UPSC Prelims 2022 Question Paper Set A[Fully Solved]

1. “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(d) World Bank

Ans: (b)

Solution: The Rapid Credit Facility by IMF is offering concessional loans to help with the balance of payments needs of low-income countries (LICs).

2. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicate the appreciation of rupee.
An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER AND REER.

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans:(c)

Solution:

What is Nominal Effective Exchange Rate?

Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) refers to the value of a country’s currency in relation to a basket of foreign currencies, weighted by the importance of each country in the country’s international trade.

Suppose, 1 unit of the basket of currency was equivalent to 100 Indian Rupees. Now India starts to take measures to appreciate its currency like boosting export, attracting more FDI and finally 1 unit of the basket of currency becomes 0.9 Indian Rupee.

Hence. there will be an increase in the Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER).

So, S1 is correct.

What is Real Exchange Rate?

Real Exchange Rate (RER) refers to the value of a country’s currency relative to the value of goods and services produced in that country, in relation to the same basket of foreign currencies. RER takes into account the differences in the prices of goods and services between countries, as well as the exchange rate. It is calculated by dividing the NEER by the ratio of the domestic price level to the foreign price level.

Suppose the inflation in India is high, this will result in higher and higher prices of Goods and services in India. As a result of it, the Rupee will shade its value in domestic market and RER will decrease. But, this will boost the export.

So, S2 is incorrect.

3. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Solution: The RBI buys government bonds from the market and pays back money to the bondholders, thus injecting more money into the economy.

S1: If the Inflation is high, it means that there are more and more cash in the market. In order to bring the inflation under control, RBI will take measures to suck the cash from market.

One of the measures to do it is to sell the government bonds in open market. The economic men will buy the bond and in return RBI will get the cash. Thereby reducing the free cash from market and bringing inflation down. So, S1 in incorrect.

S2: In order to appreciate the Rupee, RBI needs to restrict the free Rupee in market. So RBI will sell the Dollar and suck extra Rupee, this will lead to appreciation of Rupee. so, S2 is correct.

#4. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
It is an initiative to support Low income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Solution: To address the problem of unsustainable debt, the G20 reached on a Common Framework for Debt Treatments. The aim is to deal with insolvency and protracted liquidity problems.

5. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation- Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Solution:

S1: Inflation Indexed bonds are securities to protect investors from inflation. The rate of return matches with inflation. But, the government can reduce coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. So, statement 1 is correct.

S2: Ye, it protects the investors from the uncertainty of inflation. S2 is correct.

An inflation-indexed bond protects both investors and issuers from the uncertainty of inflation
over the life of the bond. So, statement 2 is correct.

S3: The return is taxable. Incorrect Statement.

6. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

7. Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy?

Farmers harvesting their crops
Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (A)

Solution: The real sector of the economy refers to those parts of the economy involved in the production and exchange of goods and services.

S1: Farmers harvesting their crops is a primary activity in the production of food and raw materials and it is included in real sector of economy.

S2: Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics, which is a secondary activity in the production of finished goods and it is included in real sector of economy.

S3 & S4: Commercial bank lending money to a trading company and a corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas are not real sector of the economy.

8. Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

(a) An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment.

(b) A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment

(c) An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India.

(d) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India.

Ans: (D)

9. With reference to the expenditure made by an organization or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Acquiring new technology is capital expenditures.
Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (A)

Solution: Capital expenditures refer to the funds that a company spends on acquiring, improving, or maintaining its long-term assets, such as property, buildings, equipment, and technology.

These expenditures are typically investments that the company expects to provide future benefits and generate returns over an extended period, typically more than a year. Hence,

S1: Acquiring new technology is capital expenditures.

Revenue expenditure is the money a company spends on day-to-day expenses necessary to keep the business running, such as salaries, rent, utilities, and supplies. These expenses are essential for a company’s daily operations but do not provide long-term benefits. Revenue expenditures are usually small and recurring, and their benefits are limited to the current accounting period.

A corporate has two options to raise cash.

Either, get the loan from open market, this is debt financing. It is capital expenditure as it creates liability on the company and company has to pay back the loan in future.

Or, Sell the company share, this again leads to shading the capital held by the company. Hence, both debt financing and raising money through selling of equity are part of capital expenditure.

S2 is incorrect.

10. With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements:

A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
Dated securities issued at market related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (C)

11. Consider the following statements:

Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
The Constitution of Indian empowers the Supreme Court and the High Court to punish for contempt of themselves.
The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 3 only

Ans: (B)

Solution:

S1: Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
This statement is correct. The H.N. Sanyal Committee was appointed by the Government of India in 1961 to examine the law of contempt in India and to suggest reforms. Based on the recommendations of the committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was enacted. This is a correct statement.

S2: The Constitution of Indian empowers the Supreme Court and the High Court to punish for contempt of themselves. This statement is also correct. Article 129 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court to punish for contempt of itself. Similarly, Article 215 empowers the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.

S3: This statement is incorrect. While the Constitution of India provides for punishment for contempt of court, it does not define civil contempt and criminal contempt. The definition of civil and criminal contempt is provided in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971.

S4: In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
This statement is correct.

12. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Solution: S1: The first statement is partially correct. In India, only a person who has been enrolled as an advocate under the Advocates Act, 1961 is entitled to practice law. The Act defines an advocate as a person who has been enrolled as an advocate on a state bar council’s roll. The Act recognizes government law officers and legal firms as advocates. However, corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are not recognized as advocates unless they have also enrolled as advocates on a state bar council’s roll. Hence the S1 is incorrect.

