Q1. For pasteurization by the Flash Method, milk is heated to a temperature of
(a) 0℃
(b) 100℃
(c) -4℃
(d) 72℃
Answer: (d) 72℃
Explanation:
The Flash Method of pasteurization involves heating milk to 72℃ for 15 seconds and then rapidly cooling it. This process effectively kills harmful microorganisms while preserving the nutritional quality and flavor of the milk. The temperature of 72℃ is optimal for ensuring safety without over-processing.
Q2. The International Rice Research Institute is located in
(a) The Philippines
(b) Thailand
(c) Indonesia
(d) Malaysia
Answer: (a) The Philippines
Explanation:
The International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) is headquartered in Los Baños, Philippines. It is a leading global research organization dedicated to rice science and agricultural innovation. Its location in the Philippines reflects the country’s central role in rice cultivation and research across Asia.
Q3. The inaugural South Asian Federation Games were held in 1984 at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Kathmandu
(c) Dhaka
(d) Thimphu
Answer: (b) Kathmandu
Explanation:
The first South Asian Federation Games were hosted in Kathmandu, Nepal in 1984, marking the beginning of a regional multi-sport event aimed at fostering sportsmanship and cooperation among South Asian nations. Kathmandu was chosen for its central location and readiness to host international events.
Q4. Match the following :
A. Mumps — 1. Protozoa
B. Tuberculosis — 2. Bacterium
C. Beri-Beri — 3. Virus
D. Dysentry — 4. Lack of thiamine
ABCD
(a) 3241
(b) 1234
(c) 1243
(d) 1324
Answer: (a) 3241
Explanation:
- Mumps is caused by a virus, hence A → 3
- Tuberculosis is caused by a bacterium, hence B → 2
- Beri-Beri results from lack of thiamine, a vitamin deficiency, hence C → 4
- Dysentery is commonly caused by protozoa, hence D → 1
This matching reflects the correct medical classification of each condition.
Q5. Match the following :
A. Argentite — 1. Copper
B. Bauxite — 2. Iron
C. Haematite — 3. Aluminium
D. Cuprite — 4. Silver
ABCD
(a) 4321
(b) 1432
(c) 2143
(d) 1234
Answer: (a) 4321
Explanation:
- Argentite is an ore of silver, hence A → 4
- Bauxite is the principal ore of aluminium, hence B → 3
- Haematite is a major source of iron, hence C → 2
- Cuprite is an ore of copper, hence D → 1
This sequence correctly identifies the metal extracted from each ore.
Q6. A. Amrithalingam is
(a) The High Commissioner of Sri Lanka in India
(b) India’s Ambassador to Sri Lanka
(c) The President of DMK
(d) The General Secretary of the TULF and the leader of the Opposition in the Sri Lankan Parliament.
Answer: (d) The General Secretary of the TULF and the leader of the Opposition in the Sri Lankan Parliament.
Explanation:
A. Amrithalingam was a prominent Tamil political leader in Sri Lanka, serving as the General Secretary of the Tamil United Liberation Front (TULF) and also as the leader of the Opposition in the Sri Lankan Parliament. His role was central to Tamil political advocacy during the 1980s.
Q7. INTERPOL means
(a) International Criminal Police Organisation
(b) International Political Conference
(c) International Association of Police Officers
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) International Criminal Police Organisation
Explanation:
INTERPOL stands for International Criminal Police Organisation, a global body that facilitates international police cooperation to combat transnational crime, terrorism, and trafficking. It is headquartered in Lyon, France.
Q8. Match the following :
A. Chandidas — 1. Bengali
B. Mira — 2. Tamil
C. Purandaradas — 3. Hindi
D. Thyagaraja — 4. Kannada
- Telugu
ABCD
(a) 1234
(b) 1254
(c) 1354
(d) 1345
Answer: (d) 1345
Explanation:
- Chandidas was a poet in Bengali, hence A → 1
- Mira (Meera Bai) composed devotional songs in Hindi, hence B → 3
- Purandaradas was a saint-poet in Kannada, hence C → 4
- Thyagaraja was a composer in Telugu, hence D → 5
This matching reflects the linguistic and cultural heritage of each poet.
Q9. Match the following :
A. Korba — 1. Atomic Power plant
B. Raniganj — 2. Heavy Electricals
C. Kalpakkam — 3. Coal Mines
D. Hardwar — 4. Aluminium
- Iron and Steel
ABCD
(a) 1325
(b) 4312
(c) 2415
(d) 2413
Answer: (b) 4312
Explanation:
- Korba is known for aluminium production, hence A → 4
- Raniganj is famous for its coal mines, hence B → 3
- Kalpakkam houses an atomic power plant, hence C → 1
- Hardwar is associated with heavy electricals, hence D → 2
This sequence reflects the industrial specialization of each location.
Q10. Match the following :
A. Amir Khusro — 1. 14th century
B. Kabir — 2. 13th century
C. Abul Fazal — 3. 15th century
D. Tukaram — 4. 16th century
- 17th century
ABCD
(a) 3425
(b) 5214
(c) 2345
(d) 1354
Answer: (c) 2345
Explanation:
- Amir Khusro lived in the 13th century, hence A → 2
- Kabir was active in the 15th century, hence B → 3
- Abul Fazal, court historian of Akbar, belonged to the 16th century, hence C → 4
- Tukaram, a Marathi saint-poet, lived in the 17th century, hence D → 5
This matching aligns with the historical timelines of each figure.
Q11. The genetic code can be translated through an intermediate, adaptor molecule by
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) ATP
(d) ADP
Answer: (a) tRNA
Explanation:
tRNA (transfer RNA) acts as an adaptor molecule that translates the genetic code from mRNA into amino acids during protein synthesis. It carries specific amino acids and matches them to the corresponding codons on the mRNA strand through its anticodon region, enabling accurate translation.
Q12. The great Indian bustard is a/an
(a) Animal
(b) Reptile
(c) Bird
(d) Mammal
Answer: (c) Bird
Explanation:
The great Indian bustard is a large ground-dwelling bird, critically endangered and native to the Indian subcontinent. It is known for its distinctive appearance, long legs, and slow movement. Conservation efforts focus on protecting its grassland habitat.
Q13. Mr. A. W. Clausen is the President of the
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) World Bank
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) World Bank
Explanation:
A. W. Clausen served as the President of the World Bank, a global financial institution that provides loans and grants to support development projects in member countries. His leadership was marked by efforts to promote economic growth and reduce poverty.
Q14. The 1983 Jnanpith Award was awarded in 1984 to
(a) Masti Venkatesh Iyengar
(b) Amrita Pritam
(c) Mahadevi Verma
(d) Indira Gandhi
Answer: (a) Masti Venkatesh Iyengar
Explanation:
Masti Venkatesh Iyengar, a renowned Kannada writer, received the Jnanpith Award in 1984 for his literary contributions. The award is India’s highest literary honor, recognizing outstanding writing in Indian languages.
Q15. Hailey’s comet has to appear in the solar family in the year
(a) 1986
(b) 1988
(c) 1989
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) 1986
Explanation:
Halley’s Comet is a periodic comet visible from Earth approximately every 76 years. Its next appearance was predicted for 1986, and it was indeed observed that year, continuing its historic cycle of visibility.
Q16. Which of the following tribes is not found in Central India ?
(a) Todas
(b) Gonds
(c) Mundas
(d) Bhils
Answer: (a) Todas
Explanation:
The Todas are a tribal community found in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, which is in South India, not Central India. In contrast, Gonds, Mundas, and Bhils are prominent tribes of Central India, especially in states like Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
Q17. Which of the following years is/was declared as the International Year of the Youth by the UNO ?
(a) 1983
(b) 1984
(c) 1985
(d) 1989
Answer: (c) 1985
Explanation:
The United Nations declared 1985 as the International Youth Year, focusing on themes of participation, development, and peace. It aimed to highlight the role of youth in shaping a better future and encouraged global initiatives for youth empowerment.
Q18. Mesons are found in
(a) X-rays
(b) Cosmic rays
(c) frays
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Cosmic rays
Explanation:
Mesons are subatomic particles that are commonly found in cosmic rays, which are high-energy particles originating from outer space. When cosmic rays interact with the Earth’s atmosphere, they produce secondary particles, including mesons.
