UPSC Prelims 1985 Solved Question Paper
Complete General Studies Previous Year Questions with Explanations & Key Insights
Q1.
For pasteurization by the Flash Method, milk is heated to a temperature of
Correct Option (D):
(d) 72℃
Detailed Explanation:
The Flash Method of pasteurization involves heating milk to 72℃ for 15 seconds and then rapidly cooling it. This process effectively kills harmful microorganisms while preserving the nutritional quality and flavor of the milk. The temperature of 72℃ is optimal for ensuring safety without over-processing.
Q2.
The International Rice Research Institute is located in
Correct Option (A):
(a) The Philippines
Detailed Explanation:
The International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) is headquartered in Los Baños, Philippines. It is a leading global research organization dedicated to rice science and agricultural innovation. Its location in the Philippines reflects the country's central role in rice cultivation and research across Asia.
Q3.
The inaugural South Asian Federation Games were held in 1984 at
Correct Option (B):
(b) Kathmandu
Detailed Explanation:
The first South Asian Federation Games were hosted in Kathmandu, Nepal in 1984, marking the beginning of a regional multi-sport event aimed at fostering sportsmanship and cooperation among South Asian nations. Kathmandu was chosen for its central location and readiness to host international events.
Q4.
A. Amrithalingam is
Correct Option (D):
(d) The General Secretary of the TULF and the leader of the Opposition in the Sri Lankan Parliament.
Detailed Explanation:
A. Amrithalingam was a prominent Tamil political leader in Sri Lanka, serving as the General Secretary of the Tamil United Liberation Front (TULF) and also as the leader of the Opposition in the Sri Lankan Parliament. His role was central to Tamil political advocacy during the 1980s.
Q5.
INTERPOL means
Correct Option (A):
(a) International Criminal Police Organisation
Detailed Explanation:
INTERPOL stands for International Criminal Police Organisation, a global body that facilitates international police cooperation to combat transnational crime, terrorism, and trafficking. It is headquartered in Lyon, France.
Q6.
The genetic code can be translated through an intermediate, adaptor molecule by
Correct Option (A):
(a) tRNA
Detailed Explanation:
tRNA (transfer RNA) acts as an adaptor molecule that translates the genetic code from mRNA into amino acids during protein synthesis. It carries specific amino acids and matches them to the corresponding codons on the mRNA strand through its anticodon region, enabling accurate translation.
Q7.
The great Indian bustard is a/an
Correct Option (C):
(c) Bird
Detailed Explanation:
The great Indian bustard is a large ground-dwelling bird, critically endangered and native to the Indian subcontinent. It is known for its distinctive appearance, long legs, and slow movement. Conservation efforts focus on protecting its grassland habitat.
Q8.
Mr. A. W. Clausen is the President of the
Correct Option (B):
(b) World Bank
Detailed Explanation:
A. W. Clausen served as the President of the World Bank, a global financial institution that provides loans and grants to support development projects in member countries. His leadership was marked by efforts to promote economic growth and reduce poverty.
Q9.
The 1983 Jnanpith Award was awarded in 1984 to
Correct Option (A):
(a) Masti Venkatesh Iyengar
Detailed Explanation:
Masti Venkatesh Iyengar, a renowned Kannada writer, received the Jnanpith Award in 1984 for his literary contributions. The award is India's highest literary honor, recognizing outstanding writing in Indian languages.
Q10.
Hailey's comet has to appear in the solar family in the year
Correct Option (A):
(a) 1986
Detailed Explanation:
Halley's Comet is a periodic comet visible from Earth approximately every 76 years. Its next appearance was predicted for 1986, and it was indeed observed that year, continuing its historic cycle of visibility.
Q11.
Which of the following tribes is not found in Central India ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Todas
Detailed Explanation:
The Todas are a tribal community found in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, which is in South India, not Central India. In contrast, Gonds, Mundas, and Bhils are prominent tribes of Central India, especially in states like Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
Q12.
Which of the following years is/was declared as the International Year of the Youth by the UNO ?
Correct Option (C):
(c) 1985
Detailed Explanation:
The United Nations declared 1985 as the International Youth Year, focusing on themes of participation, development, and peace. It aimed to highlight the role of youth in shaping a better future and encouraged global initiatives for youth empowerment.
Q13.
Mesons are found in
Correct Option (B):
(b) Cosmic rays
Detailed Explanation:
Mesons are subatomic particles that are commonly found in cosmic rays, which are high-energy particles originating from outer space. When cosmic rays interact with the Earth's atmosphere, they produce secondary particles, including mesons.
Q14.
