional staples and oilseeds, while plantation and spice crops follow separate market mechanisms.
4. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?
a) Arunachal Pradesh
b) Manipur
c) Meghalaya
d) Nagaland
Answer: a) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation: Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary, also known as Pakke Tiger Reserve, is located in Arunachal Pradesh, bordering Assam. It is part of the Eastern Himalayan Biodiversity Hotspot, home to species like hornbills, tigers, and clouded leopards. The sanctuary is notable for its community-led conservation efforts, including Hornbill Nest Adoption Programs, and serves as a model for ecological preservation and tribal engagement in forest governance.
5. With reference to India’s satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:
- PSLVs launch the satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
- Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
- GSLV Mk III is a four-staged launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors; and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) 3 only
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: PSLV is designed for launching satellites into polar and sun-synchronous orbits, ideal for Earth observation and resource monitoring. GSLV, especially Mk III, is used for geostationary launches, mainly for communication satellites. Statement 2 is incorrect because geostationary satellites, not PSLV-launched ones, appear fixed in the sky. Statement 3 is wrong as GSLV Mk III is a three-stage vehicle: solid first stage, liquid second stage, and cryogenic third stage. This distinction reflects India’s dual launch capability for both remote sensing and telecom infrastructure.
6. With reference to the governance of the public sector banking in India, consider the following statements:
- Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
- To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Over the past decade, the government has infused capital regularly into public sector banks to meet Basel III norms, strengthen balance sheets, and address non-performing assets (NPAs). In 2017, the merger of SBI with its associate banks was implemented to improve operational efficiency, reduce redundancy, and enhance capital adequacy. These reforms are part of a broader strategy to consolidate banking operations and ensure financial stability in the public sector.
7. Consider the following items:
- Cereal grains hulled
- Chicken eggs cooked
- Fish processed and canned
- Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: Under GST, only cereal grains hulled are classified as exempted goods with 0% tax, as they are considered essential raw food items. Cooked eggs, processed fish, and advertising-laden newspapers are value-added products, attracting 5% or higher GST rates. This tax structure aims to protect basic consumption while ensuring revenue from processed and commercial goods.
8. Consider the following statements:
- The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
- For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
- Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation: The Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWH) as areas within protected zones that must remain inviolate for conservation, based on scientific and transparent criteria. The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the first to receive habitat rights, recognizing their traditional forest-based lifestyle. However, habitat rights are declared by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Environment Ministry, making statement 3 incorrect.
9. Consider the following:
- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation: Plant diseases can be spread through various natural vectors: Birds carry fungal spores and bacteria across regions. Dust and wind disperse pathogens over long distances. Rain splash spreads soil-borne diseases to nearby plants. This multi-vector transmission highlights the need for integrated disease management, especially in open-field agriculture.
10. With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:
- “The National Programme for Organic Production” (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
- “The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority” (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
- Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: NPOP is governed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Rural Development, making statement 1 incorrect. APEDA serves as the Secretariat for NPOP, facilitating certification, accreditation, and export of organic products. Sikkim was declared India’s first fully organic state in 2016, with all farmland converted to organic practices, promoting sustainable agriculture and biodiversity conservation.
11. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer: c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
Explanation
Under Article 110 of the Constitution, a Money Bill deals with matters like taxation, borrowing, and expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but not from the Contingency Fund. The Contingency Fund is for unforeseen expenditure and is governed separately. This distinction ensures financial accountability and legislative clarity.
12. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation
The value of an MLA’s vote is calculated based on the population of the state and the number of elected MLAs, so it varies across states. However, all MPs, whether from Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha, have equal vote value. This ensures balanced federal representation in the presidential election.
13. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?
a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
d) The country automatically becomes the member of NSG.
Answer: a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
Explanation
The Additional Protocol strengthens the IAEA’s verification powers over the peaceful use of nuclear material. By ratifying it, India’s civilian nuclear facilities come under international safeguards, enhancing transparency and global trust. It does not apply to military facilities and does not ensure NSG membership.
14. Consider the following countries:
- Australia
- Canada
- China
- India
- Japan
- USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer: c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation
ASEAN has Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) with India, China, Australia, Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand. Canada and USA are not FTA partners of ASEAN. These FTAs promote regional integration and trade liberalization.
15. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015.
- Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation
GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit, not at Paris 2015. It is a voluntary alliance with no binding obligations, promoting climate-resilient agriculture. India is a participant, but was not a founder.
16. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India?
- Formation of India’s own internet companies like China did.
- Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their last data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
- Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 3 only
Explanation
The Digital India initiative aims to provide connectivity, promote digital literacy, and ensure e-governance. It focuses on Wi-Fi in villages, schools, public places, and tourist centres. It does not aim to replicate China’s internet companies or mandate data localization. Its primary goal is inclusive digital empowerment.
17. Consider the following pairs:
Towns sometimes mentioned in news — Country
- Aleppo — Syria
- Kirkuk — Yemen
- Mosul — Palestine
- Mazar-i-Sharif — Afghanistan
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 and 4
Answer: b) 1 and 4
Explanation
Aleppo is in Syria, a major city in the civil war. Mazar-i-Sharif is in Afghanistan, known for its strategic importance. Kirkuk and Mosul are in Iraq, not Yemen or Palestine. This checks geopolitical knowledge of conflict zones.
18. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the
a) Federal Legislature
b) Governor General
c) Provincial Legislature
d) Provincial Governors
Answer: b) Governor General
Explanation
Under the Government of India Act, 1935, residuary powers (subjects not in federal or provincial lists) were given to the Governor General, showing colonial centralization. In contrast, the Indian Constitution vests residuary powers in the Union Government.
19. Consider the following statements:
- The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation
If the Speaker ceases to be an MLA, they must vacate their office. But, on dissolution of the Assembly, the Speaker continues until a new Speaker is elected. This ensures continuity in legislative procedures.
20. Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
a) If there are more laws, there is less Liberty.
b) If there are no laws there is no liberty.
c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by people.
d) If laws are changed too often liberty is in danger.
Answer: b) If there are no laws there is no liberty.
Explanation
Liberty exists only within a framework of just laws. Without laws, there is anarchy, which destroys freedom. This principle is central to constitutional democracies, where laws both protect rights and regulate power.
- Consider the following statements:
- No criminal proceeding shall be instituted against the Governor of a state in any court during his terms of office.
- The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his terms of office.
Which of the statement given above is /are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation: Under Article 361, the Governor enjoys immunity from legal proceedings during their term, ensuring functional independence. Article 158(4) guarantees that the Governor’s emoluments and allowances cannot be reduced during tenure, preserving dignity and autonomy. These are constitutional safeguards for high offices.
- The well known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the:
a) Bundi School
b) Jaipur School
c) Kangra School
d) Kishangarh School
Answer: d) Kishangarh School
Explanation: Bani Thani, painted by Nihal Chand, is a celebrated work from the Kishangarh School of Rajasthani miniature painting. It portrays a woman with elongated eyes and stylized features, often called the Mona Lisa of India. Kishangarh art is noted for romantic themes, lyrical elegance, and delicate brushwork under Raja Sawant Singh.
- What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
a) An Israeli Radar System
b) India’s indigenous anti-missile programme
c) An American anti-missile system
d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Answer: c) An American anti-missile system
Explanation: THAAD is a U.S. missile defense system designed to intercept short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase. It uses a hit-to-kill technology with kinetic energy. It has strategic importance in East Asia, especially in South Korea, amid North Korean missile threats.
- With reference to culture history of India, consider the following statements:
- Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
- Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
- Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
- Annamacharya kirtnas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venketshwara.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: b) 2 and 4 only
Explanation: Tyagaraja was a devotee of Lord Rama, not Krishna, so statement 1 is incorrect. He composed new ragas, enriching Carnatic music (statement 2 correct). Annamacharya (15th century) and Tyagaraja (18th century) were not contemporaries. Annamacharya’s kirtanas praise Lord Venkateshwara (statement 4 correct).
- Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”?
- Limitation of powers.
- Equality before law.
- People’s responsibility to the Government.
- Liberty and civil rights.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation: The Rule of Law ensures limited government powers, equality before law, and guarantees of civil liberties. It establishes that no one is above the law, including the state. People’s responsibility to the government is not a feature; instead, the government is accountable to the people.
- Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?
- Charter Act of 1813
- General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
- Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: The Charter Act of 1813 began state-sponsored education. The General Committee of Public Instruction (1823) debated the medium of instruction. The Orientalist–Anglicist controversy led to Macaulay’s Minute (1835) promoting English education. Together, these shaped colonial education policy.
- Which of the following is an artificial lake?
a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)
c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)
d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)
Answer: a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)
Explanation: Kodaikanal Lake is a man-made lake, built in 1863 by Sir Vere Henry Levinge, Collector of Madurai. It was part of the British hill station infrastructure. The others—Kolleru, Nainital, and Renuka lakes—are natural water bodies.