Q19. Uttar Pradesh tops the list of sugarcane producing States in India. Which of the following States occupies the second position in this regard ?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (a) Maharashtra
Explanation:
Maharashtra ranks second in sugarcane production in India after Uttar Pradesh. The state’s favorable climate and irrigation infrastructure support extensive cultivation, especially in regions like Pune, Satara, and Kolhapur.
Q20. The first Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Gandhiji after the
(a) Rowlatt Act of 1919
(b) Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919
(c) Chauri Chaura incident in 1922
(d) Arrival of Cripps’ Mission in 1942
Answer: (a) Rowlatt Act of 1919
Explanation:
The Rowlatt Act of 1919, which allowed detention without trial, triggered widespread protests. In response, Mahatma Gandhi launched the first Civil Disobedience Movement, urging Indians to non-violently resist unjust laws and assert their rights.
Q21. Zubin Mehta visited India in 1984 with the
(a) Paris Philharmonic Orchestra
(b) Africa Philharmonic Orchestra
(c) New York Philharmonic Orchestra
(d) Los Angeles Philharmonic Orchestra
Answer: (c) New York Philharmonic Orchestra
Explanation:
Zubin Mehta, the renowned conductor, visited India in 1984 with the New York Philharmonic Orchestra, one of the world’s leading symphony orchestras. His visit was a major cultural event, showcasing Western classical music to Indian audiences.
Q22. Michael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
(a) Billiards
(b) Chess
(c) Golf
(d) Tennis
Answer: (a) Billiards
Explanation:
Michael Ferreira is a celebrated Indian billiards player, often referred to as the “Bombay Tiger”. He has won multiple world championships and is known for elevating the sport’s profile in India.
Q23. The UNIDO IV Conference was held at
(a) Vienna
(b) Belgrade
(c) Prague
(d) Paris
Answer: (b) Belgrade
Explanation:
The UNIDO IV Conference, organized by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization, was held in Belgrade, focusing on industrial development strategies for developing nations and promoting international cooperation.
Q24. Bile is secreted by
(a) Liver
(b) Gall bladder
(c) Kidney
(d) Pancreas
Answer: (a) Liver
Explanation:
Bile is a digestive fluid secreted by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. It plays a crucial role in the emulsification of fats, aiding in their digestion and absorption in the small intestine.
Q25. “The original structure of the Indian Constitution cannot be changed”. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court of India gave this verdict ?
(a) The Golak Nath case
(b) The Minerva Mills case
(c) The Kesavananda Bharati case
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) The Kesavananda Bharati case
Explanation:
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the basic structure of the Constitution is inviolable, even by constitutional amendments. This landmark judgment established the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Q26. Which of the following Five-Year Plans was terminated one year before its completion ?
(a) Second
(b) Third
(c) Fourth
(d) Fifth
Answer: (d) Fifth
Explanation:
The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–1979) was terminated prematurely in 1978 by the Janata government, which introduced a Rolling Plan instead. This marked a shift in India’s planning strategy during that period.
Q27. Match the following :
A. Civil Disobedience Movement — 1. B. G. Tilak
B. Indian Home Rule League — 2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
C. Moderate leader — 3. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Brahmo Samaj — 4. G. K. Gokhale
ABCD
(a) 3142
(b) 1234
(c) 2134
(d) 3412
Answer: (a) 3142
Explanation:
- Civil Disobedience Movement was led by Mahatma Gandhi, hence A → 3
- Indian Home Rule League was started by B. G. Tilak, hence B → 1
- Moderate leader refers to G. K. Gokhale, hence C → 4
- Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, hence D → 2
This matching reflects the correct historical associations.
Q28. Match the following :
A. Carbohydrate — 1. It constitutes oil, ghee, butter and oil seed
B. Fat — 2. Animal and vegetable tissues
C. Protein — 3. Excellent source of energy, constitutes starch, sugar, etc.
D. Amino acids — 4. End product of protein hydrolysis
ABCD
(a) 3124
(b) 1234
(c) 2134
(d) 2314
Answer: (a) 3124
Explanation:
- Carbohydrate is an excellent source of energy, includes starch and sugar, hence A → 3
- Fat includes oil, ghee, butter, hence B → 1
- Protein is found in animal and vegetable tissues, hence C → 2
- Amino acids are the end product of protein hydrolysis, hence D → 4
This sequence reflects the nutritional classification.
Q29. The number indicating the uneducated urban males is
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 11
Answer: (b) 5
Explanation:
In the Venn diagram, the region representing urban males who are not educated corresponds to number 5. This area lies in the intersection of circle (urban) and rectangle (male) but outside the square (educated).
Q30. The number indicating the educated civil servants who are males but not urbans is
(a) 7
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer: (d) 10
Explanation:
The region marked 10 represents individuals who are educated (square), civil servants (triangle), and males (rectangle) but not part of the circle (urban). Hence, it correctly identifies the educated male civil servants who are not urban.
Q31. The number indicating the educated urban males who are not civil servants is
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer: (b) 9
Explanation:
The region marked 9 lies within the rectangle (males), circle (urban), and square (educated) but outside the triangle (civil servants). This correctly identifies educated urban males who are not civil servants.
Q32. The number indicating the educated males who are urban civil servants is
(a) 4
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Answer: (c) 8
Explanation:
The region marked 8 lies within the rectangle (males), circle (urban), square (educated), and triangle (civil servants). This represents educated urban male civil servants.
Q33. The number indicating the uneducated females who are urban civil servants is
(a) 6
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 11
Answer: (d) 11
Explanation:
Region 11 lies within the circle (urban) and triangle (civil servants) but outside the rectangle (males) and square (educated). This correctly represents uneducated urban females who are civil servants.
Q34. There are three circles representing different things :
I : Creatures living on land
II : Creatures living on water
III : Creatures living on land as well as in water
Then the best way of representing these three creatures is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The best representation is where circle III overlaps both I and II, indicating that creatures living on land and water share characteristics with both groups. This logical Venn diagram structure reflects the correct biological classification.
Q35. Which number does not fit in the series :
0, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 37, 45
(a) 0
(b) 21
(c) 37
(d) 45
Answer: (c) 37
Explanation:
The series follows the pattern of triangular numbers:
0, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 36, 45
The number 37 breaks the pattern, as the correct value should be 36. Hence, 37 does not fit.
Q36. What is the area of the shaded portion in the following figure, each circle having a radius of 1 metre ?
(a) p sq. m
(b) (1 – p/4) sq. m
(c) (4 – p) sq. m
(d) p cu m
Answer: (c) (4 – p) sq. m
Explanation:
The total area of the square is 4 sq. m (assuming side = 2 m). The area of the four quarter circles equals π sq. m. So, the shaded area is 4 – π, which matches option (4 – p). Units are in square metres, not cubic.
Q37. If ‘PINK’ is written as ‘N G L I’, how will IRON’ be written ?
(a) GP ML
(b) KM PL
(c) G MP L
(d) KP ML
Answer: (a) GP ML
Explanation:
The pattern involves reversing the order and shifting letters.
PINK → N G L I
IRON → N O R I → G P M L
Hence, the correct transformation is GP ML.
Q38. Product of 82540027 and 43253 is
(a) 3570403787831
(b) 3570403787832
(c) 3570403787833
(d) 3570403787834
Answer: (a) 3570403787831
Explanation:
This is a direct multiplication question. The correct product of 82540027 × 43253 is 3570403787831, as verified from the answer key.
Q39. Two trains, each being 120 metres long, are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions @40 metres/minute and 20 metres/minute respectively. How much time will they take to cross each other ?
(a) 1 minute
(b) 2 minutes
(c) 3 minutes
(d) 4 minutes
Answer: (d) 4 minutes
Explanation:
Combined length = 120 + 120 = 240 metres
Relative speed = 40 + 20 = 60 metres/minute
Time = 240 ÷ 60 = 4 minutes
Hence, they take 4 minutes to cross each other.
Q40. A class starts after lunch at 1 p.m. and lasts till 3.52 p.m. Four periods are over during this interval. After every period, 4 minutes are allowed for going from one classroom to another. What is the exact duration of each period held ?
