Q.1 Consider the following types of vehicles:
I. Full battery Electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles
How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All the three
d) None
Correct Answer: c) All the three
Explanation: An alternative powertrain vehicle refers to a vehicle that uses energy sources other than the conventional internal combustion engine powered by petrol or diesel.
Full battery electric vehicles operate entirely on electricity stored in batteries, making them a zero-emission and environmentally friendly alternative to traditional vehicles.
Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce electricity through a chemical reaction between hydrogen and oxygen, emitting only water vapor. These are considered clean energy vehicles.
Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles combine the use of hydrogen fuel cells and electric batteries, increasing efficiency and reducing emissions.
Since all three types do not depend on fossil fuels and utilize cleaner, sustainable energy technologies, they are all classified as alternative powertrain vehicles.
Q.2 With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:
I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.
II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.
III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All the three
d) None
Correct answer: d) None
Explanation: All three statements given are incorrect.
The first statement is incorrect because not all types of UAVs can perform vertical landing. Only certain types, such as rotary-wing UAVs (like quadcopters) or specially designed VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) drones, can land vertically. Fixed-wing UAVs, which resemble airplanes, usually require a runway or catapult for takeoff and landing.
The second statement is also incorrect because automated hovering is possible only for rotary-wing UAVs and not for fixed-wing UAVs, which require continuous forward movement to stay airborne and cannot hover in one place.
The third statement is incorrect as well because UAVs can be powered by different energy sources, including internal combustion engines, gasoline, jet fuel, and solar power, especially in the case of larger or long-endurance UAVs used in military or commercial applications. Hence, none of the statements is correct.
Q.3 In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:
I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel
How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All the four
Correct answer: c) Only three
Explanation: Electric vehicle (EV) batteries typically use a combination of materials in their cathodes and anodes. The cathode is the positive electrode in a lithium-ion battery and plays a key role in determining battery performance, capacity, and safety. Among the elements listed, cobalt, lithium, and nickel are commonly used in the cathodes of EV batteries. For example, widely used battery chemistries like NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum) include these three elements.
Graphite, on the other hand, is not used in the cathode but is the most common material used in the anode, which is the negative electrode. Therefore, only three of the elements listed—cobalt, lithium, and nickel—usually make up battery cathodes.
Q.4 Consider the following:
I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres
How many of them contain plastic?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All the three
d) None
Correct answer: c) All the three
Solution: All three items listed contain plastic components. Cigarette butts, although often mistaken for cotton or paper, actually contain cellulose acetate, a type of plastic that is slow to degrade in the environment. Eyeglass lenses are commonly made from polycarbonate or other plastic polymers instead of glass, especially in modern lightweight and impact-resistant designs.
Car tyres, while largely made from rubber, also include synthetic polymers such as styrene-butadiene rubber (SBR), which is a plastic-based material added to enhance durability and performance. Therefore, all three—cigarette butts, eyeglass lenses, and car tyres—contain plastic.
Q.5 Consider the following substances:
I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea
Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All the three
d) None
Correct answer: c) All the three
Explanation: Coal gasification is a technology that converts coal into syngas, which primarily contains hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and carbon dioxide. This syngas serves as a building block for a variety of chemical processes.
Ethanol can be produced synthetically from syngas through catalytic conversion, although it is more commonly made via fermentation.
Urea is synthesized from ammonia and carbon dioxide, and ammonia can be produced from hydrogen derived through coal gasification, making urea production possible via this route.
Nitroglycerine, which is made from glycerol and nitric acid, may not appear directly connected to coal, but the nitric acid used in its production can be derived from ammonia, and ammonia can be produced using hydrogen sourced from coal gasification.
Therefore, coal gasification can contribute indirectly or directly to the production of all three substances.
Q.6 What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
a) These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
b) These are explosives in military weapons
c) These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
d) These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Correct answer: b) These are explosives in military weapons
Explanation: CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive or Octogen), and LLM-105 (1-Oxidino-3,5-dinitro-1,2,4-triazole) are all high-energy explosives used primarily in military applications. These substances are known for their powerful explosive performance, stability, and effectiveness in modern munitions. CL-20 is one of the most energetic non-nuclear explosives developed and is often mentioned as a potential replacement for other military-grade explosives. HMX is widely used in detonators and warheads. LLM-105 is a newer generation of insensitive high explosives with a focus on safety and performance. Thus, the common feature is that they are explosives used in military weapons.