S2: The second statement is correct. Bar Councils are statutory bodies created under the Advocates Act, 1961, and they have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. They also have the power to prescribe standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. The Bar Council of India is the apex body of all state bar councils. S2 is correct.

13. Consider the following statements:

A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.

When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.

A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (B)

Solution: S1: As per Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Such bills do not need the prior recommendation of the president of India. Hence S1 is incorrect.

S2: When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. Once a Constitution Amendment Bill is passed by both Houses of Parliament, it is presented to the President of India for his/her assent. S2 is correct.

S3: A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. This statement is correct. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority. This means that the bill must be passed by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of each House present and voting. There is no provision for a joint sitting of both Houses to pass a Constitution Amendment Bill.

14. Consider the following statements:

The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four rank viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Solution:

S1: The Council of Ministers includes the three categories of ministers Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Minister. Their size and classification are, however, not mentioned in the constitution. The first statement is incorrect.

S2: The second statement is correct. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, is not fixed by the Constitution. As per Article 75(1) of the Constitution, the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. The total number of ministers shall not exceed the 15 percent of the total membership of Lok Sabha.

15. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

To ratify the declaration of Emergency
To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
To impeach the President of India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(d) 3 only

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Lok Sabha (House of the People) is one of the two houses of the Parliament of India, with the other being the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). The exclusive powers of the Lok Sabha are as follows:

To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
To initiate and pass a money bill.
To elect the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
To initiate and pass an impeachment motion against the President of India.

The power to ratify the declaration of Emergency and the power to impeach the President of India are not exclusive to the Lok Sabha and require the involvement of both houses of the Parliament.

16. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
The law does not provide any timeframe within which of the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (B)

Solution: The anti-defection law in India was introduced through the 52nd Amendment to the Constitution of India in 1985. It was enacted to address the issue of legislators frequently changing parties for personal gain or other reasons, which could lead to instability in government and undermine democratic processes.

S1: The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party after six months of being appointed to the House. Hence S1 is incorrect.

S2: The law does not provide any timeframe within which of the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Hence, S2 is correct.

17. Consider the following statements:

Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither1 nor 2

Ans: (D)

Solution: S1: The attorney general of India has the privilege to attend the proceedings of Parliament of India. The solicitor general of India does not have this kind of facility. S1 is incorrect.

S2: As a general convention, the highest law officer of the government of India, Attorney General of India resigns with the resignation of the government. However no such provisions are mentioned in the Indian constitution. S2 is incorrect.

18. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Mandamus will not lie against a private organization unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (C)

Solution: S1: Mandamus is a writ issued by a court to a public authority to perform a public duty. Private organizations are not subject to the writ of Mandamus unless they perform public duties or functions. Hence, it can not be issued against a private organisation. S1 is correct.

S2: Mandamus is not applicable to private companies but, it can be issued even to a public company. S2 is incorrect.

S3: A writ can be filed by any public-minded person. S3 is correct.

19. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is a key initiative of the Government of India to transform the healthcare sector by leveraging technology. The following statements about the mission are correct:

Private and public hospitals must adopt it: The mission aims to connect all public and private healthcare providers in India through a digital platform. Hence, both private and public hospitals must adopt it to ensure that patients receive seamless healthcare services.
It aims to achieve universal health coverage: The ultimate goal of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission is to achieve universal health coverage in India. Hence, every citizen of India should be part of it to avail of the benefits of the digital platform.
It has seamless portability across the country: The mission provides seamless portability of health records and services across the country. This means that patients can access their health records and avail of healthcare services from any part of the country, irrespective of where their health records were created.

Therefore, all the given statements are correct.

20. With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of a Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duty seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 4 only

Ans: (A)

21. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(d) Wheat

Ans: (b)

Solution: Rice cultivation is a significant anthropogenic source of both methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions. During flooded conditions, rice paddies provide an ideal environment for methane-producing microorganisms to thrive. On the other hand, nitrous oxide is produced during the nitrification and denitrification processes in the soil, which are accelerated under flooded conditions. Hence, rice cultivation is a major contributor to both methane and nitrous oxide emissions.

The other crops mentioned in the options, such as cotton, sugarcane, and wheat, are not significant anthropogenic sources of methane and nitrous oxide emissions. However, all crops can contribute to greenhouse gas emissions in various ways, such as through fertilizer application, land-use change, and agricultural practices.

22. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields are practiced, results in:

Reduced seed requirement
Reduced methane production
Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Solution: The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) is a method of rice cultivation that involves a combination of several techniques, including reduced water use, improved soil health, and the use of younger seedlings. One of the key features of SRI is the practice of alternate wetting and drying (AWD) of rice fields. AWD involves intentionally drying the soil between irrigations, which can reduce methane production, save water, and reduce electricity consumption. The following statements about the benefits of SRI are correct:

Reduced seed requirement: SRI promotes the use of younger seedlings, which can result in reduced seed requirements.
Reduced methane production: AWD can significantly reduce methane production from rice fields, as it creates an aerobic environment that is less favorable for methane-producing microorganisms.
Reduced electricity consumption: AWD can also reduce electricity consumption by reducing the need for continuous irrigation.

23. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

(a) Lake Victoria

(b) Lake Faguibine

(d) Lake Volta

Ans: (b)

Solution: Lake Faguibine is a shallow lake located in the Sahel region of West Africa, in the country of Mali. The lake has been drying up since the 1970s due to a combination of factors, including reduced rainfall, increased water consumption for irrigation, and the construction of dams upstream. As a result, the lake has largely disappeared, leaving behind a vast expanse of desert.