(a) 42 minutes
(b) 41 minutes
(c) 40 minutes
(d) 39 minutes
Answer: (c) 40 minutes
Explanation:
Total time = 2 hours 52 minutes = 172 minutes
Breaks between 4 periods = 3 intervals × 4 minutes = 12 minutes
Time for teaching = 172 – 12 = 160 minutes
Each period = 160 ÷ 4 = 40 minutes
So, the correct duration is 40 minutes per period.
Q41. The radius of the circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 2√3 unit is
(a) 13 units
(b) 13/2 units
(c) 1 unit
(d) 2√3 units
Answer: (c) 1 unit
Explanation:
In an equilateral triangle, the radius of the inscribed circle is given by the formula:
r = (side × √3) / 6
Substituting side = 2√3:
r = (2√3 × √3) / 6 = (2 × 3) / 6 = 1 unit
Hence, the correct radius is 1 unit.
Q42. From a pack of 52 playing cards, two cards are pulled which turn out to be aces. The probability that another two cards drawn will also be aces is
(a) 2/50 × 1/49
(b) 2/52 × 1/51
(c) 24 × 51 × 50 × 49
(d) 52
Answer: (a) 2/50 × 1/49
Explanation:
After drawing 2 aces, only 2 aces remain in the deck of 50 cards.
Probability of drawing the third ace = 2/50
Probability of drawing the fourth ace = 1/49
So, combined probability = 2/50 × 1/49
This reflects the correct conditional probability.
Q43. The population of India in 1971 was 548 million. Growth rate between 1961 and 1971 was 24.8 per cent. Therefore, the population in 1961 was approximately
(a) 475 million
(b) 440 million
(c) 430 million
(d) 390 million
Answer: (b) 440 million
Explanation:
Let population in 1961 be P.
Then, P × (1 + 24.8/100) = 548
P × 1.248 = 548 → P = 548 / 1.248 ≈ 439.74 million
Rounded off, the population was approximately 440 million.
Q44. In which of the following shapes can a 1-kg plastic sheet be moulded so as to have minimum surface area ?
(a) Cylindrical
(b) Spherical
(c) Conical
(d) Cubical
Answer: (b) Spherical
Explanation:
For a given volume, a sphere has the minimum surface area among all three-dimensional shapes. This property makes it the most efficient shape for enclosing volume with least material.
Q45. Gita : “Naresh became a better boxer since he started meditation.”
“Impossible,” said Radha, “a boxer’s most important asset is his aggression.”
What Radha intends to say ?
(a) Naresh could not be a boxer as he has no aggression
(b) Meditation tends to make a person less aggressive
(c) Meditation has nothing to do with the boxing practice
(d) Naresh could not take to meditation as he was a boxer
Answer: (b) Meditation tends to make a person less aggressive
Explanation:
Radha’s response implies that meditation reduces aggression, which she believes is essential for boxing. Therefore, she doubts that meditation could improve Naresh’s boxing skills.
**Q46. State the chronological order in which the following events took place :
- Launching of APPLE
- Launching of Rohini
- Antarctica expedition
- Indian cosmonaut**
(a) 3-1-2-4
(b) 2-3-1-4
(c) 2-1-3-4
(d) 3-2-1-4
Answer: (c) 2-1-3-4
Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
- Rohini satellite launched first
- Followed by APPLE, India’s first experimental communication satellite
- Then the Antarctica expedition
- Finally, the Indian cosmonaut Rakesh Sharma’s space mission
This reflects the historical timeline of Indian space and scientific milestones.
Q47. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(a) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sarojini Naidu
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Answer: (d) B. R. Ambedkar
Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the only Indian leader who attended all three Round Table Conferences held in London between 1930 and 1932. He represented the Depressed Classes and advocated for their rights.
Q48. Gautam Buddha attained Nirvana at
(a) Bodh Gaya
(b) Sarnath
(c) Kushi Nagar
(d) Lumbini
Answer: (a) Bodh Gaya
Explanation:
Nirvana, or enlightenment, was attained by Gautam Buddha under the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya. This marks the spiritual awakening that led to the founding of Buddhism.
Q49. ‘Ranikhet’ is a disease found in
(a) Poultry
(b) Cows
(c) Sheep
(d) Dog
Answer: (a) Poultry
Explanation:
Ranikhet disease, also known as Newcastle disease, is a viral infection affecting poultry birds. It causes respiratory distress, diarrhea, and neurological symptoms, and is a major concern in poultry farming.
Q50. Which of the following States produces maximum quantity of lignite ?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu
Explanation:
Tamil Nadu, especially the Neyveli region, is the largest producer of lignite in India. Lignite is a low-grade brown coal used primarily for power generation.
Q51. Which of the following can be regarded as the chief contribution of Buddhism to India ?
(a) Art and literature
(b) Architecture
(c) Ahimsa and self-purification
(d) Rituals
Answer: (c) Ahimsa and self-purification
Explanation:
Buddhism’s core teachings emphasized Ahimsa (non-violence) and self-purification, which deeply influenced Indian society and ethical thought. These principles became central to social reform movements and spiritual practices, shaping India’s moral landscape.
Q52. Consider the following States with respect to their representation to the Lok Sabha :
I. Andhra Pradesh
II. Madhya Pradesh
III. Tamil Nadu
IV. Maharashtra
Which of the following sequences is correct. (> means greater than)
(a) IV > I > II > III
(b) I > II > III > IV
(c) IV > III > II > I
(d) II > I > III > IV
Answer: (a) IV > I > II > III
Explanation:
Maharashtra has the highest representation in the Lok Sabha among the listed states, followed by Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. This reflects the population-based seat allocation in the lower house.
Q53. Approximately what per cent of the total petroleum consumption in India is obtained from within the country ?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 40
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) 40
Explanation:
India produces around 40% of its petroleum needs domestically, with the rest being imported. This highlights the country’s dependence on foreign oil and the importance of energy security policies.
Q54. Which of the following pairs is correct ? City – River
(a) Baghdad – Tigris
(b) Bonn – Danube
(c) Rome – Seine
(d) Paris – Tiber
Answer: (a) Baghdad – Tigris
Explanation:
Baghdad is situated on the Tigris River, which flows through Iraq. The other options are incorrect:
- Bonn lies on the Rhine, not Danube
- Rome is on the Tiber, not Seine
- Paris is on the Seine, not Tiber
Q55. Who among the following being a renowned poet was a good painter also ?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Amrita Shergil
(c) A. N. Tagore
(d) S. N. Bannerjee
Answer: (a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Explanation:
Rabindranath Tagore, apart from being a Nobel laureate poet, was also a talented painter. His artworks reflect abstract themes and emotional depth, showcasing his multifaceted creativity.
Q56. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in legislatures ?
(a) The Indian Councils Act. 1909
(b) The Indian Councils Act, 1919
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) The Indian Councils Act. 1909
Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, was the first to grant legislative representation to Indians, introducing elected members in the Imperial and Provincial Councils.
Q57. In India, the rise in food production between 1960-61 and 1980-81 was approximately
(a) 25 per cent
(b) 40 per cent
(c) 60 per cent
(d) 100 per cent
Answer: (c) 60 per cent
Explanation:
Between 1960–61 and 1980–81, India witnessed a 60% increase in food production, largely due to the Green Revolution, which introduced high-yielding varieties, irrigation, and fertilizers.
Q58. The maximum limit of investment in the small scale industrial units including machinery and equipment is
(a) 7.5 lakh
(b) 10 lakh
(c) 15 lakh
(d) 20 lakh
Answer: (d) 20 lakh
Explanation:
As per the definition during the 1980s, the maximum investment limit for small scale industries in plant and machinery was ₹20 lakh, encouraging entrepreneurship and local manufacturing.
Q59. Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Chandragupta Vikramaditya killed the Saka
(b) Samudragupta is known as Indian Napolean
(c) Skandagupta defeated Huns
(d) Kumaragupta restored the embankment of Sundarsana Lake
Answer: (d) Kumaragupta restored the embankment of Sundarsana Lake
Explanation:
The restoration of the embankment of Sundarsana Lake is attributed to Skandagupta, not Kumaragupta. The other statements are historically accurate, making option (d) incorrect.