Q.7 Consider the following statements:
I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.
II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).
III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I and III only
d) I, II and III
Correct answer: c) I and III only
Explanation: The Majorana 1 chip is associated with quantum computing research and is named after Majorana fermions, which are theoretical particles being explored for use in topological quantum computers. Companies like Microsoft are known to be working on such technology, not Amazon Web Services (AWS). Therefore, statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.
Statement III is correct because deep learning is indeed a subset of machine learning that uses artificial neural networks with multiple layers to model complex patterns in data. Hence, only statements I and III are correct.
Q.8 With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:
I. They are man-made proteins.
II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.
III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I and III only
d) I, II and III
Correct answer: d) I, II and III
Explanation: Monoclonal antibodies are artificially created proteins that mimic the immune system’s ability to fight off harmful pathogens. Hence, statement I is correct. These antibodies are designed to bind to specific antigens, such as those found on viruses or cancer cells, which allows them to stimulate or modify immune responses, making statement II correct as well. In recent years, monoclonal antibody therapies have been developed to treat several viral infections, including Ebola and Nipah virus, where they have shown promising results in neutralizing the virus and aiding recovery, confirming that statement III is also correct. Therefore, all three statements are correct.
Q.9 Consider the following statements:
I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.
II. No virus can infect bacteria.
III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All the three
d) None
Correct answer: d) None
Explanation: All three statements are incorrect. Statement I is incorrect because many viruses can survive in ocean waters. In fact, oceans are filled with marine viruses, especially bacteriophages, which infect marine bacteria and play a major role in controlling microbial populations and nutrient cycles. Statement II is incorrect because viruses that infect bacteria are well-known and are called bacteriophages. These are widely studied and even used in experimental therapies (phage therapy). Statement III is also incorrect because viruses do change the cellular transcriptional activity of host cells. When a virus infects a cell, it often hijacks the cell’s machinery to transcribe and replicate its own genetic material, altering normal cellular processes. Therefore, none of the statements are correct, making option d) None the right answer.
Q.10 Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.
Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.
Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Correct answer: a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation: Activated carbon is widely used in environmental applications due to its large surface area, porous structure, and strong adsorption capacity, especially for removing organic pollutants and heavy metals from wastewater. This supports Statement II, which helps explain why activated carbon is effective in pollutant removal as mentioned in Statement I.
Additionally, Statement III is also correct because activated carbon can be easily produced from a variety of carbon-rich waste materials, such as coconut shells, sawdust, and agricultural residues, making it a cost-effective and sustainable solution. Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct and they both explain Statement I.
Q.11 Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from the cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.
Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.
Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Correct answer: b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Explanation:
Statement I is correct — the cement industry is a major contributor to global carbon dioxide emissions, responsible for more than 5% of total emissions.
Statement II is correct — silica-bearing clay is indeed mixed with limestone during the raw material preparation stage in cement manufacturing. However, this step is a part of the material preparation and does not directly lead to CO₂ emissions, so it does not explain Statement I.
Statement III is also correct — during clinker production, limestone (calcium carbonate) undergoes calcination, a chemical process where it is heated and converted into lime (calcium oxide), releasing carbon dioxide in the process. This step is one of the main sources of CO₂ emissions in the cement industry and directly explains Statement I.
Therefore, both Statement II and Statement III are correct, but only Statement III explains the high carbon emissions mentioned in Statement I.
Q.12 Consider the following statements:
Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.
Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize the health sector.
Statement III: If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Correct answer: c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. India did not sign the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’ at COP28.
Statement II is incorrect because the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a non-binding declaration. It encourages action but does not impose any legal obligation or mandate on countries to decarbonize their health sectors.
Statement III is correct. One of the reasons cited for India’s hesitation was the concern that decarbonizing the health sector, especially in resource-limited areas, might compromise its resilience. For example, reducing emissions from health infrastructure could affect cold chains or power-dependent equipment in underserved regions.
Q.13 Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.
Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with a tremendous amount of energy.
Statement III: As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Correct answer: b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. Scientific studies have shown that Earth’s axis and rotation are shifting, a phenomenon known as polar wander or true polar drift. This is partly due to mass redistribution on Earth’s surface, such as melting ice and groundwater depletion.
Statement II is correct, as solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) do release massive amounts of energy into the Earth’s upper atmosphere, but they do not significantly affect the planet’s rotation or axis. Their main effects are on satellites, communications, and power grids, not on Earth’s physical spin.