- With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements:
- It is flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
- It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and Digital Literacy.
- It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c) 2 and 3 only
Explanation: PMKVY is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not Labour. It trains youth in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy, and aligns workforce skills with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). It targets school dropouts and unemployed youth, boosting employability.
- In 1920, which of the following changed its name to “Swarajya Sabha”?
a) All India Home Rule League
b) Hindu Mahasabha
c) South Indian Liberal Federation
d) The Servants of India Society
Answer: a) All India Home Rule League
Explanation: In October 1920, the All India Home Rule League was renamed Swarajya Sabha, signaling a demand for complete self-rule. This coincided with the rise of Gandhi’s Non-Cooperation Movement, marking a new phase in the freedom struggle.
- Which among the following events happened earliest?
a) Swami Dayanand established Arya Samaj
b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandmath
d) Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to succeed in the Indian Civil Services Examination
Answer: b) Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neeldarpan
Explanation: Neeldarpan was written in 1860, exposing the plight of indigo farmers. Satyendranath Tagore cleared the ICS in 1863. Arya Samaj was founded in 1875. Anandmath was published in 1882. Hence, Neeldarpan (1860) was the earliest event.
Here’s the polished version of MCQs 31–40, keeping the same left indent/formatting as Q.10, with bold question statements and bold key terms in explanations:
- Consider the following statements:
- The quantity of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
- The Government does not impose any custom duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: India’s domestic production of edible oils has lagged behind demand, leading to heavy reliance on imports of palm, soybean, and sunflower oils. While statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is wrong because the Government imposes customs duties on edible oil imports to protect domestic producers and maintain trade balance. This shows India’s agro-trade vulnerability and need for oilseed self-sufficiency.
- He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for sometime; and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was:
a) Aurobindo Ghosh
b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) Motilal Nehru
Answer: c) Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation: Lala Lajpat Rai authored biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji, and Krishna, reflecting his admiration for revolutionary and spiritual leaders. He spent time in America, engaging with the Indian diaspora and was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly. His work provided an intellectual foundation for Indian nationalism.
- Consider the following statements:
- Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
- Once issued, Aadhaar card cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation: Aadhaar is only an identity verification tool, not a proof of citizenship or domicile, so statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is also wrong because UIDAI can deactivate or omit Aadhaar numbers in cases of fraud, duplication, or non-use. This preserves data integrity and legal clarity in identity management.
- Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
- Aral Sea
- Black Sea
- Lake Baikal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation: The Aral Sea, once the fourth-largest lake, has shrunk drastically due to diversion of rivers for irrigation in Central Asia. The Black Sea and Lake Baikal face environmental stress but have not dried up like the Aral. This is a classic case of unsustainable water management and ecological collapse.
- “Rule of the Law Index” is released by which of the following?
a) Amnesty International
b) International Court of Justice
c) The Office of UN Commissioner of Human Rights
d) World Justice Project
Answer: d) World Justice Project
Explanation: The World Justice Project publishes the Rule of Law Index, evaluating nations on fundamental rights, corruption, open government, and justice delivery. India’s ranking provides insights into its governance quality and accountability. This index serves as a global legal benchmark.
- Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
a) Indian Bank’s Association
b) National Securities Depository Ltd.
c) National Payments Corporation of India
d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: c) National Payments Corporation of India
Explanation: The National Financial Switch (NFS), operated by NPCI, interconnects all ATMs in India, enabling interoperable withdrawals and services. NPCI also runs UPI, IMPS, and RuPay, forming India’s digital payments backbone and advancing financial inclusion.
- International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to:
a) Child Labour
b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
c) Regulation of food prices and food security
d) Gender parity at the workplace
Answer: a) Child Labour
Explanation: ILO Convention 138 sets the minimum age for employment, while Convention 182 prohibits the worst forms of child labour, including slavery, trafficking, and hazardous work. India has ratified both, strengthening its commitment to child rights and labour reforms.
- In the first Lok Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- A “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- If the party does not have a minimum 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation: The largest opposition in the first Lok Sabha was the Communist Party of India, not Swatantra (statement 1 incorrect). The Leader of Opposition was formally recognised in 1969, with Ram Subhag Singh as the first (statement 2 correct). Recognition requires 10% strength (54 seats), not 75 (statement 3 incorrect). This marked the evolution of opposition rights in Parliament.
- Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
- Hard and waxy leaves
- Tiny leaves
- Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: Desert plants adapt with xerophytic traits: hard, waxy leaves reduce water loss; tiny leaves minimize surface area; thorns replace leaves to conserve water and deter herbivores. These features ensure survival in arid environments.
- As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements:
- Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
- Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs.
- In Kerala, a little over 60 percent agricultural households reported to have maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation: Rajasthan has the highest proportion of agricultural households among rural households (statement 1 correct). OBCs make up about 45%, not 60% (statement 2 incorrect). In Kerala, over 60% of farm households earn mainly from non-agricultural sources (statement 3 correct). This highlights regional disparities in agrarian dependence.
- Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of heavy sand mining in riverbeds
- Decreased salinity in the water
- Pollution of groundwater
- Lowering of the water table
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Sand mining disrupts the aquifer structure, leading to groundwater pollution and lowering of the water table due to excessive extraction.
Decreased salinity is incorrect; in fact, sand mining can cause saltwater intrusion, especially in coastal zones.
These effects threaten water security and ecological balance.
- With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements
- A high content of organic matter drastically reduces its water holding capacity
- Soil does not play role in the sulphur cycle
- Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 3 only
Explanation:
Organic matter improves water retention, not reduces it.
Soil is integral to the sulphur cycle, hosting microbial activity that transforms sulphur compounds.
Long-term irrigation, especially with poor drainage, leads to salt accumulation, degrading soil fertility.
- The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at
a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio De Janeiro
c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi
Answer: b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio De Janeiro
Explanation:
PAGE was launched after Rio+20 (2012) to promote green economy policies.
It supports countries in achieving inclusive growth, sustainability, and poverty reduction, coordinated by UNEP, UNDP, ILO, UNIDO, and UNITAR.
- “3D Printing” has applications in which of the following
- Preparation of confectionery items
- Manufacture of bionic ears
- Automotive industry
- Reconstructive surgeries
- Data processing technologies
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation:
3D printing is used in food design, biomedical implants, automotive prototyping, surgical reconstruction, and data-driven modeling.
Its versatility spans manufacturing, healthcare, and digital innovation, revolutionizing production methods.
- Consider the following statements
- The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory
- Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar
- The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1 and 3
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
Barren Island, in the Andaman Sea, is India’s only active volcano.
It lies north of Great Nicobar, not east.
It has erupted multiple times since 1991, including in 2017, showing intermittent volcanic activity.
- Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news
a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics
b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows
c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides
d) None of the above
Answer: b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows
Explanation:
Prosopis juliflora is an invasive species that forms dense thickets, displacing native vegetation and reducing biodiversity.
It alters soil chemistry, affects water availability, and threatens pastoral ecosystems, especially in dry regions.
- Consider the following statements
- Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters
- More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and Philippines
- Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Coral reefs thrive in tropical waters, especially in the Indo-Pacific region.
Australia, Indonesia, and Philippines host over one-third of global reef systems.
Reefs support more animal phyla than rainforests, making them marine biodiversity hotspots.
- “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by
a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
b) The UNEP Secretariat
c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
d) The World Meteorological Organization
Answer: c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
Explanation:
Launched in 2015, this initiative promotes voluntary climate action to achieve carbon neutrality.
It encourages individuals, companies, and governments to reduce emissions and offset their carbon footprint, supporting the Paris Agreement goals.
- With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs
Institution — Founder
- Sanskrit College at Banaras — William Jones
- Calcutta Madarsa — Warren Hastings
- Fort William College — Arthur Wellesley
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
- Sanskrit College at Banaras was founded by Jonathan Duncan, not William Jones
- Calcutta Madarsa was established by Warren Hastings in 1781
- Fort William College was founded by Richard Wellesley, not Arthur Wellesley
These institutions reflect the colonial approach to administrative and cultural education.
- Consider the following pairs
Regions sometimes mentioned in news — Country
- Catalonia — Spain
- Crimea — Hungary
- Mindanao — Philippines
- Oromia — Nigeria
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Answer: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Catalonia is a region in Spain, known for its independence movement
- Crimea is part of Ukraine, not Hungary
- Mindanao is in the Philippines, often in news due to conflict and autonomy issues
- Oromia is in Ethiopia, not Nigeria
Correct matches reflect regional political tensions and autonomy movements
- With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements
- IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits
- Geosynchronous covers entire India and about 5500 sq. km beyond its border
- India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) None of the above
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
IRNSS, also known as NavIC, consists of seven satellites: three in geostationary orbit and four in geosynchronous orbit.
