UPSC Prelims 2019 Question Paper [Fully Solved]

1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements

1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank headquartered in Beijing, China. It was established in 2016 to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia.

• AIIB has more than 100 approved members worldwide, including countries from Europe, Africa, and Latin America, which makes statement 3 incorrect.
• China is the largest shareholder, not India, which invalidates statement 2.
• Statement 1 is correct as AIIB has over 80 founding members, and the number has grown since its inception.
  This reflects the global interest in infrastructure financing and the shift in economic influence toward Asia. The inclusion of non-Asian members also indicates AIIB’s broad strategic outreach beyond its regional identity.

2. What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of ₹ 50 crore or more
(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Answer: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹ 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

Explanation:
The Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) was introduced under the Sashakt framework in 2018 to address the growing issue of non-performing assets (NPAs) in India.

• It is designed to ensure that multiple lenders involved in consortium or multiple banking arrangements work together for the resolution of stressed assets.
• The ICA applies to loans of ₹ 50 crore and above, and aims to streamline decision-making among creditors, reducing delays caused by lack of consensus.
• It does not function as a regulator, nor is it aimed at fiscal deficit management or infrastructure funding.
  This agreement reflects a collaborative approach to financial recovery, promoting efficiency and accountability in the banking sector’s response to bad loans.

3. The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank

Answer: (a) Banks Board Bureau

Explanation:
The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) is an autonomous body set up by the Government of India to improve governance in public sector banks.

• It is responsible for recommending candidates for top-level appointments such as Chairmen and Managing Directors.
• The BBB also advises on strategies for reforming banking practices and enhancing performance.
• While the final appointment is made by the government, the selection process is initiated by the BBB, making it the key authority in this context.
  This reflects a shift toward professionalized and transparent leadership selection in India’s banking sector.

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:
The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established in 2006 to regulate downstream activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector.

• It aims to promote competition, protect consumer interests, and ensure fair trade practices in gas markets.
• Appeals against PNGRB decisions are heard by the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity, as per the governing legislation.
• However, PNGRB is not the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India; earlier bodies include SEBI (1992) and TRAI (1997).
  This highlights the evolution of sector-specific regulators in India’s liberalized economy.

5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• LTE (Long-Term Evolution) is a 4G technology, not 3G, and is designed for high-speed data transmission.
• VoLTE (Voice over LTE) enables voice calls over LTE networks, allowing voice and data to coexist on the same network.
• LTE is not data-only, and VoLTE is not voice-only; both support integrated services.
  This distinction is crucial in understanding the technological progression from 3G to 4G, and how voice services have evolved with data-centric networks.

6. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:
The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017 extended paid maternity leave from 12 weeks to 26 weeks, but only for the first two children.

• For women with more than two children, the entitlement remains 12 weeks, hence statement 3 is correct.
• The Act mandates creche facilities for establishments with 50 or more employees, but it does not specify six visits per day, making statement 2 incorrect.
• The leave is split into 8 weeks pre-delivery and 18 weeks post-delivery, not three months each.
  This legislation reflects India’s effort to support maternal health and workplace inclusion, while balancing demographic concerns.

7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits

Answer: (a) Maintenance of law and order

Explanation:
The Ease of Doing Business Index by the World Bank evaluates regulatory environments across countries using ten sub-indices, such as:

• Starting a business
• Registering property
• Paying taxes
• Dealing with construction permits
  However, maintenance of law and order is not part of the index, as it falls under broader governance and security metrics.
  This index is designed to assess business-related regulatory efficiency, not general public administration.

8. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Answer: (c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011

Explanation:
Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach where producers are made responsible for the entire lifecycle of their products, especially disposal.

• It was first formally introduced in India under the e-Waste Rules, 2011, targeting electronic waste management.
• Producers must ensure collection, recycling, and safe disposal of e-waste generated from their products.
• EPR has since been expanded to other sectors like plastic packaging and batteries, but its origin lies in e-waste regulation.
  This reflects India’s growing focus on sustainable waste management and corporate accountability.

9. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) transportation cost only
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals charges for godowns

Answer: (c) procurement incidentals distribution cost

Explanation:
The economic cost of food grains for the Food Corporation of India (FCI) includes:

• Minimum Support Price (MSP) and any bonus paid to farmers
• Procurement incidentals such as handling, storage, and administrative costs
• Distribution costs including transportation and delivery to fair price shops
  This comprehensive cost structure ensures that the subsidized food supply chain under schemes like NFSA remains viable and efficient.

10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
(a) The proportion of literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
(c) The size of population in the working age group
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Answer: (d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Explanation:
Social capital refers to the networks, norms, and trust that facilitate coordination and cooperation among people.

• It is intangible and rooted in relationships, civic engagement, and shared values.
• Unlike physical or human capital, social capital emphasizes community cohesion and institutional trust.
• High social capital contributes to better governance, economic performance, and social resilience.
  This concept is central to understanding how societies function beyond material assets, influencing everything from public health to democratic participation.