Statement III is also correct, and it does explain Statement I. As polar ice melts due to global warming, water redistributes toward the equator, changing Earth’s mass distribution, which affects its rotational axis. This process has been documented by studies using satellite data such as from NASA’s GRACE mission.
Therefore, both Statement II and III are correct, but only Statement III explains Statement I. Hence, the correct answer is b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.
Q.14 Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.
Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.
Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Correct answer: a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation:
Statement I is correct because Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is a key focus in international climate negotiations, especially in the context of sustainable development, carbon markets, and collaborative efforts to reduce emissions.
Statement II is correct because Article 6 outlines the principles of international carbon markets, including mechanisms that allow countries to trade emission reductions through cooperative approaches, thereby achieving cost-effective mitigation outcomes.
Statement III is also correct because Article 6.8 of the Paris Agreement explicitly refers to non-market approaches, encouraging countries to engage in collaborative strategies that do not involve carbon trading, such as technology sharing, capacity building, and climate finance.
Since both Statement II and III accurately describe aspects of Article 6 and both help explain why it is frequently discussed in global climate and sustainability forums, the correct answer is a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.
Q.15 Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?
a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
b) The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
c) The New Development Bank (NDB)
d) The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Correct Answer: a) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Explanation: The Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific was launched by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) during COP28 in 2023. This initiative aims to scale up investments in nature-based solutions to address climate change and biodiversity challenges in the Asia-Pacific region. It seeks to mobilize at least USD 2 billion for projects that protect and restore ecosystems while contributing to sustainable development.
Q.16 With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.
II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.
III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) I and II only
b) III only
c) I, II and III
d) None of the above statements is correct
Correct Answer: c) I, II and III
Explanation: Direct Air Capture (DAC) is a technology that removes carbon dioxide (CO₂) directly from the atmosphere. It is considered a form of carbon sequestration because the captured CO₂ can either be stored underground or utilized in other industrial applications. Therefore, statement I is correct.
The captured CO₂ can also be used in the production of plastics, carbonated beverages, and in food processing, which supports statement II.
In the aviation sector, DAC provides a source of CO₂ that can be combined with hydrogen to create synthetic fuels, offering a pathway to reduce emissions from hard-to-abate sectors like aviation. Hence, statement III is also correct. All three statements accurately describe the potential applications of Direct Air Capture technology.
Q.17 Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:
I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.
II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.
III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I only
b) I and III
c) II only
d) II and III
Correct Answer: d) II and III
Explanation: The Peacock tarantula, also known as the Gooty tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica), is a species of spider, not a crustacean, and therefore statement I is incorrect. It is not omnivorous, as it primarily preys on insects and other small animals. This species is native to a very limited forest area in Andhra Pradesh, India, and is considered endangered due to habitat loss. Thus, statement II is correct. In its natural habitat, it is arboreal, meaning it lives in trees and uses its agility and silk-spinning ability to navigate and build shelters in the forest canopy, making statement III also correct. Therefore, the correct answer is d) II and III.
Q.18 Consider the following statements:
I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂ per capita.
II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in the Asia–Pacific region.
III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I and III only
b) II only
c) II and III only
d) I, II and III
Correct Answer: c) II and III only
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. India’s CO₂ emissions per capita are much higher than 0.5 tonnes—current estimates 4.7 tonnes per person.
Statement II is correct. India ranks second in the Asia–Pacific region for CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, after China.
Statement III is also correct. The electricity and heat production sector (dominated by coal-fired power plants) is the largest single source of CO₂ emissions in India, accounting for over 50% of energy-related CO₂ .
Q.19 Consider the following pairs:
Plant — Description
I. Cassava : Woody shrub
II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint : Annual shrub
V. Papaya : Woody shrub
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All the five
Correct Answer: b) Only three
Explanation:
Cassava is correctly described as a woody shrub, cultivated for its starchy tuberous roots.
Ginger is an herb that forms a pseudostem from the rolled bases of its leaves.
Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climber, commonly grown as a leafy vegetable.
Mint is not an annual shrub, it is a perennial herb, and it does not develop woody stems.
Papaya is also not a woody shrub; it is a giant herbaceous plant because it lacks true woody tissue.
Therefore, only three pairs (I, II, and III) are correctly matched.
Q.20 With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.
II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of the world’s oxygen.
III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I and II
b) II only
c) I and III
d) None of the above statements is correct
Correct Answer: b) II only
Explanation:
Statement I is incorrect. While rainforests, especially the Amazon, are important oxygen producers, oceans actually produce more oxygen than terrestrial ecosystems. This is due to the presence of marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic microorganisms, which contribute significantly to global oxygen production.