Uttar Pradesh tops the list of sugarcane producing States in India. Which of the following States occupies the second position in this regard ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Maharashtra
Detailed Explanation:
Maharashtra ranks second in sugarcane production in India after Uttar Pradesh. The state's favorable climate and irrigation infrastructure support extensive cultivation, especially in regions like Pune, Satara, and Kolhapur.
Q15.
The first Civil Disobedience Movement was started by Gandhiji after the
Correct Option (A):
(a) Rowlatt Act of 1919
Detailed Explanation:
The Rowlatt Act of 1919, which allowed detention without trial, triggered widespread protests. In response, Mahatma Gandhi launched the first Civil Disobedience Movement, urging Indians to non-violently resist unjust laws and assert their rights.
Q16.
Zubin Mehta visited India in 1984 with the
Correct Option (C):
(c) New York Philharmonic Orchestra
Detailed Explanation:
Zubin Mehta, the renowned conductor, visited India in 1984 with the New York Philharmonic Orchestra, one of the world's leading symphony orchestras. His visit was a major cultural event, showcasing Western classical music to Indian audiences.
Q17.
Michael Ferreira is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Billiards
Detailed Explanation:
Michael Ferreira is a celebrated Indian billiards player, often referred to as the “Bombay Tiger”. He has won multiple world championships and is known for elevating the sport's profile in India.
Q18.
The UNIDO IV Conference was held at
Correct Option (B):
(b) Belgrade
Detailed Explanation:
The UNIDO IV Conference, organized by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization, was held in Belgrade, focusing on industrial development strategies for developing nations and promoting international cooperation.
Q19.
Bile is secreted by
Correct Option (A):
(a) Liver
Detailed Explanation:
Bile is a digestive fluid secreted by the liver and stored in the gall bladder. It plays a crucial role in the emulsification of fats, aiding in their digestion and absorption in the small intestine.
Q20.
"The original structure of the Indian Constitution cannot be changed". In which of the following cases, Supreme Court of India gave this verdict ?
Correct Option (C):
(c) The Kesavananda Bharati case
Detailed Explanation:
In the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that the basic structure of the Constitution is inviolable, even by constitutional amendments. This landmark judgment established the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Q21.
Which of the following Five-Year Plans was terminated one year before its completion ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Fifth
Detailed Explanation:
The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–1979) was terminated prematurely in 1978 by the Janata government, which introduced a Rolling Plan instead. This marked a shift in India's planning strategy during that period.
Q22.
The number indicating the uneducated urban males is
Correct Option (B):
(b) 5
Detailed Explanation:
In the Venn diagram, the region representing urban males who are not educated corresponds to number 5. This area lies in the intersection of circle (urban) and rectangle (male) but outside the square (educated).
Q23.
The number indicating the educated civil servants who are males but not urbans is
Correct Option (D):
(d) 10
Detailed Explanation:
The region marked 10 represents individuals who are educated (square), civil servants (triangle), and males (rectangle) but not part of the circle (urban). Hence, it correctly identifies the educated male civil servants who are not urban.
Q24.
The number indicating the educated urban males who are not civil servants is
Correct Option (B):
(b) 9
Detailed Explanation:
The region marked 9 lies within the rectangle (males), circle (urban), and square (educated) but outside the triangle (civil servants). This correctly identifies educated urban males who are not civil servants.
Q25.
The number indicating the educated males who are urban civil servants is
Correct Option (C):
(c) 8
Detailed Explanation:
The region marked 8 lies within the rectangle (males), circle (urban), square (educated), and triangle (civil servants). This represents educated urban male civil servants.
Q26.
The number indicating the uneducated females who are urban civil servants is
Correct Option (D):
(d) 11
Detailed Explanation:
Region 11 lies within the circle (urban) and triangle (civil servants) but outside the rectangle (males) and square (educated). This correctly represents uneducated urban females who are civil servants.
Q27.
There are three circles representing different things :
I : Creatures living on land
II : Creatures living on water
III : Creatures living on land as well as in water
Then the best way of representing these three creatures is
Correct Option (C):
(c) (c)
Detailed Explanation:
The best representation is where circle III overlaps both I and II, indicating that creatures living on land and water share characteristics with both groups. This logical Venn diagram structure reflects the correct biological classification.
Q28.
Which number does not fit in the series :
0, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 37, 45
Correct Option (C):
(c) 37
Detailed Explanation:
The series follows the pattern of triangular numbers:
0, 1, 3, 6, 10, 15, 21, 28, 36, 45
The number 37 breaks the pattern, as the correct value should be 36. Hence, 37 does not fit.
Q29.
What is the area of the shaded portion in the following figure, each circle having a radius of 1 metre ?