11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission

Answer: (b) Lead Bank Scheme

Explanation:
The Service Area Approach was introduced in 1989 as part of the Lead Bank Scheme, which was initiated in 1969.

• Under this approach, each bank branch in rural and semi-urban areas was assigned a specific geographical area for credit planning and implementation.
• It aimed to ensure focused banking outreach, improve credit delivery, and promote inclusive development.
  This model helped streamline rural credit systems and align banking efforts with local development needs.

12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Sand is classified as a minor mineral under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957.
• State Governments are empowered to grant leases and frame rules for minor minerals, including measures to prevent illegal mining.
• Statement 2 is incorrect because rule-making powers for minor minerals also rest with the States, not just the Centre.
  This reflects the decentralized governance of mineral resources, allowing States to manage local environmental and economic impacts.

13. Consider the following statements:

1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• A significant portion of India’s external debt is owed by private sector entities, including corporates and financial institutions.
• India’s external debt is denominated in multiple currencies, including US dollars, Japanese yen, euros, and SDRs.
  This diversity in debt ownership and currency denomination helps mitigate risks and reflects India’s global financial integration.

14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short notice

Answer: (b) Deposits

Explanation:

• Deposits are considered liabilities for a bank, as they represent money owed to customers.
• Assets include items like advances (loans), investments, and money at call and short notice, which generate income.
  This distinction is fundamental to understanding a bank’s balance sheet structure, where liabilities fund assets.

15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 3 only
   (c) 2 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Foreign currency earnings from IT exports and remittances from abroad help strengthen India’s foreign exchange reserves, reducing vulnerability to currency crises.
• Increasing government expenditure, unless matched by revenue, can worsen fiscal deficits, potentially increasing currency risk.
  These inflows provide stability to the rupee and support external sector resilience.

16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

Explanation:
The Sarkaria Commission was set up to examine Centre-State relations and recommended that the Governor should be:

• A person of eminence from outside the State
• Detached from active politics, especially in the recent past
  This was aimed at ensuring neutrality and constitutional integrity in the Governor’s role.

17. Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note

Answer: (d) Participatory Note

Explanation:
Participatory Notes (P-Notes) are financial instruments used by foreign investors to invest in Indian securities without direct registration with SEBI.

• They are issued by registered Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs)
• P-Notes offer anonymity and ease of access, but have raised concerns about regulatory transparency
  This mechanism reflects the complex dynamics of capital flow and regulatory oversight in emerging markets.

18. Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 provides for the establishment of CAMPA at both National and State levels to manage funds collected for afforestation.
• While community involvement is encouraged, it is not mandatory under the Act.
  This framework aims to ensure effective use of environmental compensation funds, but has faced criticism for limited local participation.

19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1, 3 and 4
   (c) 3, 4 and 5
   (d) 2 and 5

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

• Parliamentary oversight of regulators is primarily conducted through Department Related Standing Committees and Ad Hoc Committees.
• The Finance Commission and NITI Aayog do not directly review regulatory bodies.
• The Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission was a one-time body focused on legal reforms.
  This reflects the legislative checks and balances on regulatory autonomy in India.

20. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) emphasized industrialization, especially basic and capital goods, under the Mahalanobis model.
• The Fourth Plan (1969–74) aimed to reduce economic disparities and promote social justice.
• The financial sector was addressed earlier, but not as a distinct integral component in the Fifth Plan.
  These shifts reflect India’s evolving development priorities, from industrial growth to equity and institutional reform.

21. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
   Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• High Courts have the power of judicial review and can declare central laws unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution.
• The Supreme Court can review constitutional amendments, especially under the basic structure doctrine established in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
  These powers reflect the robust checks and balances in India’s constitutional framework, ensuring that no law or amendment escapes scrutiny.

22. Consider the following statements:

1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• PPP exchange rates compare the cost of a standard basket of goods and services across countries to determine relative value.
• India is actually among the top three economies in PPP terms, not sixth.
  PPP is a key tool for comparing real economic productivity and living standards, beyond nominal GDP.

23. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3 only
   (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
   (c) 2 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Rice consistently occupies the largest area among Kharif crops.
• Oilseeds have a larger area than jowar, making statement 2 incorrect.
• Cotton covers more area than sugarcane, which is primarily a Rabi crop in some regions.
• Sugarcane cultivation has not shown a consistent decline, so statement 4 is inaccurate.
  This reflects the regional and economic preferences in crop selection, influenced by market demand and agro-climatic conditions.

24. Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?
(a) Spices
(b) Fresh fruits
(c) Pulses
(d) Vegetable oils

Answer: (d) Vegetable oils

Explanation:
India is one of the largest importers of vegetable oils, including palm oil, soybean oil, and sunflower oil, primarily from Indonesia, Malaysia, and Argentina.

• These imports are driven by domestic demand exceeding production, especially in urban areas.
• Pulses are also imported, but their value is lower than vegetable oils.
  This highlights India’s nutritional dependency and trade vulnerability in edible oil markets.

25. In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully

Explanation:
Liberty in a constitutional democracy is not just about freedom from oppression, but also about positive freedom—the ability to realize one’s potential.