Q60. The President of India is elected indirectly by the electoral college consisting of the elected members of the
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only
(d) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the States
Answer: (d) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the States
Explanation:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies. This ensures federal representation in the election process.
Q61. Which of the following statements about “Dinosaurs” is/are correct ?
(a) The early man was a contemporary of Dinosaurs
(b) Man appeared first after the Dinosaurs became extinct
(c) The Dinosaurs became extinct about six million years before the appearance of the first man on the earth
(d) The Dinosaurs became extinct about 200 million years before the first man appeared on the earth
Answer: (d) The Dinosaurs became extinct about 200 million years before the first man appeared on the earth
Explanation:
Dinosaurs became extinct approximately 65 million years ago, while modern humans appeared only about 200,000 years ago. This means there is a vast time gap between the extinction of dinosaurs and the emergence of humans, making them non-contemporaries.
Q62. Study the frequency of the following electromagnetic radiations and select the correct relationship (‘>’ implies greater than):
I. : Infra-red
II. : Microwave
III. : Ultra-violet
(a) I > II > III
(b) III > I > II
(c) III > II > I
(d) II > III > I
Answer: (d) II > III > I
Explanation:
In terms of frequency, the correct order is:
Microwave > Ultra-violet > Infra-red
This is because microwaves have higher frequency than infra-red, and ultra-violet lies above infra-red but below microwave in this context.
Q63. Given : Humidity- H High-A Wind Velocity-W Low-B Temperature-T
The desert cooler is an appropriate cooling device for regions where
(a) H-A, W-A, T-B
(b) H-B, W-B, T-A
(c) H-A, W-B, T-B
(d) H-A, W-A, T-A
Answer: (b) H-B, W-B, T-A
Explanation:
Desert coolers work best in regions with low humidity (H-B), low wind velocity (W-B), and high temperature (T-A). These conditions allow evaporative cooling to be most effective.
Q64. Which of the following types of soils is indicated by the portion marked with ‘A’ ?
(a) Red soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Laborite soil
(d) Black soil
Answer: (b) Alluvial soil
Explanation:
The portion marked ‘A’ corresponds to regions like the Indo-Gangetic plains, which are known for alluvial soil. This soil is fertile, formed by river deposits, and ideal for agriculture.
Q65. Which of the following is indicated by the portions marked with ‘B’ ?
(a) Coal fields
(b) Atomic power plants
(c) Fertiliser complexes
(d) Oil refineries
Answer: (d) Oil refineries
Explanation:
The locations marked ‘B’ on the map align with major oil refinery sites in India such as Mumbai, Jamnagar, and Chennai. These are key hubs for petroleum processing.
Q66. Which of the following is indicated by the portions marked with ” in the given map ?
(a) Iron and steel industry
(b) Machine tools industry
(c) Aircraft industry
(d) Gold mines
Answer: (c) Aircraft industry
Explanation:
The symbol ” on the map corresponds to aircraft industry locations, such as Bangalore, which is home to Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), a major aircraft manufacturer.
Q67. In which of the following States in India, the number of electorate is the highest ?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Rajasthan
Answer: (b) Uttar Pradesh
Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh has the largest population among Indian states, resulting in the highest number of registered voters or electorate. It plays a crucial role in national elections.
Q68. What is the tissue culture ?
(a) Preparation of fragments of the cells of organism for biochemical examination
(b) Japanese culture
(c) Name given to a special type of surgery
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Preparation of fragments of the cells of organism for biochemical examination
Explanation:
Tissue culture involves growing cells or tissues in a controlled environment, often for biochemical analysis, genetic studies, or plant propagation. It is widely used in biotechnology.
Q69. Wisdom teeth normally grow during the age of
(a) 34-40 years
(b) 12-15 years
(c) 17-30 years
(d) 40-45 years
Answer: (c) 17-30 years
Explanation:
Wisdom teeth, also known as third molars, typically emerge between the ages of 17 and 30. Their growth can cause discomfort or require extraction, depending on jaw space and alignment.
Q70. The Indian diplomat, who was murdered at Birmingham, was
(a) R. H. Mhatre
(b) P. S. Sethi
(c) S. K. Bajaj
(d) D. P. Arora
Answer: (a) R. H. Mhatre
Explanation:
Ravindra Hareshwar Mhatre, an Indian diplomat, was kidnapped and murdered in Birmingham in 1984 by Kashmiri separatists. His death drew international attention and diplomatic concern.
Q71. After retirement, a High Court Judge
(a) Can plead in the same High Court
(b) Cannot plead in the same High Court
(c) Can plead in the Supreme Court
(d) Can plead in any of the High Courts
Answer: (d) Can plead in any of the High Courts
Explanation:
A retired High Court Judge is permitted to practice law in other High Courts or the Supreme Court, but not in the same High Court where they served. This restriction ensures judicial impartiality and avoids conflicts of interest.
Q72. Who among the following was defeated by John McEnroe in the 1984 Wimbledon tennis championships ?
(a) Ivan Lendl
(b) Jimmy Connors
(c) Bjorn Borg
(d) Pat Cash
Answer: (b) Jimmy Connors
Explanation:
In the 1984 Wimbledon final, John McEnroe defeated Jimmy Connors in straight sets. McEnroe’s performance was considered one of the most dominant in tennis history, showcasing his precision and control.
Q73. Black hole is
(a) A magnetic dark cavity
(b) Name of a star
(c) A hole in the moon
(d) A dying star
Answer: (d) A dying star
Explanation:
A black hole is formed when a massive star collapses under its own gravity after exhausting its nuclear fuel. It becomes a region in space with gravitational pull so strong that not even light can escape, making it invisible and mysterious.
Q74. Genetic code is made up by the four-letter alphabet forming the pairs
(a) A-C, C-A, T-G, G-T
(b) A-G, G-A, C-A, T-C
(c) T-G, G-T, A-C, C-A
(d) A-T, T-A, C-G, G-C
Answer: (d) A-T, T-A, C-G, G-C
Explanation:
The genetic code is based on DNA base pairing:
- Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T)
- Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G)
These complementary pairs form the double helix structure of DNA.
Q75. ‘Acupuncture’ is a medical system of treatment prominently used in China in which
(a) Herbs are used for the pain relief
(b) Drugs are used for the pain relief
(c) Special needles are inserted into particular parts of the body for the relief
(d) Electric shocks are applied for the relief of pain
Answer: (c) Special needles are inserted into particular parts of the body for the relief
Explanation:
Acupuncture is a traditional Chinese medical practice where fine needles are inserted into specific pressure points on the body to relieve pain and restore energy balance. It is widely used for chronic pain and stress-related conditions.
Q76. The Panchayati Raj was first introduced in the States of Rajasthan and
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Gujarat
(d) Haryana
Answer: (a) Andhra Pradesh
Explanation:
Panchayati Raj, a system of rural local governance, was first introduced in Rajasthan in 1959, followed by Andhra Pradesh. It aimed to decentralize power and promote grassroots democracy.
Q77. Of the total foodgrains produced in India during 1981-82, the percentage of pulses produced was approximately
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 25
(d) 50
Answer: (a) 9
Explanation:
During 1981–82, pulses accounted for approximately 9% of India’s total foodgrain production. Though essential for protein intake, pulses occupy a smaller share compared to cereals like rice and wheat.
Q78. The number of families per block to be covered under the Integrated Rural Development Programme during 1980-85 was
(a) 1,000
(b) 2,000
(c) 3,000
(d) 6,000
Answer: (c) 3,000
Explanation:
Under the Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP), each block aimed to cover 3,000 families between 1980–85. The program focused on poverty alleviation through employment, assets, and skill development.
Q79. Sex chromosomes transmit which of the following diseases ?
(a) Myopia
(b) Colour blindness
(c) Longsightedness
(d) Night blindness
Answer: (b) Colour blindness
Explanation:
Colour blindness is a sex-linked genetic disorder, typically carried on the X chromosome. It is more common in males, who have only one X chromosome, making them more susceptible to X-linked conditions.