Its coverage is regional, extending about 1500 km beyond India’s borders, not global.
India does not aim for full global coverage with IRNSS; that remains the domain of systems like GPS, GLONASS, Galileo.
- Consider the following phenomena
- Light is affected by gravity
- The universe is constantly expanding
- Matter wraps its surrounding space-time
Which of the above is/are prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity predicts that:
- Light bends near massive objects due to gravitational lensing
- The universe expands, confirmed by Hubble’s observations
- Matter curves space-time, influencing the motion of other bodies
These ideas revolutionized modern physics and cosmology.
- With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM Mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements
- GM Mustard has the genes of the soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests
- GM Mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization
- GM Mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
GM Mustard (DMH-11) uses genes from soil bacterium to enable hybridization, not pest resistance.
It was developed by Delhi University’s CGMCP, not IARI or PAU.
The modification allows cross-pollination, improving yield potential.
- Consider the following pairs
Term sometimes seen in news — Context/Topic
- Belle II — Artificial Intelligence
- Blockchain — Digital/Cryptocurrency
- CRISPR-Cas9 — Particle Physics
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
- Belle II is a particle physics experiment, not related to AI
- Blockchain is a digital ledger technology used in cryptocurrencies
- CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing tool, not particle physics
Only pair 2 is correctly matched.
- Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”
a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
b) Increased temperature of the Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d) Adaptation of living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Answer: a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Explanation:
Carbon fertilization refers to the phenomenon where higher CO₂ levels enhance photosynthesis, leading to faster plant growth.
However, it may reduce nutritional quality and is not a substitute for sustainable agriculture.
It’s a key factor in climate change modeling.
- When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically… In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario
a) Border Gateway Protocol
b) Internet of Things
c) Internet Protocol
d) Virtual Private Network
Answer: b) Internet of Things
Explanation:
This scenario describes interconnected smart devices responding to user behavior, which is the essence of the Internet of Things (IoT).
IoT enables automation, remote control, and data exchange across devices, transforming daily life and infrastructure.
- With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements
- India is largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units
- The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
- China is the global leader in silicon wafer manufacturing, not India
- Solar tariffs are determined through competitive bidding, not directly by SECI
SECI facilitates auctions, but market forces set the final price.
- The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were
a) Raw cotton, oil-seeds and opium
b) Sugar, salt, zinc and lead
c) Copper, silver, gold, spices and tea
d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Answer: d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre and opium
Explanation:
In the 18th century, Bengal was a hub for cotton textiles, silk, saltpetre (used in gunpowder), and opium.
These commodities were exported to Europe and China, forming the backbone of colonial trade.
- Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha
a) Active all-India participation of lawyers, students and women in the National Movement
b) Active involvement of Dalit and Tribal communities of India in the National Movement
c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
d) Drastic decrease in the cultivation of plantation crops and commercial crops
Answer: c) Joining of peasant unrest to India’s National Movement
Explanation:
Champaran Satyagraha (1917) was Gandhi’s first major movement in India, addressing indigo farmers’ grievances.
It marked the integration of peasant struggles into the national freedom movement, setting a precedent for mass mobilization.
- Who among the following were the founders of the “Hind Mazdoor Sabha” established in 1948
a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad and K.C. George
b) Jayaprakash Narayan, Deen Dayal Upadhyay and M.N. Roy
c) C.P. Ramaswamy Iyer, K. Kamaraj and Veeresalingam Pantulu
d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujan and G.G. Mehta
Answer: d) Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujan and G.G. Mehta
Explanation:
Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was founded in 1948 by socialist leaders and trade unionists, including Ashok Mehta, T.S. Ramanujan, and G.G. Mehta.
It aimed to represent industrial labor and promote workers’ rights in post-independence India.
- Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
- It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
- It is a six-member body.
- The Union Finance Minister is the Chairman of MPC.
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: b) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is a six-member body that decides the benchmark interest rates, including the repo rate, to maintain price stability.
It consists of three RBI officials and three external members appointed by the government.
The Governor of RBI is the ex-officio Chairperson, not the Finance Minister.
This structure ensures independence and transparency in monetary policy decisions.
- With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements
- Commercial paper is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
- Certificate of Deposit is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
- ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
- ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are issued by banks.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 4 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Commercial Paper is an unsecured short-term debt instrument issued by corporations.