• It includes freedom of thought, expression, movement, and association, within the bounds of law.
• The idea aligns with John Stuart Mill’s concept of liberty, emphasizing individual growth and societal progress.
  This definition balances personal autonomy with collective responsibility.

26. Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee?
(a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports
(b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala Bonds
(c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing
(d) Following an expansionary monetary policy

Answer: (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy

Explanation:

• An expansionary monetary policy increases money supply and lowers interest rates, which can worsen currency depreciation.
• To stabilize the rupee, the RBI typically uses tight monetary policy, promotes Masala Bonds, and controls imports.
  This reflects the delicate balance between growth and currency stability in macroeconomic management.

27. Consider the following statements:
The Reserve Bank of India’s recent directives relating to ‘Storage of Payment System Data’, popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• RBI’s directive mandates local storage of payment data to enhance data security and sovereignty.
• It does not require systems to be owned by public sector enterprises, nor does it involve the CAG in audit reporting.
  This move reflects India’s growing emphasis on digital governance and regulatory control over financial data.

28. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America

Answer: (c) The European Union

Explanation:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a landmark privacy law enacted by the European Union.

• It sets strict rules on data collection, processing, and consent, with heavy penalties for violations.
• GDPR has influenced global data protection standards, including India’s draft Personal Data Protection Bill.
  This law underscores the importance of digital rights and user autonomy in the information age.

29. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America

Answer: (b) Russia

Explanation:
India signed the Action Plan with Russia to enhance cooperation in civil nuclear energy, including:

• Construction of nuclear reactors
• Joint research and development
• Training and capacity building
  This partnership builds on the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project and reflects India’s strategy for energy security and technological collaboration.

30. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the banking habit of the population
(c) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(d) Increase in the population of the country

Answer: (b) Increase in the banking habit of the population

Explanation:

• Money multiplier refers to the amount of money generated in the economy from a unit of central bank money.
• It increases when more people deposit money in banks, allowing banks to lend more and expand credit.
• Higher CRR or SLR restricts lending, reducing the multiplier.
  This concept is central to understanding how financial inclusion and trust in banking drive economic expansion.

31. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 2, 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 2 and 4
   (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

• Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are a sub-category of Scheduled Tribes identified for special attention due to their primitive traits, stagnant population, low literacy, and subsistence-level economy.
• They are spread across 18 States and 1 Union Territory (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
• Irular and Konda Reddi are among the tribes listed as PVTGs.
• However, the number of officially notified PVTGs is 75, not 95.
  This classification helps target focused welfare interventions for the most marginalized tribal communities.

32. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament

Explanation:

• Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to pass orders necessary for doing complete justice in any case.
• This provision overrides statutory limitations, allowing the Court to act beyond the confines of ordinary laws.
• It is a unique constitutional tool that reinforces the judicial supremacy and flexibility of the apex court.
  This ensures that justice is not hindered by procedural constraints, especially in complex or exceptional cases.

33. With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

• The Governor’s address at the beginning of the first session each year is a constitutional convention, laying out the government’s agenda.
• In the absence of specific rules, State Legislatures often adopt Lok Sabha procedures to maintain consistency.
  This reflects the parliamentary heritage and procedural adaptability of Indian legislatures.

34. Consider the following statements:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3 only
   (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
   (c) 2 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• UNCAC is the first legally binding global instrument to combat corruption.
• The Protocol against Smuggling of Migrants is part of UNTOC, not UNCAC.
• UNTOC includes provisions for asset recovery, and UNODC supports implementation of both conventions.
  These frameworks represent the global consensus on combating corruption and organized crime.

35. Consider the following statements:

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• The Indian Forest Act amendment reclassified bamboo as grass, allowing forest dwellers to harvest it without prior approval.
• The Forest Rights Act, 2006 recognizes bamboo as minor forest produce and grants ownership rights to forest dwellers.
  This empowers tribal communities and promotes sustainable forest-based livelihoods.

36. Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29

Answer: (b) Article 21

Explanation:

• Article 21 guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which includes the freedom to choose one’s partner.
• The Supreme Court has upheld this in cases involving interfaith and inter-caste marriages, reinforcing individual autonomy.
  This interpretation reflects the progressive expansion of fundamental rights in India.

37. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation:

• Plant varieties are protected under the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act, 2001, not under patent law.
• Biological processes for seed creation are not patentable under Indian law.
• The Intellectual Property Appellate Board existed but was abolished in 2021, with its functions transferred to High Courts.
  This reflects India’s balanced approach to IP rights, protecting innovation while safeguarding farmers.

38. Consider the following statements:
The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

• The Act empowers the government to set emission standards, regulate industrial activity, and protect the environment.
• It does not mandate public participation, though it may be encouraged through other mechanisms.
  This law forms the backbone of India’s environmental regulatory framework.

39. As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer: (c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities

Explanation:
The Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 apply to all urban and rural areas, not just notified ones.