Lake Victoria, on the other hand, is a large freshwater lake located in East Africa, shared by Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya. Lake Oguta is a freshwater lake located in southeastern Nigeria, while Lake Volta is a large reservoir located in Ghana. None of these lakes have become dry and turned into a desert.

24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(d) Tungabhadra

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Gandikota Canyon is a natural gorge located in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh, in South India. The gorge was formed by the Pennar River, which flows through the rocky terrain and has carved out the stunning landscape over millions of years. The Pennar River is a major river in southern India that flows through Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, and Tamil Nadu, before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

The other rivers mentioned in the options are also major rivers in South India. The Cauvery River flows through the states of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala, while the Manjira River is a tributary of the Godavari River, which flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha. The Tungabhadra River is a tributary of the Krishna River, which flows through the states of Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.

25. Which of the following pairs correctly matches the peak with the corresponding mountain range?
(a) Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya
(b) Namcha Barwa – Kumaon Himalaya
(c) Nanda Devi – Sikkim Himalaya
(d) Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Ans: (B) Namcha Barwa – Kumaon Himalaya

Explanation: Namcha Barwa peak is located in the Kumaon Himalaya mountain range.

26. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?
(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
(c) Region along Persian Gulf and horn of Africa
(d) The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea

Ans: (A) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

Explanation: The term “Levant” refers to the region along the eastern Mediterranean shores, including countries such as Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Israel, and Palestine.

27. Which of the above countries have borders with Afghanistan?
(a) Azerbaijan
(b) Kyrgyzstan
(c) Tajikistan
(d) Turkmenistan
(e) Uzbekistan

Ans: (C) Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan only

Explanation: Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan are the countries that share borders with Afghanistan. Azerbaijan and Kyrgyzstan are not neighboring countries of Afghanistan.

28. Which of the statements given above about Monazite in India is/are correct?
(a) Monazite is a source of rare earths.
(b) Monazite contains thorium.
(c) Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
(d) In India, government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Ans: (B) 1, 2, and 4 only

Explanation: Monazite is a source of rare earths and contains thorium. It occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands. However, private entities can also process or export monazite in India, not just government bodies.

29. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:
(a) First half of the month of June
(b) Second half of the month of June
(c) First half of the month of July
(d) Second half of the month of July

Ans: (B) Second half of the month of June

Explanation: The summer solstice, which is the longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere, usually occurs around June 21st, which is in the second half of the month of June.

30. How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) Only three pairs
(d) All four pairs

Ans: (B) Only two pairs

Explanation: The correctly matched pairs are:

Hokera Wetland – Punjab

Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu

31. Which of the following are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1, 3, and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Ans: (D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation: All the listed platforms – Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DigiLocker, and DIKSHA – are built on top of open-source digital platforms.

32. With reference to Web 3.0, which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Ans: (D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation: All three statements about Web 3.0 are correct. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data, there can be blockchain-based social networks in a web 3.0 world, and Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

33. With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS),” which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Ans: (D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation: All three statements about Software as a Service (SaaS) are correct. SaaS buyers can customize the user interface and data fields, SaaS users can access their data through mobile devices, and Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo Mail are examples of SaaS.

34. Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in the media?
(a) A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
(b) A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
(c) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
(d) A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Ans: (C) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.

Explanation: The Fractional Orbital Bombardment System involves putting a missile into a stable orbit around the Earth and then deorbiting it over a target on the Earth, making it difficult to detect and intercept.

35. In which context is the term “qubit” mentioned?
(a) Cloud Services
(b) Quantum Computing
(c) Visible Light Communication Technologies
(d) Wireless Communication Technologies

Ans: (B) Quantum Computing

Explanation: The term “qubit” is mentioned in the context of Quantum Computing, where it represents the basic unit of information in a quantum computer, analogous to a bit in classical computing. Qubits can exist in multiple states simultaneously due to the principles of quantum mechanics, which is a key feature enabling quantum computing’s potential for parallel processing and solving complex problems.

Q36. Consider the following communication Technologies:

Closed-Circuit Television
Radio Frequency Identification
Wireless Local area Network

Which of the above are considered short-range devices/technologies?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
Short-range devices (SRDs) are low-power radio transmitters that operate over limited distances and pose minimal risk of interference with other radio services. All three technologies listed—Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV), Radio Frequency Identification (RFID), and Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)—fall under this category due to their limited transmission range, typically within a building or a small area.

CCTV systems often use wireless links for transmitting video signals within a confined space, such as a building or campus.
RFID is widely used for access control, inventory tracking, and contactless payments, with typical ranges from a few centimeters to several meters depending on the frequency and power.
WLAN, commonly known as Wi-Fi, operates within homes, offices, and public hotspots, generally covering 30–100 meters, making it a short-range communication technology.

These technologies are integral to local connectivity, security, and automation, and are regulated to ensure minimal interference with broader communication systems.

Q37. Consider the following statements:

Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
Biofilms are structured communities of microorganisms enclosed in a self-produced polymeric matrix that adhere to surfaces. They can form on medical implants such as catheters, prosthetic joints, and pacemakers, leading to persistent infections. In the food industry, biofilms develop on surfaces like cutting boards, conveyor belts, and packaging equipment, posing risks of contamination. Biofilms also exhibit antibiotic resistance due to their protective matrix and altered metabolic states, making treatment difficult. Their presence is linked to chronic infections, industrial fouling, and reduced sanitation efficiency, making them a major concern in healthcare and manufacturing.