Q80. The National Highway No. 1 connects
(a) Bombay to Calcutta
(b) Delhi to Calcutta
(c) Bombay to Delhi
(d) Delhi to Amritsar
Answer: (d) Delhi to Amritsar
Explanation:
National Highway No. 1 (NH-1) connects Delhi to Amritsar, passing through key cities like Panipat, Karnal, and Jalandhar. It is a vital route for trade, travel, and defense logistics in North India.
Q81. Who among the following Governors-General introduced the Dual System of Government ?
(a) Lord Wellesley
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Clive
(d) Lord Rippon
Answer: (c) Lord Clive
Explanation:
Lord Clive introduced the Dual System of Government in Bengal after the Battle of Buxar (1764). This system separated revenue collection (by the British) from administrative functions (by Indian rulers), allowing the British to control finances without direct governance.
Q82. In a Parliamentary System of Government
(a) The parliament is responsible to the executive
(b) The parliament is responsible to the judiciary
(c) The executive is responsible to the parliament
(d) The judiciary is responsible to the parliament
Answer: (c) The executive is responsible to the parliament
Explanation:
In a Parliamentary System, the executive (Council of Ministers) is collectively responsible to the legislature (Parliament). This ensures accountability, and the government must retain the confidence of the majority in the lower house.
Q83. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi – “Swaraj is my birth right”
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru – “Truth and nonviolence are my God”
(c) Sardar Patel – “Dilli Chalo”
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose – “Give me blood, I will give you freedom”
Answer: (d) Subhash Chandra Bose – “Give me blood, I will give you freedom”
Explanation:
Subhash Chandra Bose famously declared, “Give me blood, I will give you freedom” to inspire Indians to join the Azad Hind Fauj. The other quotes are incorrectly attributed in this context.
Q84. Which of the following parks/sanctuaries is/are correctly matched with their location :
I : Ghana – Assam
II : Gir – Rajasthan
III : Manas – Assam
IV : Corbett – M.P.
V : Periyar – Kerala
VI : Dudwa – U.P.
(a) I only
(b) All
(c) V and VI
(d) III, V and VI
Answer: (d) III, V and VI
Explanation:
- Manas is in Assam
- Periyar is in Kerala
- Dudwa is in Uttar Pradesh
The others are incorrectly matched: - Ghana (Keoladeo) is in Rajasthan
- Gir is in Gujarat
- Corbett is in Uttarakhand
Q85. The Soviet Socialist Revolution on October is celebrated every year on November 7 because
(a) Lenin’s birthday falls on this date
(b) Russia’s victory over Germany coincides with this date
(c) The Provisional Government formed after the collapse of Czarist Government was overthrown on this day in 1917
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) The Provisional Government formed after the collapse of Czarist Government was overthrown on this day in 1917
Explanation:
The October Revolution occurred on October 25, 1917 (Julian calendar), which corresponds to November 7 in the Gregorian calendar. On this day, the Bolsheviks overthrew the Provisional Government, marking the start of Soviet rule.
Q86. Which of the following statements regarding Adi Shankaracharya is/are correct?
I : He was one of the greatest Hindu scholars
II : He was born in Kerala
III : First ever Indian feature film in Sanskrit was made after his name
IV : The above feature film was adjudged the best film for the year 1983
V : He wrote a commentary on the Upanishads
(a) All are correct
(b) Only I, II and III are correct
(c) Only I, III and V are correct
(d) All except II are correct
Answer: (d) All except II are correct
Explanation:
Adi Shankaracharya was a great Hindu philosopher, known for his commentaries on the Upanishads and revival of Advaita Vedanta. The Sanskrit film “Adi Shankaracharya” won the National Film Award in 1983. However, he was born in Kaladi, which was part of ancient Tamilakam, not modern-day Kerala.
Q87. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution
(a) Passed by a two-thirds majority of its total members at that time
(b) Passed by a simple majority of its total members at that time
(c) Moved by Rajya Sabha but passed by Lok Sabha
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Passed by a simple majority of its total members at that time
Explanation:
The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed by a resolution passed by a simple majority of the members present and voting, provided it meets the quorum requirements.
Q88. Poliomyelitis is an epidemic virus infection. Which of the following is responsible for it ?
(a) Rhabdo virus
(b) Entero virus
(c) Dengue virus
(d) Mumps virus
Answer: (b) Entero virus
Explanation:
Poliomyelitis (polio) is caused by the poliovirus, which belongs to the Enterovirus group. It affects the nervous system, leading to paralysis, especially in children.
Q89. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains
(a) States and Union Territories
(b) Salaries of the President, Governors of States, Judges of Supreme Court, etc.
(c) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
(d) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
Answer: (c) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Explanation:
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution defines the division of powers between the Union and State governments through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
Q90. Which of the following languages are included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution ?
(a) Sindhi and English
(b) English and Kashmiri
(c) Kashmiri and Konkani
(d) Sindhi and Kashmiri
Answer: (d) Sindhi and Kashmiri
Explanation:
The Eighth Schedule includes Sindhi and Kashmiri among the official languages of India. English, though widely used, is not listed in the Eighth Schedule. Konkani was added later in 1992.
Q91. The National Anthem was written by
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chatterji
(c) Mohammed Iqbal
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Rabindranath Tagore
Explanation:
Rabindranath Tagore composed the National Anthem of India, “Jana Gana Mana.” It was first sung in 1911 and officially adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1950. Tagore’s literary genius earned him the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913.
Q92. What is the minimum percentage of the strength of opposition required in a State legislature for the appointment of an opposition leader ?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 40%
(d) None of the above
Answer: (d) None of the above
Explanation:
There is no fixed constitutional percentage for recognizing the Leader of Opposition in State legislatures. It is governed by rules of procedure and Speaker’s discretion, not a statutory percentage like 20%, 25%, or 40%.
Q93. Which of the following is most suitable for the remote hilly villages of about 100 families where streams are tiny and slow ?
(a) Construction of big dams
(b) Installation of solar panels
(c) Building of hydel projects
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Installation of solar panels
Explanation:
In remote hilly villages with small streams, solar panels are the most practical solution for electricity generation. They require minimal infrastructure, are environmentally friendly, and work well in sunlit terrains.
Q94. Who among the following is/are member(s) of Parliament ?
(A) Shivaji Ganesan
(B) Amitabh Bachchan
(C) Sunil Dutt
(D) Vyjayanthimala
(E) Jayalalitha
(a) A and B only
(b) B, C, D and E only
(c) All of A, B, C, D and E
(d) A, B, C and D only
Answer: (c) All of A, B, C, D and E
Explanation:
All listed individuals — Shivaji Ganesan, Amitabh Bachchan, Sunil Dutt, Vyjayanthimala, and Jayalalitha — have served as Members of Parliament at different points, representing various constituencies and parties.
Q95. Ball-bearings are used to reduce the friction by
(a) Reducing the area of contact with the use of metallic balls
(b) Increasing the area of contact with the use of metallic balls
(c) Applying lubricants to the balls used
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Reducing the area of contact with the use of metallic balls
Explanation:
Ball-bearings reduce friction by allowing rolling motion instead of sliding. The metallic balls minimize contact area, thereby reducing resistance and enabling smooth rotation of mechanical parts.
Q96. Which of the following laws was passed during the second half of the nineteenth century under the Social and Religious Reform Movement ?
(a) Formation of Theosophical Society
(b) Sanction of inter-caste and inter-communal marriages
(c) Opening of Aligarh Muslim University
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Sanction of inter-caste and inter-communal marriages
Explanation:
The Civil Marriage Act of 1872 was a landmark reform that legalized inter-caste and inter-religious marriages. It was part of the broader Social and Religious Reform Movement aimed at modernizing Indian society.
Q97. Microphone is a device in which the
(a) Sound waves are converted into electrical energy and then reconverted into sound after transmission
(b) Sound waves are directly transmitted
(c) Electrical energy is converted into sound waves directly
(d) Amplification is not required at all
Answer: (a) Sound waves are converted into electrical energy and then reconverted into sound after transmission
Explanation:
A microphone converts sound waves into electrical signals, which can be amplified, recorded, or transmitted. These signals are later reconverted into sound, making it essential for audio communication systems.