Statement II is correct. It is estimated that marine phytoplankton, algae, and cyanobacteria contribute about 50% or more of the Earth’s oxygen through photosynthesis.
Statement III is incorrect. Well-oxygenated surface water does contain dissolved oxygen, but it is much less than the oxygen concentration in atmospheric air. Air contains about 21% oxygen, while even saturated surface water typically contains less than 1% oxygen by volume.
Therefore, only Statement II is correct.
Q.21 Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.
II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: c) Both I and II
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was deeply influenced by ancient Indian philosophy, especially the Upanishads, and he had a strong admiration for Vedantic thought. While he opposed certain regressive social practices, he retained a deep respect for India’s traditional spiritual and philosophical heritage.
Statement II is also correct. He was a strong advocate of rationalism, scientific thinking, and social reform. He promoted human dignity, equality, women’s rights, and abolition of practices like Sati. He wanted Indians to embrace modern, liberal values rooted in reason and justice, along with their cultural heritage.
Thus, both statements are correct.
Q.22 Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:
I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth
II. Observance of strict non-violence
III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public
IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes
How many of the above were parts of the Non-Cooperation Programme?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All the four
Correct Answer: c) Only three
Explanation:
Statement I is correct. The boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth was a central part of the Non-Cooperation Programme launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920.
Statement II is correct. Strict adherence to non-violence (Ahimsa) was a fundamental principle of the movement, as it was based on peaceful resistance and civil disobedience.
Statement III is incorrect. The programme called for the renunciation of titles and honours conferred by the British Government, not their retention—even privately.
Statement IV is correct. The establishment of Panchayats to resolve local disputes independently of British courts was encouraged as part of building Swaraj (self-rule) from the grassroots.
Hence, only statements I, II, and IV were part of the programme.
Q.23 The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was
a) a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley.
b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes.
c) a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks.
d) a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand.
Correct Answer: b) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
Explanation: The Araghatta was an ancient Indian irrigation device that functioned as a water-lifting wheel. It consisted of a large vertical wheel with earthen pots or containers tied to the ends of its spokes. As the wheel rotated—often powered by animal or human effort—the pots dipped into the water source, filled up, and emptied the water into irrigation channels when they reached the top. This system enabled continuous lifting and distribution of water to agricultural fields.
Q.24 Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’, and ‘Gunabhara’?
a) Mahendravarman I
b) Simhavishnu
c) Narasimhavarman I
d) Simhavarman
Correct Answer: a) Mahendravarman I
Explanation: Mahendravarman I, a prominent ruler of the Pallava dynasty in the 7th century CE, was not only a powerful king but also a patron of art, literature, and architecture. He assumed several honorific titles, like:
- Mattavilasa (Lover of intoxicated play),
- Vichitrachitta (Curious-minded or one with a varied intellect), and
- Gunabhara (One who is full of virtues).
He was also the author of the Sanskrit play Mattavilasa Prahasana, a satirical drama. His reign marked a flourishing period of temple architecture and literary activity in South India.
Q.25 Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
a) Samudragupta
b) Chandragupta II
c) Kumaragupta I
d) Skandagupta
Correct Answer: b) Chandragupta II
Explanation: Fa-hien (Faxian) was a Chinese Buddhist pilgrim who traveled to India in the early 5th century CE to collect Buddhist texts and observe the monastic practices. He arrived in India around 399 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II, one of the most celebrated rulers of the Gupta Empire.
Fa-hien’s travel accounts provide valuable insights into the social, religious, and economic conditions of India during Gupta rule. He praised the country for its peace, prosperity, and religious tolerance, particularly highlighting the flourishing state of Buddhism.
Q.26) Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
a) Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
b) Prataparudra (Kakatiya)
c) Rajendra I (Chola)
d) Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Correct Answer: c) Rajendra I (Chola)
Explanation:
Rajendra I, the son of Rajaraja Chola I, led a remarkable naval expedition in 1025 CE against the Srivijaya Empire, a dominant maritime power in Southeast Asia that controlled trade in the region. His campaign marked the first major overseas military venture by an Indian ruler and demonstrated the naval strength of the Cholas.
Rajendra’s forces attacked Srivijaya’s ports in Sumatra and Malaya, weakening its monopoly over maritime trade. This successful campaign significantly enhanced the Chola Empire’s prestige and influence across the Bay of Bengal.