- Certificate of Deposit is a short-term instrument issued by banks, not RBI.
- Call Money refers to overnight lending between banks.
- Zero-Coupon Bonds are typically issued by government or financial institutions, not banks.
These instruments are part of the money market ecosystem.
- Consider the following statements
- Purchasing power parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
- In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
PPP exchange rates compare the cost of a standard basket of goods across countries to determine relative value.
India is ranked third in the world in terms of PPP GDP, after China and the USA, not sixth.
PPP offers a more accurate measure of economic size and living standards.
- Which of the following is/are included in the capital account of India?
- Foreign Loans
- Foreign Direct Investment
- Private Remittances
- Portfolio Investment
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: b) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation:
The capital account includes foreign loans, FDI, and portfolio investments, which reflect capital inflows and outflows.
Private remittances are part of the current account, not capital account.
This classification helps track external sector stability.
- With reference to the institutions of India, which one of the following is the correct statement?
a) The National Development Council is constituted of Union Finance Minister and the Chief Ministers of all the States.
b) The Political Parties Registration Authority is a statutory body.
c) The National Human Rights Commission is a constitutional body.
d) The National Commission for Women is a statutory body.
Answer: d) The National Commission for Women is a statutory body.
Explanation:
The National Commission for Women (NCW) was established under the NCW Act, 1990, making it a statutory body.
- NDC includes more members than just Finance Minister and CMs.
- Political Parties Registration is handled by Election Commission, not a separate statutory body.
- NHRC is a statutory body, not constitutional, under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
- Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the state and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Governor should be a non-partisan, eminent person, preferably not active in politics recently, and not from the same state.
This was aimed at ensuring neutrality and federal balance in Centre-State relations.
- Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and non-statutory bodies?
- Zonal Councils
- Planning Commission
- National Development Council
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Planning Commission and National Development Council (NDC) were non-statutory and extra-constitutional bodies.
- Zonal Councils are statutory, created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
These bodies played key roles in policy coordination and planning.
- Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” programme?
- Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China
- Establishment of a policy framework to encourage overseas companies to build data centres in India
- Connect villages with high-speed internet
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 3 only
Explanation:
Digital India focuses on connectivity, digital literacy, and e-governance, including high-speed internet in villages.
It does not aim to replicate China’s internet model or mandate data localization.
Its goal is inclusive digital empowerment.
- With reference to Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Loans are offered to small entrepreneurs by banks only.
- Loans are offered to small entrepreneurs by banks, NBFCs, and MFIs.
- The scheme aims to bring enterprises into formal financial system.
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
MUDRA loans are provided by banks, NBFCs, and Microfinance Institutions (MFIs) to non-corporate small businesses.
The scheme promotes financial inclusion by bringing informal enterprises into the formal credit system.
Statement 1 is too narrow.
- In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of
a) Digital security infrastructure
b) Food security infrastructure
c) Health care and education infrastructure
d) Telecommunication infrastructure
Answer: a) Digital security infrastructure
Explanation:
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) refers to a framework for digital encryption, authentication, and secure communication.
It uses public and private keys to verify identities and protect data in e-governance, banking, and online transactions.
PKI is central to cybersecurity and digital trust systems.
- With reference to the governance of public sector banks in India, consider the following statements
- Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade
- To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been effected
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Over the past decade, the Government of India has consistently infused capital into public sector banks to meet regulatory norms and support recovery from non-performing assets.
In 2017, the merger of SBI with its associate banks was implemented to streamline operations and improve financial health.
These measures reflect efforts to strengthen the banking sector through consolidation and recapitalization.
- Consider the following items
- Cereal grains hulled
- Chicken eggs cooked
- Fish processed and canned
- Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
Under GST, only cereal grains hulled are exempted from tax as they are considered essential food items.
Cooked eggs, processed fish, and newspapers with advertisements attract GST due to their commercial nature.
This exemption structure aims to protect basic consumption while taxing value-added goods.
- Consider the following statements
- The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006
- For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights
- Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines Critical Wildlife Habitats as areas within national parks and sanctuaries that must remain inviolate for conservation.
The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the first to receive habitat rights.
However, habitat rights are declared by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Environment Ministry.
- Consider the following
- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Plant diseases can be spread by multiple agents:
- Birds carry spores and pathogens
- Dust and wind disperse fungal and viral particles
- Rain splashes soil-borne pathogens onto plants
This highlights the need for integrated pest and disease management in agriculture.