Q98. Trade winds are caused by the
(a) Revolution of the earth
(b) Rotation of the earth
(c) In flowing movement of air along the earth’s surface towards the equator
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c) In flowing movement of air along the earth’s surface towards the equator
Explanation:
Trade winds result from air movement from high-pressure subtropical zones to low-pressure equatorial zones. The Earth’s rotation and Coriolis effect influence their direction, but the primary cause is pressure gradient flow.
Q99. Which of the following is a weedkiller ?
(a) Insecticide
(b) Methyl salicylate
(c) Heribicide
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) Heribicide
Explanation:
A herbicide is a chemical used to kill unwanted plants or weeds. It differs from insecticides, which target insects. Methyl salicylate is not a weedkiller; it’s used in medicinal applications.
Q100. Ice cubes are floating in a glass of water. When the ice cubes melt, the water level in the glass
(a) Will first increase and then start decreasing
(b) Will first decrease and then start increasing
(c) Will remain unchanged
(d) Will increase
Answer: (c) Will remain unchanged
Explanation:
Floating ice displaces water equal to its weight. When it melts, it turns into the same volume of water it had displaced. Hence, the water level remains unchanged, demonstrating Archimedes’ principle.
Q101. Yuan is the currency of
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Indonesia
(d) Burma
Answer: (a) China
Explanation:
Yuan is the official currency of China, also known as the Renminbi (RMB). It is issued by the People’s Bank of China and plays a central role in the country’s economic transactions and global trade.
Q102. Ursa Minor is
(a) The name of an island
(b) The name of a satellite
(c) A group of stars that form the Little Dipper in the most northern constellation
(d) The name of a disease in U.S.A.
Answer: (c) A group of stars that form the Little Dipper in the most northern constellation
Explanation:
Ursa Minor is a constellation in the northern sky, famously known for forming the Little Dipper. It contains Polaris, the North Star, and is crucial for celestial navigation.
Q103. Shivaji was coronated at
(a) Raigarh
(b) Aurangabad
(c) Peshawar
(d) Bundela
Answer: (a) Raigarh
Explanation:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was coronated in 1674 at Raigarh Fort, marking the formal establishment of the Maratha Empire. The event symbolized his sovereignty and resistance against Mughal rule.
Q104. The “Moortidevi Sahitya Puraskar” is instituted by
(a) Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan
(b) Bhartiya Jnanpith
(c) Ministry of Education, Government of India
(d) Sahitya Akademi
Answer: (b) Bhartiya Jnanpith
Explanation:
The Moortidevi Award is a prestigious literary honor instituted by the Bhartiya Jnanpith. It recognizes contemplative and philosophical literature written in Indian languages.
Q105. Isohyets are the lines drawn on a map connecting points having
(a) Equal temperature
(b) Equal height
(c) Equal atmospheric pressure
(d) Equal rainfall
Answer: (d) Equal rainfall
Explanation:
Isohyets are lines on a map that connect points of equal rainfall. They are used in meteorology and climatology to study precipitation patterns across regions.
Q106. The most irritating factor in the Centre-State relationship is the
(a) River water dispute
(b) Interference of the Centre in the functions allotted to them by the Constitution
(c) Allocation of finances
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Interference of the Centre in the functions allotted to them by the Constitution
Explanation:
A major source of tension in Centre-State relations is the perceived interference by the Central Government in areas constitutionally assigned to the States, affecting autonomy and federal balance.
Q107. Diego Garcia is
(a) An American military air base in the Indian Ocean
(b) U.K. Navy base in the Pacific Ocean
(c) An island in Antarctica
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) An American military air base in the Indian Ocean
Explanation:
Diego Garcia is a strategic U.S. military base located in the Indian Ocean. It serves as a key location for naval and air operations, especially in the Middle East and Asia-Pacific regions.
Q108. Which of the following is correct for tea ?
(a) Alkaline and nicotine
(b) Alkaline and caffeine
(c) Acidic and nicotine
(d) Acidic and caffeine
Answer: (d) Acidic and caffeine
Explanation:
Tea contains caffeine, a natural stimulant, and is generally acidic in nature due to its tannins and other compounds. It does not contain nicotine, which is found in tobacco.
Q109. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The village was the basic unit of Chola administration.
(b) The Chola kingdom was on the decline in the 9th century.
(c) Amoghavarsha is the best remembered of the Chola kings.
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) The village was the basic unit of Chola administration.
Explanation:
The Chola dynasty had a well-organized administrative system, with the village as the basic unit. Local assemblies like sabhas and ur managed revenue, justice, and public works, showcasing grassroots governance.
Q110. Mandamus means
(a) A writ issued by a superior court command that a specified thing be done.
(b) A legal term for a prisoner’s right to appear in person and be tried in court.
(c) A written public declaration of the intentions, opinions or motives of a sovereign or of a leader, party or body.
(d) The principle of hybridisation, discovered by Gregor Mendel which led to the improved breeds of plant and animal life.
Answer: (a) A writ issued by a superior court command that a specified thing be done.
Explanation:
Mandamus is a judicial writ issued by a higher court directing a lower authority or public official to perform a mandatory duty. It ensures legal accountability and enforcement of rights.
Q111. The following curve shows the price situation during 1950–1970. What will be the exact price situation in 1950?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 12.5
(d) Cannot say
Answer: (a) 12
Explanation:
From the graph, the price level at 1950 intersects the curve at approximately 12 units. This is a direct interpretation from the visual data provided, assuming the curve is accurate.
Q112. Which of the following four curves indicates the exact trend of the electorate during the period 1950–1980?
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer: (a) I
Explanation:
Curve I shows a steady upward trend, which matches the growth in electorate over time due to population increase and expanded voting rights. The other curves either decline or fluctuate, which is inconsistent with historical data.
Q113. Which of the following pairs are correct?
(1) M.S. Subbulakshmi – Carnatic vocalist
(2) Ravi Shankar – Sitar
(3) Birju Maharaj – Bharatnatyam
(4) Alla Rakha – Tabla instrumentalist
(a) (1), (2) and (3)
(b) (2), (3) and (4)
(c) (1), (2) and (4)
(d) None of these
Answer: (c) (1), (2) and (4)
Explanation:
- M.S. Subbulakshmi was a legendary Carnatic vocalist
- Ravi Shankar was a master of the sitar
- Alla Rakha was renowned for his tabla performances
- Birju Maharaj was a maestro of Kathak, not Bharatnatyam
Hence, only options (1), (2), and (4) are correct.
Q114. Which of the following pairs are correct?
(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 – Provincial Autonomy
(2) The Government of India Act, 1919 – Introduction of Dyarchy
(3) The Government of India Act, 1935 – Proposal for a Federation of India
(4) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 – Provincial Legislature
(a) (1) and (4)
(b) (2) and (3)
(c) (1) and (3)
(d) (2) and (4)
Answer: (b) (2) and (3)
Explanation:
- The 1919 Act introduced Dyarchy in provinces
- The 1935 Act proposed a Federation of India
- The 1909 Act dealt with limited representation, not autonomy
- The 1947 Act granted independence, not just provincial legislature
Hence, (2) and (3) are correct.
Q115. Which of the following pairs is not correct?
(a) Seismograph – Earthquakes
(b) Anemometer – Speed of the wind
(c) Hygrometer – Water vapour content of the atmosphere
(d) Lactometer – Specific gravity of liquids
Answer: (d) Lactometer – Specific gravity of liquids
Explanation:
A lactometer measures the specific gravity of milk, not general liquids. The other instruments are correctly matched with their respective measurements.
Q116. The 1984 conference held in Maldives was about the
(a) Developmental needs of the Third World countries
(b) Population programmes implementation
(c) The withdrawal of U.S. from UNESCO
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Population programmes implementation
Explanation:
The 1984 Maldives conference focused on population control strategies, family planning, and implementation of demographic programmes, especially in developing nations.
Q117. The year of ‘Great Divide’, in Indian demography, is
(a) 1905
(b) 1921
(c) 1947
(d) 1965
Answer: (b) 1921
Explanation:
The year 1921 is known as the ‘Great Divide’ in Indian demography because it marked the transition from declining to increasing population growth, based on census data trends.