Correct Option (C):
(c) (4 - p) sq. m
Detailed Explanation:
The total area of the square is 4 sq. m (assuming side = 2 m). The area of the four quarter circles equals π sq. m. So, the shaded area is 4 - π, which matches option (4 - p). Units are in square metres, not cubic.
Q30.
If 'PINK' is written as 'N G L I', how will IRON' be written ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) GP ML
Detailed Explanation:
The pattern involves reversing the order and shifting letters.
PINK → N G L I
IRON → N O R I → G P M L
Hence, the correct transformation is GP ML.
Q31.
Product of 82540027 and 43253 is
Correct Option (A):
(a) 3570403787831
Detailed Explanation:
This is a direct multiplication question. The correct product of 82540027 × 43253 is 3570403787831, as verified from the answer key.
Q32.
Two trains, each being 120 metres long, are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions @40 metres/minute and 20 metres/minute respectively. How much time will they take to cross each other ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) 4 minutes
Detailed Explanation:
Combined length = 120 + 120 = 240 metres
Relative speed = 40 + 20 = 60 metres/minute
Time = 240 ÷ 60 = 4 minutes
Hence, they take 4 minutes to cross each other.
Q33.
A class starts after lunch at 1 p.m. and lasts till 3.52 p.m. Four periods are over during this interval. After every period, 4 minutes are allowed for going from one classroom to another. What is the exact duration of each period held ?
Correct Option (C):
(c) 40 minutes
Detailed Explanation:
Total time = 2 hours 52 minutes = 172 minutes
Breaks between 4 periods = 3 intervals × 4 minutes = 12 minutes
Time for teaching = 172 - 12 = 160 minutes
Each period = 160 ÷ 4 = 40 minutes
So, the correct duration is 40 minutes per period.
Q34.
The radius of the circle inscribed in an equilateral triangle of side 2√3 unit is
Correct Option (C):
(c) 1 unit
Detailed Explanation:
In an equilateral triangle, the radius of the inscribed circle is given by the formula: r = (side × √3) / 6 Substituting side = 2√3: r = (2√3 × √3) / 6 = (2 × 3) / 6 = 1 unit Hence, the correct radius is 1 unit.
Q35.
From a pack of 52 playing cards, two cards are pulled which turn out to be aces. The probability that another two cards drawn will also be aces is
Correct Option (A):
(a) 2/50 × 1/49
Detailed Explanation:
After drawing 2 aces, only 2 aces remain in the deck of 50 cards. Probability of drawing the third ace = 2/50 Probability of drawing the fourth ace = 1/49 So, combined probability = 2/50 × 1/49 This reflects the correct conditional probability.
Q36.
The population of India in 1971 was 548 million. Growth rate between 1961 and 1971 was 24.8 per cent. Therefore, the population in 1961 was approximately
Correct Option (B):
(b) 440 million
Detailed Explanation:
Let population in 1961 be P. Then, P × (1 + 24.8/100) = 548 P × 1.248 = 548 → P = 548 / 1.248 ≈ 439.74 million Rounded off, the population was approximately 440 million.
Q37.
In which of the following shapes can a 1-kg plastic sheet be moulded so as to have minimum surface area ?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Spherical
Detailed Explanation:
For a given volume, a sphere has the minimum surface area among all three-dimensional shapes. This property makes it the most efficient shape for enclosing volume with least material.
Q38.
Gita : "Naresh became a better boxer since he started meditation." "Impossible," said Radha, "a boxer's most important asset is his aggression." What Radha intends to say ?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Meditation tends to make a person less aggressive
Detailed Explanation:
Radha’s response implies that meditation reduces aggression, which she believes is essential for boxing. Therefore, she doubts that meditation could improve Naresh’s boxing skills.
Q39.
State the chronological order in which the following events took place :
1. Launching of APPLE
2. Launching of Rohini
3. Antarctica expedition
4. Indian cosmonaut
Correct Option (C):
(c) 2-1-3-4
Detailed Explanation:
The correct sequence is:
Rohini satellite launched first
Followed by APPLE, India’s first experimental communication satellite
Then the Antarctica expedition
Finally, the Indian cosmonaut Rakesh Sharma's space mission
This reflects the historical timeline of Indian space and scientific milestones.
Q40.
Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) B. R. Ambedkar
Detailed Explanation:
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the only Indian leader who attended all three Round Table Conferences held in London between 1930 and 1932. He represented the Depressed Classes and advocated for their rights.
Q41.
Gautam Buddha attained Nirvana at
Correct Option (A):
(a) Bodh Gaya
Detailed Explanation:
Nirvana, or enlightenment, was attained by Gautam Buddha under the Bodhi tree at Bodh Gaya. This marks the spiritual awakening that led to the founding of Buddhism.