Q38. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:

Probiotics are made both of bacteria and yeast.
The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:
Probiotics are live microorganisms, including bacteria (e.g. Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium) and yeasts (e.g. Saccharomyces boulardii), that confer health benefits when consumed. Many of these microbes are naturally present in the human gut, where they support digestion and immunity. They are also found in fermented foods like yogurt, kefir, and kimchi. Certain probiotic strains aid in the digestion of lactose, the sugar in milk, by producing lactase enzyme, which is especially beneficial for individuals with lactose intolerance. Probiotics also influence gut-brain signaling, immune modulation, and nutrient absorption, expanding their relevance beyond digestion.

Q39. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:
Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is based on a viral vector platform, not mRNA. It uses a chimpanzee adenovirus to deliver genetic material that triggers an immune response. Sputnik V, developed by Russia’s Gamaleya Institute, also uses a non-replicating adenoviral vector, employing two different human adenoviruses for its two doses. COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech, is an inactivated whole-virus vaccine, meaning the virus is killed but retains its ability to stimulate immunity. These platforms reflect different strategies: vector-based vaccines mimic infection, while inactivated vaccines offer safety with broad antigen exposure.

Q40. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

GPS and navigation systems could fail.
Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
Power grids could be damaged.
Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Answer: c

Explanation:
Solar storms, especially coronal mass ejections (CMEs) and solar flares, release high-energy particles and electromagnetic radiation that can disrupt GPS, navigation systems, and power grids. They cause intense auroras at lower latitudes due to charged particles interacting with Earth’s magnetic field. These storms can also disturb satellite orbits by increasing atmospheric drag and interfere with shortwave radio communication, especially over polar regions. However, they do not cause tsunamis or forest fires, as these are unrelated to solar activity. The primary impacts are technological, affecting infrastructure, aviation, and space operations.

Q41. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction Pledges of different countries is a:
a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
b) Wing of ‘International Panel of Climate Change’
c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer: a

Explanation:
The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis tool that tracks government climate action and compares it against the goals of the Paris Agreement. It is developed by a coalition of research organizations, including Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute. CAT evaluates national policies, targets, and pledges to assess whether countries are on track to limit global warming. It plays a key role in transparency, accountability, and policy benchmarking, especially during international climate negotiations.

Q42. Consider the following statements:

“The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: b

Explanation:
The Climate Group is an international non-profit that builds networks to accelerate climate action. It leads initiatives like EP100, which focuses on energy efficiency in business operations. EP100 is not launched by the International Energy Agency, making statement 2 incorrect. Indian companies such as Mahindra & Mahindra, Godrej Industries, and JSW Cement are part of EP100. The Under2 Coalition, a global network of subnational governments committed to climate goals, is coordinated by the Climate Group—not the IEA. These initiatives promote corporate responsibility, low-carbon innovation, and regional climate leadership.

Q43. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?
a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and Soil stabilization.
d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Answer: d

Explanation:
Wetlands act as natural filters, absorbing heavy metals, toxins, and excess nutrients from water, much like kidneys purify blood. This bioremediation function helps maintain water quality, supports biodiversity, and reduces pollution. Wetlands also regulate floods, store carbon, and support aquatic ecosystems. Their role in nutrient cycling and detoxification makes them critical for environmental health and climate resilience.

Q44. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 3 and 4
b) 1 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: b

Explanation:
The WHO Air Quality Guidelines recommend that PM2.5 levels should not exceed 15 µg/m³ (24-hour mean) and 5 µg/m³ (annual mean). Ozone pollution peaks during hot, sunny weather, not inclement conditions, making statement 2 incorrect. PM10 particles can enter the lungs but typically do not cross into the bloodstream—unlike PM2.5, which can penetrate deeper and affect multiple organs. Ozone is a known respiratory irritant and can trigger asthma, especially in children and vulnerable populations.

Q45. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

It is a fungus.
It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:
Gucchi, also known as Morel mushroom, is a rare and expensive wild fungus found in the Himalayan forests of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand. It is not commercially cultivated due to its complex growth requirements and dependence on specific climatic and soil conditions. Gucchi mushrooms are prized for their nutritional value, earthy flavor, and medicinal properties, including antioxidant and anti-inflammatory effects. Their scarcity and labor-intensive harvesting contribute to their high market value.

Q46. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 1 and 4
d) 2 and 3

Answer: a

Explanation:
Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is a versatile polymer used in textiles, packaging, and bottles. Its fibres are blended with cotton and wool to enhance durability, wrinkle resistance, and moisture control. PET bottles are highly recyclable, often repurposed into fibres, films, and containers. However, PET is not suitable for storing high-alcohol content beverages, especially under heat, due to chemical leaching risks. Incineration of PET releases toxic gases like dioxins and carbon dioxide, contributing to air pollution and greenhouse emissions.

Q47. Which of the following is not a bird?
a) Golden Mahseer
b) Indian Nightjar
c) Spoonbill
d) White Ibis

Answer: a

Explanation:
The Golden Mahseer is a freshwater fish found in Himalayan rivers and is known for its size, strength, and sport fishing appeal. It is not a bird. In contrast, the Indian Nightjar, Spoonbill, and White Ibis are all avian species known for their distinct habitats, feeding behaviors, and migratory patterns. The Mahseer is also a conservation priority due to habitat degradation and overfishing.

Q48. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

Alfalfa
Amaranth
Chickpea
Clover
Purslane (Kulfa)
Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 3 and 4 only
b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: a

Explanation:
Nitrogen-fixing plants form symbiotic relationships with Rhizobium bacteria in root nodules, converting atmospheric nitrogen into usable forms. Alfalfa, Chickpea, and Clover are classic examples of leguminous plants with nitrogen-fixing ability. Amaranth, Purslane, and Spinach do not fix nitrogen and rely on soil nutrients. These nitrogen-fixers improve soil fertility, reduce fertilizer dependence, and support sustainable agriculture.