- With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements
- “The National Programme for Organic Production” (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development
- “The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority” (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP
- Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
NPOP is governed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Rural Development.
APEDA serves as the Secretariat for NPOP, facilitating certification and export of organic products.
Sikkim was declared India’s first fully organic state in 2016, promoting sustainable agriculture.
- Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India
Answer: c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India
Explanation:
Under Article 110, a Money Bill deals with matters related to the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund.
The Contingency Fund is used for unforeseen expenditures and is governed separately.
Hence, statement (c) is incorrect.
- With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
The value of an MLA’s vote varies by state, based on population and number of MLAs.
MPs from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal vote value in the presidential election.
This ensures balanced federal representation.
- In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’
a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards
b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA
c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
d) The country automatically becomes the member of NSG
Answer: a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards
Explanation:
The Additional Protocol enhances IAEA’s ability to verify peaceful use of nuclear material.
India’s ratification brings civilian nuclear facilities under international safeguards.
It does not apply to military installations or guarantee NSG membership.
- Consider the following countries
- Australia
- Canada
- China
- India
- Japan
- USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer: c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation:
ASEAN has Free Trade Agreements with India, China, Australia, Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand.
Canada and USA are not FTA partners with ASEAN.
These agreements promote regional trade and economic integration.
- With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct
- GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015
- Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit, not Paris 2015.
It is a voluntary alliance with no binding commitments.
India is a member but was not instrumental in its creation.
- Consider the following statements
- The quantity of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years
- The Government does not impose any custom duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
India’s domestic production of edible oils has consistently been lower than demand, leading to large-scale imports, especially of palm and soybean oil.
However, the government does impose custom duties on imported edible oils to protect domestic producers and manage trade balance.
This reflects India’s agro-trade dependency and the need for oilseed self-sufficiency.
- He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for sometime; and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was
a) Aurobindo Ghosh
b) Bipin Chandra Pal
c) Lala Lajpat Rai
d) Motilal Nehru
Answer: c) Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation:
Lala Lajpat Rai, a prominent nationalist and social reformer, authored biographies of revolutionary figures like Mazzini and Garibaldi, as well as Indian icons like Shivaji and Krishna.
He spent time in America, engaging with global reform movements, and was elected to the Central Legislative Assembly, contributing to constitutional debates and labor rights.
- Consider the following statements
- Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile
- Once issued, Aadhaar card cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
Aadhaar is an identity verification tool, not a proof of citizenship or domicile, making statement 1 incorrect.
Statement 2 is also wrong because UIDAI can deactivate or omit Aadhaar numbers in cases of fraud, duplication, or non-use.
This ensures data integrity and legal clarity in identity management.
- Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?
- Aral Sea
- Black Sea
- Lake Baikal
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
The Aral Sea, once the fourth-largest lake globally, has shrunk drastically due to river diversion for irrigation in Central Asia.
Black Sea and Lake Baikal, while facing environmental stress, have not dried up or shrunk to the same extent.
Aral Sea’s decline is a stark example of unsustainable water management and ecological collapse.
- “Rule of the Law Index” is released by which of the following?
a) Amnesty International
b) International Court of Justice
c) The Office of UN Commissioner of Human Rights
d) World Justice Project
Answer: d) World Justice Project
Explanation:
The World Justice Project publishes the Rule of Law Index, assessing countries on parameters like fundamental rights, absence of corruption, open government, and civil justice.
India’s performance is tracked annually, offering insights into governance and legal accountability.
This index is a key tool for global legal benchmarking.
- Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India?
a) Indian Bank’s Association
b) National Securities Depository Ltd.
c) National Payments Corporation of India
d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: c) National Payments Corporation of India
Explanation:
The National Financial Switch (NFS), operated by NPCI, links all ATMs across India, enabling interoperable transactions.
NPCI also manages systems like UPI, IMPS, and RuPay, forming the backbone of India’s digital payment infrastructure.
This enhances financial inclusion and transaction efficiency.
- International Labour Organisation’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to
a) Child Labour
b) Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
c) Regulation of food prices and food security
d) Gender parity at the workplace
Answer: a) Child Labour
Explanation:
ILO Convention 138 sets the minimum age for employment, while Convention 182 targets the worst forms of child labour, including slavery, trafficking, and hazardous work.
India has ratified both, reinforcing its commitment to child protection and labour rights.