Q42.
'Ranikhet' is a disease found in
Correct Option (A):
(a) Poultry
Detailed Explanation:
Ranikhet disease, also known as Newcastle disease, is a viral infection affecting poultry birds. It causes respiratory distress, diarrhea, and neurological symptoms, and is a major concern in poultry farming.
Q43.
Which of the following States produces maximum quantity of lignite ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Tamil Nadu
Detailed Explanation:
Tamil Nadu, especially the Neyveli region, is the largest producer of lignite in India. Lignite is a low-grade brown coal used primarily for power generation.
Q44.
Which of the following can be regarded as the chief contribution of Buddhism to India ?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Ahimsa and self-purification
Detailed Explanation:
Buddhism’s core teachings emphasized Ahimsa (non-violence) and self-purification, which deeply influenced Indian society and ethical thought. These principles became central to social reform movements and spiritual practices, shaping India's moral landscape.
Q45.
Consider the following States with respect to their representation to the Lok Sabha :
I. Andhra Pradesh
II. Madhya Pradesh
III. Tamil Nadu
IV. Maharashtra
Which of the following sequences is correct. (> means greater than)
Correct Option (A):
(a) IV > I > II > III
Detailed Explanation:
Maharashtra has the highest representation in the Lok Sabha among the listed states, followed by Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. This reflects the population-based seat allocation in the lower house.
Q46.
Approximately what per cent of the total petroleum consumption in India is obtained from within the country ?
Correct Option (C):
(c) 40
Detailed Explanation:
India produces around 40% of its petroleum needs domestically, with the rest being imported. This highlights the country's dependence on foreign oil and the importance of energy security policies.
Q47.
Which of the following pairs is correct ?
City - River
Correct Option (A):
(a) Baghdad - Tigris
Detailed Explanation:
Baghdad is situated on the Tigris River, which flows through Iraq. The other options are incorrect:
Bonn lies on the Rhine, not Danube
Rome is on the Tiber, not Seine
Paris is on the Seine, not Tiber
Q48.
Who among the following being a renowned poet was a good painter also ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
Detailed Explanation:
Rabindranath Tagore, apart from being a Nobel laureate poet, was also a talented painter. His artworks reflect abstract themes and emotional depth, showcasing his multifaceted creativity.
Q49.
Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in legislatures ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) The Indian Councils Act. 1909
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian Councils Act of 1909, also known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, was the first to grant legislative representation to Indians, introducing elected members in the Imperial and Provincial Councils.
Q50.
In India, the rise in food production between 1960-61 and 1980-81 was approximately
Correct Option (C):
(c) 60 per cent
Detailed Explanation:
Between 1960–61 and 1980–81, India witnessed a 60% increase in food production, largely due to the Green Revolution, which introduced high-yielding varieties, irrigation, and fertilizers.
Q51.
The maximum limit of investment in the small scale industrial units including machinery and equipment is
Correct Option (D):
(d) 20 lakh
Detailed Explanation:
As per the definition during the 1980s, the maximum investment limit for small scale industries in plant and machinery was ₹20 lakh, encouraging entrepreneurship and local manufacturing.
Q52.
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Kumaragupta restored the embankment of Sundarsana Lake
Detailed Explanation:
The restoration of the embankment of Sundarsana Lake is attributed to Skandagupta, not Kumaragupta. The other statements are historically accurate, making option (d) incorrect.
Q53.
The President of India is elected indirectly by the electoral college consisting of the elected members of the
Correct Option (D):
(d) Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of the States
Detailed Explanation:
The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising elected members of the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and State Legislative Assemblies. This ensures federal representation in the election process.
Q54.
Which of the following statements about "Dinosaurs" is/are correct ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) The Dinosaurs became extinct about 200 million years before the first man appeared on the earth
Detailed Explanation:
Dinosaurs became extinct approximately 65 million years ago, while modern humans appeared only about 200,000 years ago. This means there is a vast time gap between the extinction of dinosaurs and the emergence of humans, making them non-contemporaries.
Q55.
Study the frequency of the following electromagnetic radiations and select the correct relationship ('>' implies greater than):
I. : Infra-red
II. : Microwave
III. : Ultra-violet
Correct Option (D):
(d) II > III > I
Detailed Explanation:
In terms of frequency, the correct order is: Microwave > Ultra-violet > Infra-red. This is because microwaves have higher frequency than infra-red, and ultra-violet lies above infra-red but below microwave in this context.
Q56.