• They mandate segregation of waste into three categories: biodegradable, dry, and domestic hazardous waste.
• The Rules include detailed guidelines for selecting landfill and processing sites, considering environmental and social factors.
• There is no restriction on inter-district movement of waste.
  This framework promotes scientific waste handling and aims to reduce landfill burden and pollution.

40. Consider the following statements
As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The 2018 amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Rules introduced fixed-term employment, allowing companies to hire workers for a specific duration.

• These employees are not entitled to retrenchment compensation, making layoffs easier.
• Temporary workmen do not require notice of termination, as per existing provisions.
  This change reflects a shift toward labour market flexibility, balancing industry needs and worker rights.

41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

1. In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 3 and 4
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) 4 only

Answer: (b) 3 and 4

Explanation:

• Augmented Reality (AR) overlays digital content on the real world, enhancing perception without shutting it out.
• Virtual Reality (VR) creates a fully immersive digital environment, isolating the user from the physical world.
• AR uses smartphone or PC cameras to blend virtual elements with real surroundings.
• VR offers complete immersion, often using headsets and motion sensors.
  These technologies are revolutionizing gaming, education, and simulation experiences.

42. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
(a) Fossils of a kind of dinosaurs
(b) An early human species
(c) A cave system found in North-East India
(d) A geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

Answer: (b) An early human species

Explanation:
Denisovans are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans discovered from fossil remains in Denisova Cave, Siberia.

• They are closely related to Neanderthals, and genetic studies show interbreeding with modern humans, especially in Asia and Oceania.
• Their discovery has reshaped understanding of human evolution and migration patterns.
  This highlights the complex ancestry of Homo sapiens and the role of genetic diversity.

43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.
(b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.
(c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.
(d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Answer: (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species

Explanation:

• While synthetic chromosomes have been developed, combining DNA from different species to create a functional chromosome is not currently feasible due to genetic incompatibility and ethical concerns.
• Artificial DNA synthesis, in vitro replication, and cell culture techniques are well-established.
  This question probes the limits of genetic engineering, distinguishing between current capabilities and speculative science.

44. Consider the following statements
A digital signature is

1. An electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
2. Used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
3. An electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• A digital signature is a cryptographic technique used to verify the authenticity and integrity of digital documents.
• It includes certifying authority details, serves as proof of identity, and ensures that the document remains unaltered.
• Digital signatures are governed by the Information Technology Act, 2000 in India.
  They are vital for secure e-governance, banking, and legal transactions.

45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

1. Location identification of a person
2. Sleep monitoring of a person
3. Assisting the hearing impaired person
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Wearable devices like smartwatches and fitness bands use GPS for location tracking, accelerometers for sleep monitoring, and assistive technologies like smart hearing aids for the hearing impaired.
• These innovations enhance health tracking, safety, and accessibility, making technology more personalized and inclusive.
  Wearables are transforming digital health and lifestyle management.

46. ‘RNA interference (RNAi)’ technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1, 2 and 4
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:
RNA interference (RNAi) is a biological process where RNA molecules inhibit gene expression, typically by neutralizing targeted mRNA molecules.

• It is widely used in gene silencing therapies, especially for genetic disorders and cancer, where specific genes are turned off.
• In agriculture, RNAi is applied to develop virus-resistant crops, enhancing plant immunity without introducing foreign proteins.
• However, RNAi is not used for hormone replacement therapies, which involve synthetic hormones, not gene silencing.
  This technology represents a precision tool in both medicine and biotechnology, offering targeted interventions with minimal side effects.

47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?
(a) ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.
(b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.
(c) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.
(d) It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Answer: (b) ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected

Explanation:
The merger of black holes produces ripples in spacetime known as gravitational waves, first predicted by Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity.

• These waves were detected by LIGO and Virgo observatories, confirming a major theoretical prediction.
• The detection does not involve Higgs boson, wormholes, or direct insight into singularity, which remains a theoretical frontier.
  This breakthrough opened a new era of observational astronomy, allowing scientists to study cosmic events invisible to traditional telescopes.

48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

1. Genetic predisposition of some people
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1, 3 and 4
   (d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
Multi-drug resistance (MDR) arises when microbes evolve to survive exposure to multiple antibiotics.

• Incorrect dosing, such as incomplete courses or self-medication, promotes resistance.
• Antibiotic use in livestock contributes to environmental exposure and cross-species resistance.
• Chronic diseases often require prolonged antibiotic use, increasing resistance risk.
• Genetic predisposition affects individual response but does not cause MDR in pathogens.
  This issue poses a major public health challenge, requiring regulatory control, awareness, and stewardship programs.

49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients
(c) A gene that makes plants pest resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops

Answer: (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

Explanation:
Cas9 is an enzyme used in the CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing system, functioning as a molecular scissors that can cut DNA at specific locations.

• It enables precise genetic modifications, useful in medicine, agriculture, and biotechnology.
• Cas9 is guided by RNA sequences to target specific genes, allowing correction of mutations or insertion of new traits.
  This technology has revolutionized genetic engineering, offering unprecedented control over DNA manipulation.

50. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.
(b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.
(c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.
(d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Answer: (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine

Explanation:

• Hepatitis B has a well-established vaccine, while Hepatitis C does not.
• Both viruses are transmitted through blood and bodily fluids, similar to HIV.
• They often cause asymptomatic infections, leading to chronic liver disease over time.
• Globally, Hepatitis B and C affect more people than HIV, making them major public health concerns.
  This question highlights the importance of vaccination and early detection in managing viral hepatitis epidemics.

51. With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:
In Mughal administration, Jagirdars were assigned land (jagir) primarily for revenue collection and administrative duties, including judicial and policing functions.

• Zamindars, on the other hand, held revenue rights and acted as intermediaries between the state and peasants, but were not obligated to perform judicial or police duties.
• Jagirdari assignments were not hereditary, while Zamindari rights often became hereditary over time, especially under later colonial policies.
  This distinction reflects the administrative hierarchy and evolving land tenure systems in pre-colonial India.

52. With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.
(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.
(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.
(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Answer: (b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless

Explanation:
The primary objective of land reforms in post-independence India was to redistribute land to landless farmers, ensuring equity and social justice.

• Ceiling laws targeted individual holdings, not family holdings.
• Exemptions were allowed for plantations, religious institutions, and educational trusts.
• While land reforms influenced cropping patterns, they did not directly promote cash crops.
  These reforms aimed to break feudal structures and promote agrarian democracy.

53. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank

Answer: (c) World Economic Forum

Explanation:
The Global Competitiveness Report is an annual publication by the World Economic Forum (WEF).

• It assesses the competitiveness of countries based on factors like infrastructure, macroeconomic stability, health, education, and innovation capability.
• The report helps policymakers identify strengths and weaknesses in their economic systems.
  This index is a key tool for benchmarking national productivity and growth potential.

54. Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:
The Charter Act of 1813 marked a significant shift in British policy toward India:

• It ended the East India Company’s monopoly over Indian trade, except for tea and trade with China.
• It asserted British Crown sovereignty, laying the foundation for direct imperial control.
• However, revenue control remained with the Company, not the British Parliament.
  This Act initiated missionary activities and education funding, influencing India’s colonial governance and cultural landscape.

55. With reference to Swadeshi Movements, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:
The Swadeshi Movement (1905) emerged in response to the Partition of Bengal, promoting self-reliance and indigenous production.

• It led to the revival of traditional crafts, handlooms, and cottage industries.
• The National Council of Education was founded in 1906 to provide nationalist education, free from colonial influence.
  This movement laid the foundation for economic nationalism and cultural resurgence.

56. Consider the following pairs:
Movement/Organization — Leader

1. All India Anti Untouchability League — Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha — Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self Respect Movement — E.V. Ramaswami Naicker
   Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Anti Untouchability League in 1932 to combat caste discrimination.
• Swami Sahajanand Saraswati led the All India Kisan Sabha, advocating for peasant rights and agrarian reforms.
• E.V. Ramaswami Naicker spearheaded the Self Respect Movement in Tamil Nadu, challenging Brahminical dominance and promoting social equality.
  These leaders shaped India’s social reform and grassroots mobilization.

57. Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Chanhudaro
(b) Kot Diji
(c) Sohagaura
(d) Desalpur

Answer: (c) Sohagaura

Explanation:

• Sohagaura is associated with Mauryan period, not the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Chanhudaro, Kot Diji, and Desalpur are confirmed Harappan sites, known for urban planning, craft production, and trade networks.
  This distinction helps trace the chronological and cultural evolution of ancient India.

58. In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?
(a) Kanganahalli
(b) Sanchi
(c) Shahbazgarhi
(d) Sohagaura

Answer: (a) Kanganahalli

Explanation:

• The Kanganahalli site in Karnataka revealed a stone sculpture of Ashoka with the inscription ‘Ranyo Ashoka’, meaning King Ashoka.
• It is a rare instance of Ashoka’s portraiture, offering insights into Mauryan art and royal iconography.
  This discovery enriches our understanding of early Buddhist symbolism and imperial representation.

59. Consider the following:

1. Deification of the Buddha
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas
3. Image worship and rituals
   Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Mahayana Buddhism emerged around the 1st century CE, emphasizing:

• Deification of Buddha as a divine figure
• Bodhisattva ideal, where enlightened beings delay nirvana to help others
• Image worship and elaborate rituals, contrasting with earlier aniconic traditions
  This school expanded Buddhism’s spiritual and devotional dimensions, influencing art and theology across Asia.

60. With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.
(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.
(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.
(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Answer: (a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people

Explanation:

• Vishti was a form of compulsory labour during the Gupta period, often used for state projects and military logistics.
• It was treated as a tax in kind, contributing to the imperial economy.
• There is no evidence of wages or hereditary obligation linked to eldest sons.
  This practice reflects the **social stratification and

61. Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?
(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber
(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber
(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane
(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

Answer: (a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

Explanation:
The ‘New World’ refers to the Americas, and several important crops were first domesticated there:

• Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber are native to the Americas and were later introduced to Europe, Asia, and Africa.
• Cotton, coffee, sugarcane, and wheat have origins in the Old World.
  This exchange of crops was part of the Columbian Exchange, which transformed global agriculture and diets.

62. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• The Asiatic lion is found only in the Gir Forest of Gujarat, India.
• The one-horned rhinoceros is native to the Indian subcontinent, especially Assam and parts of Nepal.
• The double-humped camel is found in India and Central Asia, so it is not exclusive to India.
  These species are critical to India’s biodiversity and conservation efforts.

63. Consider the following pairs:
Famous place — River

1. Pandharpur — Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli — Cauvery
3. Hampi — Malaprabha
   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• Pandharpur is located on the banks of the Chandrabhaga River (Bhima).
• Tiruchirappalli lies along the Cauvery River in Tamil Nadu.
• Hampi is situated near the Tungabhadra River, not Malaprabha.
  These river-place associations are important in cultural geography and pilgrimage traditions.

64. In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in others because
(a) Poverty rates vary from State to State
(b) Price levels vary from State to State
(c) Gross State Product varies from State to State
(d) Quality of public distribution varies from State to State

Answer: (b) Price levels vary from State to State

Explanation:

• The poverty line is adjusted based on regional price levels, especially food and essential goods.
• States with higher cost of living have higher poverty thresholds.
• Poverty rates and GSP affect poverty incidence, but not the poverty line definition.
  This reflects the need for context-sensitive economic indicators in policymaking.

65. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming

Answer: (d) Reducing the global warming

Explanation:

• Cirrus cloud thinning and sulphate aerosol injection are geoengineering techniques aimed at reflecting solar radiation and cooling the Earth.
• These methods are part of climate intervention strategies, not weather modification or solar wind protection.
  They represent controversial but potentially impactful approaches to mitigate climate change.

66. In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Answer: (d) Waste-to-energy technologies

Explanation:

• Pyrolysis and plasma gasification are advanced thermal processes used to convert solid waste into energy.
• They break down waste at high temperatures in low-oxygen environments, producing syngas and other fuels.
  These technologies offer cleaner alternatives to landfilling and incineration, supporting sustainable urban waste management.

67. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundia, Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Answer: (a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

Explanation:
The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve spans parts of Kerala and Tamil Nadu, and includes:

• Neyyar, Peppara, Shendurney in Kerala
• Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve in Tamil Nadu
  It is known for rich biodiversity, especially endemic and medicinal plants, and is part of the Western Ghats ecosystem.

68. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 2 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Green sea turtles are herbivorous, feeding on seagrass and algae.
• Herbivorous fish like parrotfish and surgeonfish graze on coral and plant matter.
• Marine mammals such as manatees and dugongs consume aquatic vegetation.
  This diversity illustrates the ecological roles of herbivores in marine ecosystems, contributing to habitat health and nutrient cycling.

69. Consider the following pairs:
Wildlife — Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer — Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin — Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat — Eastern Ghats
   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Blue-finned Mahseer is endemic to the Cauvery River.
• Irrawaddy Dolphin is found in coastal and estuarine waters, especially in Odisha’s Chilika Lake, not Chambal.
• Rusty-spotted Cat is found in Eastern Ghats and parts of Central India.
  These species are indicators of regional biodiversity and conservation priorities.

70. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into environment?
(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants

Answer: (a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems

Explanation:

• Microbeads are tiny plastic particles used in cosmetics and cleaning products.
• They do not biodegrade, and often enter water bodies, where they are ingested by marine organisms, causing toxicity and bioaccumulation.
• There is no evidence linking them to skin cancer or food adulteration.
  Their impact has led to global bans and regulations, promoting eco-friendly alternatives.

71. Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of
(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara

Answer: (d) Vijayanagara

Explanation:
The Vijayanagara Empire is renowned for its distinctive temple architecture, especially the construction of Kalyaana Mandapas—ceremonial halls used for divine marriage rituals.

• These mandapas are elaborately carved and often found in temples like Virupaksha and Vittala in Hampi.
• Other dynasties contributed to temple architecture, but Kalyaana Mandapas are a hallmark of Vijayanagara style, reflecting its ritualistic and cultural sophistication.

72. Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• The Amil was indeed the revenue officer during the Delhi Sultanate.
• The Iqta system was borrowed from Persian administrative practices, not indigenous.
• The office of Mir Bakshi, responsible for military pay and recruitment, was established under the Mughals, not the Khaljis.
  This highlights the evolution of administrative institutions across dynasties.

73. Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

• Nimbarka lived around the 11th–13th century, long before Akbar.
• Kabir (15th century) was influenced by Bhakti and Sufi traditions, but not by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi, who came later in the 17th century.
  This question tests chronological accuracy in religious history.

74. With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 1 and 3 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

• Gandhi led a campaign against indentured labour, which was abolished in 1921.
• He supported recruitment during Lord Chelmsford’s War Conference in 1918, hoping it would earn political concessions.
• After the Salt Satyagraha in 1930, the Congress was banned, marking a turning point in civil disobedience.
  This reflects Gandhi’s strategic activism and colonial response.