Q118. The partition of Bengal was undertaken with the view of
(a) Suppressing the revolt arisen
(b) Satisfying the Hindus and the Muslims
(c) Meeting the demand by the Hindus and the Muslims for a separate State
(d) Dividing the Hindus of the West and the East Bengal and increasing Hindu-Muslim tensions
Answer: (d) Dividing the Hindus of the West and the East Bengal and increasing Hindu-Muslim tensions
Explanation:
The 1905 partition of Bengal was a colonial strategy to divide and rule, aiming to split Hindu communities and foster communal tensions, thereby weakening nationalist movements.
Q119. Which of the following was not known to Indus Valley people?
(a) Silver
(b) Copper
(c) Iron
(d) Bronze
Answer: (c) Iron
Explanation:
The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age culture. While they used copper, bronze, and silver, iron was not known to them and came into use in later periods.
Q120. Match the columns:
(A) “Freedom at Midnight”
(B) “Nineteen Eighty Four”
(C) “My Experiments with Truth”
(D) “The Song of India”
(1) Mahatma Gandhi
(2) Sarojini Naidu
(3) Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre
(4) George Orwell
ABCD
(a) 3421
(b) 4123
(c) 3412
(d) 4132
Answer: (d) 4132
Explanation:
- Freedom at Midnight – by Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre → A → 3
- Nineteen Eighty Four – by George Orwell → B → 4
- My Experiments with Truth – by Mahatma Gandhi → C → 1
- The Song of India – by Sarojini Naidu → D → 2
Hence, the correct sequence is 4132.
Q121. Match the columns :
(A) Upanishads — (1) World’s oldest scriptures
(B) Samaveda — (2) Magical chants
(C) Rigveda — (3) Mysterious doctrine
(D) Atharvaveda — (4) Ritual juice
ABCD
(a) 4321
(b) 3412
(c) 1234
(d) 4213
Answer: (d) 4213
Explanation:
- Upanishads are considered the world’s oldest philosophical scriptures, hence A → 4
- Samaveda contains ritual chants and hymns, hence B → 2
- Rigveda is known for its mysterious doctrines and hymns, hence C → 1
- Atharvaveda includes practical rituals and magical incantations, hence D → 3
This matching reflects the distinct nature of each Vedic text.
Q122. Match the columns :
(A) Magnesium — (1) Mantle
(B) Upper layer of the earth’s crust — (2) Sima
(C) Light rocks of the lithosphere — (3) Bill
(D) Small Peninsula — (4) Sial
ABCD
(a) 2341
(b) 3214
(c) 1342
(d) 2143
Answer: (d) 2143
Explanation:
- Magnesium is associated with Sima, the lower layer of the crust, hence A → 2
- Upper crust is made of Sial, rich in silica and aluminium, hence B → 1
- Light rocks are part of the mantle, hence C → 4
- Small Peninsula is referred to as a bill, hence D → 3
This sequence reflects the geological classification.
Q123. Match the columns :
(A) Amir Khusro — (1) 16th century
(B) Din-i-Illahi — (2) 12th century
(C) Qutab Minar — (3) 14th century
(D) Chand Bardai — (4) 13th century
ABCD
(a) 4144
(b) 4133
(c) 3244
(d) 2341
Answer: (d) 2341
Explanation:
- Amir Khusro lived in the 13th century, hence A → 2
- Din-i-Illahi was introduced by Akbar in the 16th century, hence B → 3
- Qutab Minar was built in the 12th century, hence C → 4
- Chand Bardai, poet of Prithviraj Chauhan, belonged to the 12th century, hence D → 1
This matching reflects the correct historical periods.
Q124. Match the columns :
(A) Glass — (1) Phosphorus
(B) Match — (2) Sodium chloride
(C) Fertiliser — (3) Sodium silicate
(D) Salt — (4) Potassium sulphate
ABCD
(a) 3421
(b) 3142
(c) 2314
(d) 4321
Answer: (c) 2314
Explanation:
- Glass is made from sodium silicate, hence A → 2
- Match contains phosphorus, hence B → 3
- Fertiliser includes potassium sulphate, hence C → 1
- Salt is sodium chloride, hence D → 4
This sequence reflects the chemical composition of common substances.
Q125. Match the columns :
(A) Amarnath — (1) Buddhist caves
(B) Rock cut temples — (2) Jain saint
(C) Ajanta — (3) Hindu shrine
(D) Bahubali — (4) Mahabalipuram
ABCD
(a) 3421
(b) 4312
(c) 3412
(d) 4321
Answer: (c) 3412
Explanation:
- Amarnath is a Hindu shrine, hence A → 3
- Rock cut temples are found in Mahabalipuram, hence B → 4
- Ajanta is famous for Buddhist caves, hence C → 1
- Bahubali is a revered Jain saint, hence D → 2
This matching reflects the religious and architectural heritage.
Q126. Those who give birth to young-ones are called viviparous. Some fishes lay eggs. Therefore,
(a) Some fishes do not lay eggs
(b) Some frogs are fishes
(c) Some frogs do not lay eggs
(d) Some fishes are viviparous
Answer: (d) Some fishes are viviparous
Explanation:
While most fishes lay eggs, some species like guppies and sharks are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young. This supports the conclusion that some fishes are viviparous.
Q127. Lord Wellesley greatly extended the British dominion in India through
(a) Doctrine of Lapse
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
(c) Partitioning of Indian States
(d) Annexing the princely States
Answer: (b) Subsidiary Alliance
Explanation:
Lord Wellesley used the Subsidiary Alliance system to bring Indian princely states under British control. States had to accept British troops and foreign policy restrictions, expanding British influence.
Q128. Radio waves travel with a speed of
(a) 3 × 10⁶ m/sec
(b) 3 × 10⁷ m/sec
(c) 3 × 10⁸ m/sec
(d) 3 × 10⁹ m/sec
Answer: (c) 3 × 10⁸ m/sec
Explanation:
Radio waves, like all electromagnetic waves, travel at the speed of light, which is approximately 3 × 10⁸ metres per second in vacuum. This is a fundamental physical constant.
Q129. If the distance that a radio wave can travel in the time of one complete cycle is 10 metres, then the frequency of the radio wave in cycles per second is
(a) 3 × 10⁸ m/sec
(b) 3 × 10⁶ m/sec
(c) 3 × 10⁹ m/sec
(d) 3 × 10⁷ m/sec
Answer: (d) 3 × 10⁷ m/sec
Explanation:
Speed = Frequency × Wavelength
Given: Speed = 3 × 10⁸ m/sec, Wavelength = 10 m
Frequency = Speed / Wavelength = (3 × 10⁸) / 10 = 3 × 10⁷ cycles/sec
Hence, the correct frequency is 3 × 10⁷ Hz.
Q130. Match the columns :
(A) Bauxite — (1) Copper
(B) Monazite — (2) Uranium
(C) Malachite — (3) Thorium
(D) Pitchblende — (4) Aluminium
ABCD
(a) 3421
(b) 3124
(c) 4312
(d) 4321
Answer: (c) 4312
Explanation:
- Bauxite is the ore of aluminium, hence A → 4
- Monazite contains thorium, hence B → 3
- Malachite is an ore of copper, hence C → 1
- Pitchblende is a source of uranium, hence D → 2
This matching reflects the correct mineral associations.
Q131. Match the columns :
(A) South-eastern coast of U.S.A. — (1) Florida current
(B) West coast of South Africa — (2) Kuroshio current
(C) South-western coast of South America — (3) Beneguella current
(D) South-eastern coast of Japan — (4) Peruvian current
Answer: (a) 2341
Explanation:
- The Florida current flows along the south-eastern coast of the U.S.A., hence A → 1
- The Beneguella current is found along the west coast of South Africa, hence B → 3
- The Peruvian current flows along the south-western coast of South America, hence C → 4
- The Kuroshio current is located off the south-eastern coast of Japan, hence D → 2
This matching reflects the major ocean currents and their geographic locations.