Q49. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?
a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs
b) Development of building materials using plant residues
c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

Answer: a

Explanation:
Biorock technology is an innovative method used for the restoration of coral reefs and other marine ecosystems. It involves applying a low-voltage electric current to underwater metal structures, which causes minerals to precipitate and form a limestone coating. This structure promotes rapid coral growth, enhances resilience to stress, and supports marine biodiversity. Biorock has also been applied to seagrass beds, mangroves, and oyster reefs, making it a versatile tool in coastal ecosystem recovery.

Q50. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:
a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Answer: c

Explanation:
The Miyawaki method, developed by Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, is a technique for creating dense, fast-growing forests using native species. It involves planting trees close together in multiple layers—canopy, sub-canopy, shrubs, and ground cover—mimicking natural forest structure. These mini forests grow rapidly, require minimal maintenance after 2–3 years, and enhance urban biodiversity, carbon sequestration, and microclimate regulation. The method is increasingly used in urban greening projects across India and globally.

Q51. In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

Administration of Justice
Local Self-Government
Land Revenue
Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: c

Explanation:
Under the Dyarchy system introduced by the Government of India Act 1919, provincial subjects were split into Reserved and Transferred categories. Reserved subjects were administered by the Governor and his Executive Council and included Administration of Justice, Land Revenue, and Police. These were considered critical for maintaining law and order and fiscal control. Local Self-Government, along with education, public health, and agriculture, fell under Transferred subjects, managed by Indian ministers accountable to the legislature.

Q52. In medieval India, the term “Fanam” referred to:
a) Clothing
b) Coins
c) Ornaments
d) Weapons

Answer: b

Explanation:
Fanam was a small gold coin used in South India during medieval times. The term is derived from the Tamil word “Panam”, meaning money. Fanams were issued by various kingdoms including the Cholas, Vijayanagara Empire, and Madras Presidency. They were extremely lightweight, often weighing less than 0.5 grams, and were used in local trade and tax payments. Their design and weight varied across regions, reflecting the economic diversity of southern India.

Q53. Consider the following freedom fighters:

Barindra Kumar Ghosh
Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation:
The Ghadar Party, founded in 1913 in the USA, aimed to overthrow British rule in India through armed revolution. Rash Behari Bose played a key role in coordinating the Ghadar uprising in India, especially during the planned mutiny of 1915. He later escaped to Japan and became a prominent figure in the Indian independence movement abroad. Barindra Kumar Ghosh was associated with the Anushilan Samiti, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee with the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), but neither was directly involved with the Ghadar Party.

Q54. With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Explanation:
The Cripps Mission (1942) proposed the formation of a Constituent Assembly to frame India’s future constitution. Members from British Indian provinces were to be elected, while those from Princely States were to be nominated. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. Statement 2 is correct: the proposal allowed any province to opt out of the future Indian Union and sign a separate agreement with Britain. This provision was controversial and seen as a potential path to India’s fragmentation, contributing to the mission’s failure.

Q55. With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

Nettipakarana
Parishishtaparvan
Avadanashataka
Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Explanation:
Among the listed texts, Parishishtaparvan and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana are Jaina texts.

Parishishtaparvan, written by Acharya Hemachandra, chronicles the lives of Jain teachers.
Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana, by Acharya Jinasena, is a major Jain scripture detailing the lives of 63 great beings.
Nettipakarana and Avadanashataka are Buddhist texts. Nettipakarana is part of the Khuddaka Nikaya, and Avadanashataka is a collection of Buddhist legends.

Q56. With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs:

Aryadeva : Jaina scholar
Dignaga : Buddhist scholar
Nathamuni : Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) None of the pairs
b) Only one pair
c) Only two pairs
d) All three pairs

Answer: c

Explanation:
Aryadeva was a prominent Buddhist scholar, a disciple of Nagarjuna, and a key figure in the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism. So, pair 1 is incorrect.
Dignaga was a Buddhist logician and epistemologist, known for his work Pramanasamuccaya. He laid the foundation for Buddhist logic and debate traditions. So, pair 2 is correct.
Nathamuni was a Vaishnava theologian and the first Sri Vaishnava acharya, credited with compiling the Nalayira Divya Prabandham. So, pair 3 is correct.

Q57. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

The first Mongol Invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:
The first Mongol invasion of India occurred in 1221, during the reign of Iltutmish, not Jalal-ud-din Khalji. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
During Ala-ud-din Khalji’s reign, Mongols led by Duwa Khan attacked Delhi in 1303, reaching its outskirts and laying siege. So, statement 2 is correct.
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq faced Mongol threats but did not lose territory to them; instead, he managed to repel their advances. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

Q58. With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?
a) Arab merchants
b) Qalandars
c) Persian calligraphists
d) Sayyids

Answer: d

Explanation:
The term “Kulah-Daran” refers to Sayyids, who wore a distinctive pointed cap (kulah) as a symbol of their lineage from the Prophet Muhammad. This distinguished them from other theologians who wore turbans and were called Dastar-bandan. The Sayyids held significant religious and social status during the Delhi Sultanate period.

Q59. With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:
The Dutch established factories at Masulipatnam, Pulicat, and Chinsura, but not on lands granted by Gajapati rulers, who ruled Odisha and were not active during the Dutch arrival. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa in 1510 from the Bijapur Sultanate, ruled by the Adil Shahi dynasty. So, statement 2 is correct.
In 1639, the English East India Company established a factory at Madras (Fort St. George) on land leased from Darmala Venkatadri Nayaka, a representative of the Vijayanagara Empire. So, statement 3 is correct.