These conventions are central to global human rights frameworks.
- In the first Lok Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party
- A “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969
- If the party does not have a minimum 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is incorrect: The Communist Party of India (CPI) was the largest opposition party in the first Lok Sabha, not Swatantra Party.
- Statement 2 is correct: The Leader of Opposition was formally recognised in 1969, with Ram Subhag Singh as the first.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Recognition requires 10% of total strength, i.e., 54 members, not 75.
This reflects the evolution of parliamentary norms and opposition rights.
- Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?
- Hard and waxy leaves
- Tiny leaves
- Thorns instead of leaves
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Desert plants exhibit xerophytic adaptations to minimize transpiration:
- Hard, waxy leaves reduce water loss
- Tiny leaves lower surface area
- Thorns replace leaves to conserve moisture and deter herbivores
These traits enable survival in arid ecosystems.
- As per the NSSO 70th Round “Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households”, consider the following statements
- Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households
- Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percent belong to OBCs
- In Kerala, a little over 60 percent agricultural households reported to have maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: c) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
- Rajasthan has the highest share of agricultural households among rural households due to its agrarian economy
- Statement 2 is incorrect: OBCs constitute around 45%, not 60%
- In Kerala, over 60% of agricultural households earn more from non-agricultural sources, reflecting diversified livelihoods
This survey highlights regional disparities in agrarian dependence
- With reference to the governance of public sector banks in India, consider the following statements
- Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade
- To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been effected
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: c) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
The Government of India has consistently infused capital into public sector banks to meet regulatory norms and support recovery from non-performing assets.
In 2017, the merger of SBI with its associate banks was implemented to streamline operations and improve financial health.
These measures reflect efforts to strengthen the banking sector through consolidation and recapitalization.
- Consider the following items
- Cereal grains hulled
- Chicken eggs cooked
- Fish processed and canned
- Newspapers containing advertising material
Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
Under GST, only cereal grains hulled are exempted from tax as they are considered essential food items.
Cooked eggs, processed fish, and newspapers with advertisements attract GST due to their commercial nature.
This exemption structure aims to protect basic consumption while taxing value-added goods.
- Consider the following statements
- The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006
- For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights
- Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Forest Rights Act, 2006 defines Critical Wildlife Habitats as areas within national parks and sanctuaries that must remain inviolate for conservation.
The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh were the first to receive habitat rights.
However, habitat rights are declared by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, not the Environment Ministry.
- Consider the following
- Birds
- Dust blowing
- Rain
- Wind blowing
Which of the above spread plant diseases?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Plant diseases can be spread by multiple agents:
- Birds carry spores and pathogens
- Dust and wind disperse fungal and viral particles
- Rain splashes soil-borne pathogens onto plants
This highlights the need for integrated pest and disease management in agriculture.
- With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements
- “The National Programme for Organic Production” (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development
- “The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority” (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP
- Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
NPOP is governed by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Rural Development.
APEDA serves as the Secretariat for NPOP, facilitating certification and export of organic products.
Sikkim was declared India’s first fully organic state in 2016, promoting sustainable agriculture.
- Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct
a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India
d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India
Answer: c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India
Explanation:
Under Article 110, a Money Bill deals with matters related to the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund.
The Contingency Fund is used for unforeseen expenditures and is governed separately.
Hence, statement (c) is incorrect.
- With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements
- The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State
- The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: a) 1 only
Explanation:
The value of an MLA’s vote varies by state, based on population and number of MLAs.
MPs from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal vote value in the presidential election.
This ensures balanced federal representation.
- In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’
a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards
b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA
c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)
d) The country automatically becomes the member of NSG
Answer: a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards
Explanation:
The Additional Protocol enhances IAEA’s ability to verify peaceful use of nuclear material.
India’s ratification brings civilian nuclear facilities under international safeguards.
It does not apply to military installations or guarantee NSG membership.
- Consider the following countries
- Australia
- Canada
- China
- India
- Japan
- USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 3, 4, 5 and 6
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
d) 2, 3, 4 and 6
Answer: c) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation:
ASEAN has Free Trade Agreements with India, China, Australia, Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand.
Canada and USA are not FTA partners with ASEAN.
These agreements promote regional trade and economic integration.
- With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct
- GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015
- Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations
- India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: b) 2 only
Explanation:
GACSA was launched in 2014 at the UN Climate Summit, not Paris 2015.
It is a voluntary alliance with no binding commitments.
India is a member but was not instrumental in its creation.