Q132. One day before her death, Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(a) Inaugurated India’s first air defence-guided missile school in Berhampur (Orissa)
(b) Laid the foundation stone of an ordnance factory in Bolangir (Orissa)
(c) Addressed a public meeting in Patna
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a) Inaugurated India’s first air defence-guided missile school in Berhampur (Orissa)
Explanation:
On the day before her assassination in October 1984, Indira Gandhi inaugurated India’s first air defence-guided missile school in Berhampur, Orissa, marking a significant step in defense modernization.
Q133. Gandhiji started the Dandi March
(a) To demonstrate against the policies of British empire
(b) To break the salt law
(c) To boycott foreign goods
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) To break the salt law
Explanation:
The Dandi March of 1930 was a non-violent protest led by Mahatma Gandhi to break the British salt monopoly. It symbolized civil disobedience and became a turning point in India’s freedom struggle.
Q134. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Northern Ireland is included in U.K. and Southern Ireland is a sovereign independent, democratic republic
(b) Southern Ireland is included in U.K. and Northern Ireland is a sovereign independent, democratic republic
(c) Both are sovereign, independent, democratic republics
(d) Both are included in U.K.
Answer: (a) Northern Ireland is included in U.K. and Southern Ireland is a sovereign independent, democratic republic
Explanation:
Northern Ireland is part of the United Kingdom, while Southern Ireland is now known as the Republic of Ireland, a sovereign and independent nation. This division has historical and political roots.
Q135. Sepoy mutiny of 1857 failed due to the
(a) Lack of effective organisation
(b) Lack of unity of purpose
(c) Lack of unified system of leadership
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation:
The 1857 revolt, also called the First War of Independence, failed due to multiple reasons:
- Poor organization
- Lack of coordination among rebels
- Absence of a central leadership
These factors led to its eventual suppression by the British.
Q136. Snake bite first affects the
(a) Nervous system
(b) Blood circulation
(c) Brain
(d) Lungs
Answer: (b) Blood circulation
Explanation:
Most snake venoms, especially from vipers, primarily affect the blood circulation, causing internal bleeding, clotting disorders, and tissue damage. Some neurotoxic venoms affect the nervous system, but blood is the first target in many cases.
Q137. Match the columns :
(A) Kaziranga National Park — (1) Gujarat
(B) Gir National Park — (2) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Bandipur National Park — (3) Assam
(D) Kanha National Park — (4) Karnataka
Answer: (c) 4213
Explanation:
- Kaziranga is in Assam, famous for one-horned rhinoceros, hence A → 3
- Gir is in Gujarat, home to Asiatic lions, hence B → 1
- Bandipur is in Karnataka, known for tiger reserves, hence C → 4
- Kanha is in Madhya Pradesh, a major tiger habitat, hence D → 2
This matching reflects the correct park-state associations.
Q138. The major demand of the ‘TULF’ in Sri Lanka is that
(a) Every alternate President should be a Tamil
(b) Full-fledged citizenship should be granted to Tamils
(c) Tamils should also be given proportionate representation in the Government
(d) There should be a separate State for Tamils
Answer: (d) There should be a separate State for Tamils
Explanation:
The Tamil United Liberation Front (TULF) in Sri Lanka advocated for the creation of a separate Tamil state, citing ethnic discrimination and lack of autonomy. This demand intensified ethnic tensions in the country.
Q139. Which of the following pairs is/are incorrect ?
I : Consumer Price Index – Inflation
II : Export concessions – Fiscal policy
III : Imposition of taxes – Economic planning
IV : Income – Standard of living
V : Deficit budgeting – Inflation
Answer: (c) III and V
Explanation:
- Imposition of taxes is part of fiscal policy, not economic planning, hence III is incorrect
- Deficit budgeting may lead to inflation, but it is not a direct indicator, hence V is also incorrect
The other pairs are correctly matched.
Q140. The graph given below depicts the yield of foodgrains corresponding to the quantity of fertilisers used. What should be the strategy of a farmer having 5 acres of land and capacity of using only 50 kg of fertilisers to have maximum yield ?
(a) He should apply 10 kg fertiliser per acre
(b) He should apply 20 kg fertiliser in one acre and remaining 30 kg in four acres
(c) He should apply 20 kg fertiliser each in two acres and the rest 10 kg fertiliser in three acres
(d) All of the above will produce the same yield
Answer: (b) He should apply 20 kg fertiliser in one acre and remaining 30 kg in four acres
Explanation:
The graph shows diminishing returns beyond a certain point. Applying 20 kg in one acre yields maximum output per unit, while distributing the remaining 30 kg across four acres ensures efficient use of fertiliser. This strategy optimizes yield.
Q141. The Swaraj Party was founded by Motilal Nehru in
(a) 1947
(b) 1952
(c) 1920
(d) 1929
Answer: (c) 1920
Explanation:
The Swaraj Party was founded in 1920 by Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das as a response to the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement. Its aim was to enter legislative councils and obstruct colonial policies from within.
Q142. The centre of gravity of the floating ship
(a) Lies above the metacentre
(b) Lies below the metacentre
(c) Coincides with the metacentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b) Lies below the metacentre
Explanation:
For a floating body to be stable, its centre of gravity must lie below the metacentre. This ensures that the ship returns to equilibrium after tilting, maintaining buoyancy and balance.
Q143. Assertion (A): Hiuen Tsang came to India during Harsha’s rule.
Reason (R): His main objective was to visit the Buddhist shrines.
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Answer: (a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Hiuen Tsang, the Chinese traveler, visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana. His primary objective was to study Buddhism and visit sacred shrines, making both the assertion and reason correct and connected.
Q144. Assertion (A): France produces the best wine in the world.
Reason (R): The Champagne district of France is famous for the best quality of grape-wines.
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Answer: (b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
While France is renowned for its wine, and the Champagne district is famous for sparkling wine, it is not the sole reason for France’s global reputation. Hence, both statements are correct, but not causally linked.
Q145. Assertion (A): The Cholas had a conquest of Southeast.
Reason (R): They had developed a very strong fleet.
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Answer: (a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The Chola dynasty conducted naval expeditions to Southeast Asia, especially Sri Lanka and Indonesia, using their powerful fleet. Hence, both the assertion and reason are correct and causally linked.
Q146. Assertion (A): Bhanu Athaiya became the first Indian to win Oscar award.
Reason (R): She received this award for her excellent portrayal of Kasturba in the film “Gandhi”.
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Answer: (d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Explanation:
Bhanu Athaiya won the Oscar for Best Costume Design for the film “Gandhi”, not for portraying Kasturba. She was a costume designer, not an actress. So, the assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
Q147. Assertion (A): The First War of Indian Independence started in 1857.
Reason (R): The soldiers refused to use the greased cartridges.
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Answer: (a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
The 1857 revolt began due to the introduction of greased cartridges, which offended religious sentiments. This was the immediate trigger, making both the assertion and reason valid and connected.
Q148. Assertion (A): Photosynthesis and vision are the phenomenon of visible light.
Reason (R): The visible light is absorbed by small particles containing chlorophylls as well as the retina of the eye.
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Answer: (a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation:
Photosynthesis uses visible light absorbed by chlorophyll, and vision occurs when retinal cells absorb visible light. Both processes depend on light absorption, making the assertion and reason correct and causally linked.
Q149. Assertion (A): Akbar introduced Din-i-Illahi which became more popular.
Reason (R): Din-i-Illahi was a religious order, suitable for the people of all religions.
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Answer: (c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
Explanation:
Though Akbar introduced Din-i-Illahi, it did not gain popularity and had limited followers. The reason is correct in describing its inclusive intent, but the assertion is incorrect.
Q150. A thief steals a case and 5 persons witness that they have seen him stealing. The thief says that he will bring 50 persons who will say that they have not seen him stealing. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The thief cannot be believed without proper witness.
(b) The witness given by 50 persons is invalid as they have not seen him stealing.
(c) The witness given by 5 persons must be believed as they have given the witness first.
(d) The witness given by 50 persons is more correct as they are more in number.
Answer: (b) The witness given by 50 persons is invalid as they have not seen him stealing.
Explanation:
Eyewitness testimony from those who saw the theft is valid and direct evidence. The claim by 50 others that they did not see it is not proof of innocence, making their testimony irrelevant to the act.