Q60. According to Kautilya’s Arthashastra, which of the following are correct?

A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
The Arthashastra outlines various ways a person could become a slave, including judicial punishment. So, statement 1 is correct.
If a female slave bore her master a son, she was granted freedom, and the son was considered legitimate, entitled to the status of the master’s son. These provisions reflect early legal recognition of rights for slaves and their offspring in ancient India. So, statements 2 and 3 are also correct.

Q61. Consider the following statements:

Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Explanation:
A tight monetary policy by the US Federal Reserve raises interest rates, attracting global capital and causing capital flight from emerging markets like India. So, statement 1 is correct.
Capital flight increases the cost of borrowing for Indian firms with ECBs, as they face higher interest rates and reduced access to foreign funds. So, statement 2 is correct.
However, devaluation of the domestic currency increases the currency risk for ECBs, as firms must repay more in rupee terms. So, statement 3 is incorrect.

Q62. Consider the following States:

Andhra Pradesh
Kerala
Himachal Pradesh
Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?
a) Only one State
b) Only two States
c) Only three States
d) All four States

Answer: c

Explanation:
Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, and Tripura are recognized tea-producing states.

Kerala has plantations in Munnar and Wayanad.
Himachal Pradesh produces tea in Kangra Valley.
Tripura has a long history of tea cultivation alongside Assam.
Andhra Pradesh, however, is known more for coffee cultivation, especially in the Araku Valley, and not for tea.

Q63. Consider the following statements:

In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:
Credit rating agencies in India are regulated by SEBI, not the Reserve Bank of India, making statement 1 incorrect.
ICRA is a public limited company, listed on Indian stock exchanges, and provides credit ratings, research, and risk analysis.
Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency headquartered in Bengaluru, offering services across debt instruments and financial products. These agencies play a vital role in capital markets, investor confidence, and risk assessment.

Q64. With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct?

The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Explanation:
The Banks Board Bureau (BBB) is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Finance, not chaired by the RBI Governor, so statement 1 is incorrect.
BBB recommends candidates for top management positions in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions (FIs).
It also assists PSBs in developing strategies, raising capital, and improving governance standards, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

Q65. With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements:

As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:
Convertible bonds offer investors the option to convert debt into equity shares, typically at a predetermined rate. Because of this conversion feature, they pay a lower interest rate than regular bonds.
The ability to convert into equity provides indexation benefits, as equity values often rise with inflation, offering a hedge against consumer price increases. These instruments are popular in growth sectors and venture financing.

Q66. Consider the following:

Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
Missile Technology Control Regime
Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
India is a founding member of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), which focuses on sustainable infrastructure development.
India joined the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) in 2016, gaining access to advanced missile technology and strengthening its strategic position.
India became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) in 2017, enhancing its role in regional security, economic cooperation, and counterterrorism. All three memberships reflect India’s multilateral engagement strategy.

Q67. Consider the following statements:

Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
Vietnam is led by a multi-party-political system.
Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
For a long time, Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 2 and 4
b) 3 and 5
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1 and 2

Answer: c

Explanation:
Vietnam has shown rapid economic growth, driven by export-oriented manufacturing, foreign investment, and integration into global supply chains.
Its low labour costs and stable currency have made it attractive to global manufacturers, especially in electronics and textiles.
However, Vietnam is governed by a single-party system led by the Communist Party, not a multi-party democracy.
Its e-service sector is growing but not the most productive in the Indo-Pacific, making statements 1, 3, and 4 correct.

Q68. In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?
a) Department of Consumer Affairs
b) Expenditure Management Commission
c) Financial Stability and Development Council
d) Reserve Bank of India

Answer: d

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is mandated under the RBI Act, 1934 to conduct monetary policy with the primary objective of price stability.
It uses tools like repo rate, reverse repo, CRR, and open market operations to manage inflation and ensure economic growth.
The inflation targeting framework, adopted in 2016, further formalized RBI’s role in maintaining consumer price index (CPI) within a defined range.

Q69. With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements:

They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Explanation:
NFTs (Non-Fungible Tokens) are unique digital assets stored on a blockchain, representing ownership of items like art, music, or physical assets.
They are non-interchangeable, meaning each token has a distinct value, unlike cryptocurrencies which are fungible.
NFTs cannot be traded at equivalency, so they are not suitable as a medium of exchange. Their value is determined by market demand, rarity, and creator reputation.

Q70. Consider the following pairs:
Reservoirs — States

Ghataprabha — Telangana
Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh
Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh
Maithon — Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer: c

Explanation:

Ghataprabha is in Karnataka, not Telangana.
Gandhi Sagar is correctly located in Madhya Pradesh.
Indira Sagar is also in Madhya Pradesh, not Andhra Pradesh.
Maithon is in Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh.

Thus, pairs 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect. Only Gandhi Sagar is correctly matched.

Q71. In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?
a) Central Statistics Office
b) Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
c) Labour Bureau
d) National Technical Manpower Information System

Answer: c

Explanation:
The Labour Bureau, under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, is responsible for compiling and analyzing data on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in India. It collects monthly returns from state labour departments and regional labour commissioners. This data supports policy formulation, labour law enforcement, and employment trend analysis.

Q72. In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)?

CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: a

Explanation:
The Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) functions under the Ministry of Coal and is the designated statistical authority for coal and lignite. It compiles coal statistics, monitors captive block development, and acts as the competent authority under the Coal Bearing Areas (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957 to hear objections. However, it does not oversee coal delivery timelines, which are managed by other regulatory bodies.