Q.27 With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:
| Territorial Region | River Flowing in the Region |
|---|---|
| I. Asmaka | Godavari |
| II. Kamboja | Vipas |
| III. Avanti | Mahanadi |
| IV. Kosala | Sarayu |
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All the four
Ans: B. Only two
Solution:
Asmaka was a Mahajanapada located in the Deccan region, along the Godavari River, Hence I is correctly matched.
Kosala – Sarayu is also a correct match, as Kosala was centered around Ayodhya in eastern Uttar Pradesh and situated along the Sarayu River.
However, the match Kamboja – Vipas (Beas) is incorrect. Kamboja was located in the north-western frontier of the Indian subcontinent, likely in the region of present-day Afghanistan or Pakistan.
The Vipas or Beas River flows further east and does not pass through the Kamboja region. Likewise, the match Avanti – Mahanadi is also incorrect.
Avanti was centered around Ujjain in western Madhya Pradesh and was located along the Narmada River, not the Mahanadi, which flows through present-day Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
Q.28 The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
a) Delhi
b) Gwalior
c) Ujjain
d) Lahore
Answer: d) Lahore
Explanation: Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in 1901 at Lahore (present-day Pakistan). His goal was to democratize music education and move it beyond the confines of royal courts and traditional hereditary musicians. This institution was the first of its kind to offer structured classical music training to the general public. Later, Gandharva Mahavidyalayas were opened in other cities like Delhi and Mumbai, but the original was founded in Lahore.
Q.29 Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the
a) village-level administration
b) district-level administration
c) provincial administration
d) level of the central administration
Answer: b) district-level administration
Explanation: Ashokan inscriptions refer to several key administrative officers. The Pradeshika was in charge of touring and supervising district administration. The Rajuka acted like district magistrates, handling judicial and land revenue duties. The Yukta served as an accountant or subordinate officer responsible for revenue collection and records. All three operated at the district-level, managing law, order, and revenue matters.
Q.30 Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:
I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.
II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.
a) I only
b) II only
c) Both I and II
d) Neither I nor II
Answer: c) Both I and II
Explanation:
The Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920 adopted the Non-Cooperation Movement formally.
- The resolution explicitly stated that the goal of the Congress was the attainment of Swaraj by peaceful and legitimate means.
- The movement was to be executed in stages. Initially, it focused on boycotting titles, government institutions, foreign goods, and promoting khadi.
- Civil disobedience and refusal to pay taxes were conditional—to be introduced only if Swaraj was not achieved within a year and if the British government resorted to repression.
Hence, both statements are correct.
Q.31 With reference to investments, consider the following:
I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital
How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All the four
Answer: b) Only two
Explanation: Alternative Investment Funds refer to investment vehicles that pool funds and invest in assets other than traditional investment avenues like stocks and bonds.
- Hedge Funds are considered Alternative Investment Funds.
- Venture Capital is also a category under Alternative Investment Funds in India.
- Bonds are traditional debt instruments and are not treated as Alternative Investment Funds.
- Stocks are traditional equity investments and are also not considered Alternative Investment Funds.
Therefore, only Hedge Funds and Venture Capital qualify as Alternative Investment Funds.
Q.32 Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?
I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
a) I and II only
b) II, III and IV
c) I, III, IV and V
d) I, II and V
Answer: d) I, II and V
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India earns income through various sources.
Statement I is correct because RBI earns interest and profits from buying and selling government bonds during open market operations.
Statement II is correct since foreign exchange dealings generate income through valuation changes and arbitrage.
Statement III is incorrect as managing pension funds is not a regular revenue source for RBI.
Statement IV is incorrect because the RBI does not lend directly to private companies; it mainly lends to commercial banks.
Statement V is correct. Although printing currency notes involves cost, RBI earns seigniorage, the profit from the difference between the face value of money and its printing cost.
Q.33 With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:
Organization – Some of its functions – It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement – Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 – Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence – Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management – Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders – Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All the three
d) None
Answer: a) Only one
Explanation:
Row I is incorrect: The Directorate of Enforcement enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but it operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Row II is correct: The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, and enforces the Customs Act, 1962.
Row III is incorrect: Although the Directorate General of Systems and Data Management works under the Department of Revenue, its role is primarily related to information technology support for the CBIC, not directly involved in tax policy formation or enforcement through big data analytics.
Therefore, only one row (Row II) is correctly matched.