75. With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:
Person — Position held

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru — President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K.C. Neogy — Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P.C. Joshi — General Secretary, Communist Party of India
   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru led the Liberal Federation, advocating constitutional reforms.
• K.C. Neogy was a member of the Constituent Assembly and held various ministerial roles.
• P.C. Joshi was the first General Secretary of CPI, active during the freedom struggle and post-independence debates.
  These figures represent diverse ideological strands in India’s independence movement.

76. With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.
(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.
(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.
(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.

Answer: (a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar

Explanation:

• Tansen was his original name, not a title conferred by Akbar.
• He composed Dhrupads in praise of Hindu deities and royal patrons, and is credited with creating new ragas.
  This question explores the fusion of music, devotion, and patronage in Mughal India.

77. Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shah Jahan

Answer: (c) Jahangir

Explanation:

• Jahangir had a keen interest in naturalism and portraiture, promoting individual portraits and albums over narrative manuscripts.
• His reign saw the refinement of Mughal painting, with focus on realism and botanical studies.
  This marks a shift in artistic patronage and aesthetic preferences.

78. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?
(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: (d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Explanation:

• Located in Uttarakhand, the Valley of Flowers lies in the temperate alpine zone, known for high-altitude meadows and endemic flora.
• Other parks span tropical or subtropical zones.
  This park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, celebrated for its seasonal bloom and ecological significance.

79. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
(a) Department of Science and Technology
(b) Ministry of Labour and Employment
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Answer: (c) NITI Aayog

Explanation:

• The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative under NITI Aayog, aimed at fostering innovation and entrepreneurship.
• It supports Atal Tinkering Labs, incubators, and research partnerships.
  This mission reflects India’s push toward a knowledge-driven economy.

80. On 21st June, the Sun
(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle
(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle
(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator
(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Answer: (a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

Explanation:

• 21st June marks the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere.
• At the Arctic Circle, the Sun remains above the horizon for 24 hours, a phenomenon known as the Midnight Sun.
• The Sun shines overhead at the Tropic of Cancer, not Capricorn or Equator.
  This illustrates Earth’s axial tilt and seasonal variation in solar exposure.

81. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 3 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 2 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

• Agricultural soils emit nitrogen oxides (NOx) due to the use of nitrogen-based fertilizers and microbial activity.
• Cattle farming releases ammonia (NH₃) through urine and manure decomposition.
• The poultry industry contributes to reactive nitrogen emissions, including ammonia and nitrous oxide, from feed and waste.
  These emissions impact air quality, climate change, and nutrient cycles, making nitrogen management a key environmental concern.

82. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?
(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits
(b) Tropical rain forests
(c) Underground cave systems
(d) Water reservoirs

Answer: (d) Water reservoirs

Explanation:

• Aliyar (Tamil Nadu), Isapur (Maharashtra), and Kangsabati (West Bengal) are all known for their reservoirs and irrigation projects.
• These reservoirs support agriculture, drinking water supply, and hydroelectric generation.
  They are part of India’s water infrastructure, crucial for rural development and resource management.

83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• H-CNG reduces CO₂ and hydrocarbon emissions, but does not eliminate CO completely.
• Up to 18–20% hydrogen can be blended with CNG, improving combustion efficiency.
• H-CNG is more expensive due to hydrogen production and blending costs.
  This fuel is part of India’s push for cleaner urban transport and emission control.

84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?
(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.
(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.
(c) The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.
(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level

Answer: (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation

Explanation:

• On clear nights, Earth’s surface loses heat via radiation, cooling enough to form dew.
• Clouds act as insulators, reflecting infrared radiation back, preventing surface cooling.
• Hence, dew formation is suppressed on cloudy nights.
  This illustrates the role of radiative balance in microclimatic phenomena.

85. Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

• The 44th Amendment (1978) did not place PM’s election beyond judicial review.
• The 99th Amendment, which proposed the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), was struck down by the Supreme Court in 2015, citing judicial independence concerns.
  This case reaffirmed the primacy of the judiciary in appointments, preserving the constitutional balance of power.

86. Consider the following statements:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 3 only
   (c) 3 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 outlines the procedure for impeachment, including investigation and voting.
• The Speaker can reject motions if they don’t meet procedural requirements.
• The Constitution mentions grounds but does not define ‘incapacity and misbehaviour’ in detail.
  This process ensures judicial accountability while safeguarding independence.

87. The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi
(d) Morarji Desai

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation:

• The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment in 1951, under Jawaharlal Nehru, to protect land reform laws from judicial scrutiny.
• It was meant to shield progressive legislation from being struck down as violating fundamental rights.
  This reflects the early constitutional balancing between social justice and legal rights.

88. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self sufficient in coal production.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

• The coal sector was nationalized in the 1970s under Indira Gandhi to ensure energy security.
• Coal blocks are now allocated via auction, not lottery.
• India still imports coal, especially coking coal, and is not fully self-sufficient.
  This sector remains vital to India’s energy and industrial landscape.

89. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 3 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

• The 1959 Act lists exempted offices to prevent disqualification of MPs/MLAs.
• It has been amended multiple times, including in 2006.
• The term ‘Office of Profit’ is not explicitly defined in the Constitution; its interpretation is based on judicial rulings.
  This issue reflects the tension between executive appointments and legislative integrity.

90. Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule
(d) Twelfth Schedule

Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule

Explanation:

• The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration of Scheduled Areas and Tribes, including land rights and governance.
• It empowers Governor and Tribal Advisory Councils to regulate land transfers.
• This provision protects tribal land from exploitation, especially in mining and industrial projects.

It is central to tribal autonomy and constitutional safeguards.

91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of
(a) anti-malarial drug
(b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry
(d) textile fibre

Answer: (d) textile fibre

Explanation:
Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) is a wild plant found in the Himalayan region, especially in Uttarakhand and Nepal.

• It produces strong, biodegradable fibres that are used in eco-friendly textiles.
• The fibre is lightweight, durable, and naturally antimicrobial, making it suitable for sustainable fashion and handicrafts.
• It is not used for biodiesel or pharmaceuticals.
  This plant supports rural livelihoods and biodiversity conservation, aligning with green economy goals.

92. For the measurement/ estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Remote sensing and satellite imagery are widely used in environmental monitoring:

• Chlorophyll content is assessed using spectral reflectance data, helping track plant health and productivity.
• Greenhouse gas emissions, especially methane from rice paddies, are monitored using thermal and hyperspectral sensors.
• Land surface temperature is derived from infrared bands, aiding in climate and urban heat studies.
  These tools enable precision agriculture, climate modeling, and ecological assessments.

93. Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha
   With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?
   (a) 2-3-1-4
   (b) 2-3-4-1
   (c) 3-2-4-1
   (d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: (c) 3-2-4-1

Explanation:
Based on Forest Survey of India data:

• Maharashtra has the lowest forest cover percentage among the four.
• Followed by Madhya Pradesh, then Odisha, and Chhattisgarh has the highest.
  This order reflects geographical and ecological diversity, as well as state-level conservation efforts.

94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below.
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:
Methane hydrates are ice-like compounds found in permafrost regions and ocean floors.

• Global warming can destabilize these deposits, releasing methane, a potent greenhouse gas.
• Once in the atmosphere, methane oxidizes to CO₂, contributing to long-term warming.
  These deposits are both a potential energy source and a climate risk, requiring careful study.

95. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
   Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
   (c) 1 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:
Crop residue burning releases a mix of gaseous and particulate pollutants:

• Carbon monoxide (CO) from incomplete combustion
• Methane (CH₄) and ozone (O₃) as secondary pollutants
• Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) from sulfur-containing biomass
  These emissions contribute to air pollution, smog formation, and respiratory illnesses, especially in northern India.

96. Consider the following pairs
Sea — Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea — Albania
2. Black Sea — Croatia
3. Caspian Sea — Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea — Morocco
5. Red Sea — Syria
   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
   (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
   (c) 2 and 5 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

• Adriatic Sea borders Albania.
• Black Sea does not border Croatia; it borders countries like Ukraine, Russia, and Turkey.
• Caspian Sea borders Kazakhstan.
• Mediterranean Sea borders Morocco.
• Red Sea does not border Syria.
  This question tests geopolitical geography and maritime boundaries.

97. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China
(b) India
(c) Myanmar
(d) Vietnam

Answer: (b) India

Explanation:
India has consistently been the world’s largest rice exporter, especially of basmati and non-basmati varieties.

• Major importers include Middle East, Africa, and Southeast Asia.
• India’s dominance is due to high production, competitive pricing, and diverse varieties.
  This reflects India’s role in global food trade and agricultural diplomacy.

98. Consider the following pairs
Glacier — River

1. Bandarpunch — Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri — Chenab
3. Milam — Mandakini
4. Siachen — Nubra
5. Zemu — Manas
   Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
   (a) 1, 2 and 4
   (b) 1, 3 and 4
   (c) 2 and 5
   (d) 3 and 5

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

• Bandarpunch Glacier feeds the Yamuna River.
• Bara Shigri Glacier is the source of the Chenab River.
• Milam Glacier feeds the Goriganga, not Mandakini.
• Siachen Glacier lies in the Nubra Valley.
• Zemu Glacier feeds the Teesta River, not Manas.
  This question integrates glaciology and river geography.

99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as
(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturising agents in cosmetics

Answer: (a) pesticides in agriculture

Explanation:
These chemicals are highly toxic pesticides, used to control insects and nematodes in crops.

• They pose risks to human health, soil biodiversity, and water contamination.
• Regulatory bodies have restricted or banned their use in many countries.
  This reflects the need for safe and sustainable pest management practices.

100. Consider the following statements

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

• The Ramsar Convention obliges protection of designated Ramsar sites, not all wetlands.
• The 2010 Rules were framed in line with Ramsar