Q73. If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Answer: a

Explanation:
The Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes. It empowers the Governor to restrict or regulate the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals, ensuring protection of tribal rights and land ownership. It does not create Union Territories or confer special category status.

Q74. Consider the following statements:

The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Explanation:
The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is a multi-stakeholder platform hosted by FICCI, not funded by the Government or WHO. It promotes safe and sustainable sanitation through partnerships and advocacy.
The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is an autonomous research and policy institute under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, providing urban planning solutions, capacity building, and policy support.

Q75. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a) Central Water Commission
b) Central Ground Water Board
c) Central Ground Water Authority
d) National Water Development Agency

Answer: c

Explanation:
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) was constituted under Section 3(3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control the development and management of groundwater resources. It issues guidelines, permits, and regulatory directions. The other bodies listed are not constituted under this Act.

Q76. With reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:

It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 2

Answer: a

Explanation:
The UN Credentials Committee is appointed by the General Assembly, not the Security Council. It meets during the annual session of the General Assembly, typically in November, not multiple times a year. Its role is to examine credentials of member states and report to the General Assembly, ensuring representation legitimacy.

Q77. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer: a

Explanation:
The Polar Code, adopted by the International Maritime Organization (IMO), sets mandatory safety and environmental standards for ships operating in polar waters. It covers design, construction, equipment, training, and pollution prevention. It is not a territorial or trade agreement.

Q78. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
The UN General Assembly grants observer status to non-member states, inter-governmental organizations, and entities. Observers may participate in debates but do not vote. They can maintain permanent missions at the UN headquarters, facilitating diplomatic engagement and policy dialogue.

Q79. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

The Tea Board is a statutory body.
It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3
b) 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4
d) 1 and 4

Answer: d

Explanation:
The Tea Board of India is a statutory body established under the Tea Act, 1953, functioning under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Agriculture. Its head office is in Kolkata, and it has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow to promote tea exports and international trade.

Q80. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

Answer: a

Explanation:
Greenwashing refers to the practice of misleading consumers by falsely claiming that a product or company is environmentally friendly. It involves marketing tactics that exaggerate or fabricate sustainability credentials, undermining genuine environmental efforts and consumer trust.

Q81. Consider the following statements:

High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation:
High clouds, such as cirrus, are thin and allow most solar radiation to pass through, but they trap outgoing infrared radiation, contributing to a warming effect.
Low clouds, like stratus, are thicker and more reflective, bouncing back solar radiation and causing a cooling effect.
Thus, both statements are incorrect. The net radiative effect of clouds depends on their altitude, thickness, and composition, influencing climate models and weather predictions.

Q82. Consider the following statements:

Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: c

Explanation:
Bidibidi is one of the world’s largest refugee settlements, located in north-western Uganda, not Kenya. It hosts refugees primarily from South Sudan, making statement 2 correct and statement 1 incorrect.
Dadaab, located in Kenya, is a long-established refugee complex that shelters people fleeing the Somalia civil war, especially since the 1990s.
These settlements reflect the regional humanitarian response to conflict-induced displacement in East Africa.

Q83. Consider the following countries:

Armenia
Azerbaijan
Croatia
Romania
Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 1 and 3
c) 2 and 5
d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: c

Explanation:
The Organization of Turkic States includes countries with Turkic linguistic and cultural heritage.
Azerbaijan and Uzbekistan are full members.
Armenia, Croatia, and Romania are not members, as they do not share Turkic roots.
Other members include Turkey, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, and observer states like Hungary and Turkmenistan.
The organization promotes economic, cultural, and strategic cooperation among Turkic nations.

Q84. Consider the following statements:

Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:
The largest solar park in India is Bhadla Solar Park, located in Rajasthan, not Gujarat.
Cochin International Airport in Kerala is the world’s first fully solar-powered airport, making statement 2 correct.
The largest floating solar project is located at Simhadri reservoir in Andhra Pradesh, not Goa.
These developments highlight India’s push toward renewable energy infrastructure and climate-smart innovation.

Q85. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines maritime boundaries and rights.

A territorial sea can extend up to 12 nautical miles from the baseline.
All states, including landlocked nations, have the right of innocent passage through territorial seas.
The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) extends up to 200 nautical miles, granting rights over resources, exploration, and conservation.
These provisions are central to maritime sovereignty, resource management, and international navigation rights.

Q86. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?
a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
d) Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Answer: b

Explanation:
The Senkaku Islands, known as Diaoyu Islands in China, are located in the East China Sea and are administered by Japan.
China claims historical rights over them, leading to maritime disputes, naval patrols, and diplomatic tensions.
These uninhabited islands are strategically significant due to fishing zones, oil reserves, and shipping lanes, making them a focal point in regional geopolitics.

Q87. Consider the following pairs:
Country — Reason for being in the news

Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China
Guinea — Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
Lebanon — Severe and prolonged economic depression
Tunisia — Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer: c

Explanation:

Chad was in the news for internal political transitions, not for a Chinese military base.
Guinea experienced a military coup that suspended its constitution.
Lebanon is undergoing a deep economic crisis, with hyperinflation and currency collapse.
Tunisia’s President dissolved Parliament amid political unrest.
Thus, pairs 2, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

Q88. Consider the following pairs:
Region — Country

Anatolia — Turkey
Amhara — Ethiopia
Cabo Delgado — Spain
Catalonia — Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer: b

Explanation:

Anatolia is the Asian part of Turkey, historically known as Asia Minor.
Amhara is a region in Ethiopia, often in the news due to ethnic conflict.
Cabo Delgado is in Mozambique, not Spain.
Catalonia is an autonomous region in Spain, not Italy.
So, pairs 1 and 2 are correct.

Q89. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only

Answer: a

Explanation:
Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, all wild animals are considered government property.
Once declared protected, an animal receives equal legal protection regardless of its location.
However, mere apprehension of danger is not sufficient for capture or killing; it must be certified by the Chief Wildlife Warden.
This framework ensures species conservation and legal safeguards against arbitrary harm.

Q90. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?
a) Ant
b) Cockroach
c) Crab
d) Spider

Answer: a

Explanation:
Certain species of ants, especially leaf-cutter ants, are known for cultivating fungi in underground chambers. These ants collect leaves, chew them into mulch, and use them as a substrate to grow mutualistic fungi, which they feed on. The fungi are domesticated, relying entirely on the ants for propagation. This behavior is a form of agriculture, making ants the only known non-human organisms to practice fungal farming at scale.

Q91. Consider the following pairs:

Dhauli – Odisha
Erragudi – Andhra Pradesh
Jaugada – Madhya Pradesh
Kalsi – Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer: b

Explanation:

Dhauli is located in Odisha, known for Ashoka’s rock edicts after the Kalinga war.
Erragudi is in Andhra Pradesh, another site of Ashokan inscriptions.
Jaugada is also in Odisha, not Madhya Pradesh.
Kalsi is in Uttarakhand, not Karnataka.
Thus, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Q92. Consider the following pairs:

Nannuka – Chandela
Jayashakti – Paramara
Nagabhata II – Gurjara-Pratihara
Bhoja – Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs

Answer: b

Explanation:

Nannuka was the founder of the Chandela dynasty.
Jayashakti belonged to the Chandela dynasty, not Paramara.
Nagabhata II was a ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.
Bhoja was a famous king of the Paramara dynasty, not Rashtrakuta.
So, pairs 1 and 3 are correct.

Q93. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?
a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Answer: b

Explanation:
Sangam literature, composed between 300 BCE and 300 CE, reflects a rich material culture, including trade, agriculture, and urban life. It also emphasizes warrior ethics, heroism, and clan loyalty. The concept of Varna was known, though not rigidly applied. The Tolkappiyam, a grammar text, refers to four social types, showing awareness of social stratification. Magical forces were often integrated into cultural beliefs, not dismissed as irrational.

Q94. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:
a) Akbar
b) Humayun
c) Shahjahan
d) Aurangzeb

Answer: a

Explanation:
During Akbar’s reign, many Sanskrit texts were translated into Persian as part of his cultural integration policy. Nizamuddin Panipati translated the Yogavasistha, a philosophical text attributed to Valmiki, into Persian. This reflects Akbar’s interest in interfaith dialogue, intellectual exchange, and translation movements under the Maktab Khana initiative.

Q95. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?
a) The best means of salvation was devotion.
b) Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
c) Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
d) Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

Answer: a

Explanation:
Ramanuja, a 11th-century philosopher and theologian, was a key proponent of Vishishtadvaita Vedanta. He emphasized bhakti (devotion) as the supreme path to salvation, integrating scriptural authority with personal devotion to Lord Vishnu. His teachings inspired the Sri Vaishnava tradition and laid the foundation for the Bhakti movement across India.

Q96. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: a

Explanation:

Somnath Temple is the first among the 12 Jyotirlingas of Lord Shiva.
Al-Biruni, the Persian scholar, described the temple and its destruction by Mahmud of Ghazni.
The Pran Pratishtha of the reconstructed temple was done by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, not S. Radhakrishnan.
So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q97. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?
a) They protect the body from environmental allergens.
b) They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
c) They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
d) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Answer: d

Explanation:
B cells and T cells are key components of the adaptive immune system.

B cells produce antibodies that neutralize pathogens.
T cells destroy infected cells and regulate immune responses.
Together, they provide long-term immunity, pathogen recognition, and immune memory, forming the basis of vaccination and disease resistance.

Q98. Consider the following statements:

Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in manufacture of some cosmetics.
Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
Nanoparticles occur naturally in volcanic ash, ocean spray, and biological processes, making statement 1 incorrect.
Metallic oxide nanoparticles, like zinc oxide and titanium dioxide, are used in sunscreens and cosmetics for UV protection.
Some nanoparticles from industrial products can be toxic, entering the lungs, bloodstream, and even organs, raising concerns about environmental safety and regulation.

Q99. Consider the following statements:
DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

assess the age of a plant or animal.
distinguish among species that look alike.
identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 2
d) 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation:
DNA barcoding uses short genetic sequences to identify species, especially those that are morphologically similar.
It is widely used in food safety to detect adulteration or contamination by unwanted biological materials.
It does not assess age, making statement 1 incorrect.
This technique supports biodiversity monitoring, forensic analysis, and quality control.

Q100. Consider the following:

Carbon monoxide
Nitrogen oxide
Ozone
Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 4 only
d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: b

Explanation:
Acid rain is primarily caused by the presence of nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and sulphur dioxide (SO₂) in the atmosphere. These gases are released from the burning of fossil fuels in power plants, vehicles, and industrial processes. Once airborne, they react with water vapor, oxygen, and other chemicals to form nitric acid and sulphuric acid, which then fall to the ground as precipitation.

Carbon monoxide (CO) is a toxic gas but does not contribute to acid rain formation.
Ozone (O₃) is a secondary pollutant involved in smog formation and respiratory issues but not in acid rain chemistry.
Nitrogen oxide and sulphur dioxide are the key precursors to acid rain, affecting soil pH, aquatic ecosystems, and building materials.

Acid rain has long-term ecological impacts, including nutrient leaching, forest decline, and damage to historical monuments.

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