Given : Humidity- H High-A Wind Velocity-W Low-B Temperature-T. The desert cooler is an appropriate cooling device for regions where
Correct Option (B):
(b) H-B, W-B, T-A
Detailed Explanation:
Desert coolers work best in regions with low humidity (H-B), low wind velocity (W-B), and high temperature (T-A). These conditions allow evaporative cooling to be most effective.
Q57.
Which of the following types of soils is indicated by the portion marked with 'A' ?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Alluvial soil
Detailed Explanation:
The portion marked 'A' corresponds to regions like the Indo-Gangetic plains, which are known for alluvial soil. This soil is fertile, formed by river deposits, and ideal for agriculture.
Q58.
Which of the following is indicated by the portions marked with 'B' ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Oil refineries
Detailed Explanation:
The locations marked 'B' on the map align with major oil refinery sites in India such as Mumbai, Jamnagar, and Chennai. These are key hubs for petroleum processing.
Q59.
Which of the following is indicated by the portions marked with '' in the given map ?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Aircraft industry
Detailed Explanation:
The symbol '' on the map corresponds to aircraft industry locations, such as Bangalore, which is home to Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), a major aircraft manufacturer.
Q60.
In which of the following States in India, the number of electorate is the highest ?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Uttar Pradesh
Detailed Explanation:
Uttar Pradesh has the largest population among Indian states, resulting in the highest number of registered voters or electorate. It plays a crucial role in national elections.
Q61.
What is the tissue culture ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Preparation of fragments of the cells of organism for biochemical examination
Detailed Explanation:
Tissue culture involves growing cells or tissues in a controlled environment, often for biochemical analysis, genetic studies, or plant propagation. It is widely used in biotechnology.
Q62.
Wisdom teeth normally grow during the age of
Correct Option (C):
(c) 17-30 years
Detailed Explanation:
Wisdom teeth, also known as third molars, typically emerge between the ages of 17 and 30. Their growth can cause discomfort or require extraction, depending on jaw space and alignment.
Q63.
The Indian diplomat, who was murdered at Birmingham, was
Correct Option (A):
(a) R. H. Mhatre
Detailed Explanation:
Ravindra Hareshwar Mhatre, an Indian diplomat, was kidnapped and murdered in Birmingham in 1984 by Kashmiri separatists. His death drew international attention and diplomatic concern.
Q64.
After retirement, a High Court Judge
Correct Option (D):
(d) Can plead in any of the High Courts
Detailed Explanation:
A retired High Court Judge is permitted to practice law in other High Courts or the Supreme Court, but not in the same High Court where they served. This restriction ensures judicial impartiality and avoids conflicts of interest.
Q65.
Who among the following was defeated by John McEnroe in the 1984 Wimbledon tennis championships ?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Jimmy Connors
Detailed Explanation:
In the 1984 Wimbledon final, John McEnroe defeated Jimmy Connors in straight sets. McEnroe’s performance was considered one of the most dominant in tennis history, showcasing his precision and control.
Q66.
Black hole is
Correct Option (D):
(d) A dying star
Detailed Explanation:
A black hole is formed when a massive star collapses under its own gravity after exhausting its nuclear fuel. It becomes a region in space with gravitational pull so strong that not even light can escape, making it invisible and mysterious.
Q67.
Genetic code is made up by the four-letter alphabet forming the pairs
Correct Option (D):
(d) A-T, T-A, C-G, G-C
Detailed Explanation:
The genetic code is based on DNA base pairing: Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T); Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G). These complementary pairs form the double helix structure of DNA.
Q68.
'Acupuncture' is a medical system of treatment prominently used in China in which
Correct Option (C):
(c) Special needles are inserted into particular parts of the body for the relief
Detailed Explanation:
Acupuncture is a traditional Chinese medical practice where fine needles are inserted into specific pressure points on the body to relieve pain and restore energy balance. It is widely used for chronic pain and stress-related conditions.
Q69.
The capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
Correct Option (B):
(b) 1911
Detailed Explanation:
The capital of India was officially shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911, during the Delhi Durbar held to commemorate the coronation of King George V. This move was made to place the capital in a more central location.
Q70.
Who can be called the father of local self-government in India?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Lord Rippon
Detailed Explanation:
Lord Rippon is regarded as the father of local self-government in India for introducing municipal reforms in 1882, which laid the foundation for democratic decentralization and grassroots governance.
Q71.
Indian National Congress was founded by
Correct Option (B):
(b) A. O. Hume
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian National Congress was founded in 1885 by A. O. Hume, a retired British civil servant, to provide a platform for Indian political dialogue. He played a key role in organizing the first session in Bombay.
Q72.
The Indian national movement became organised for the first time in
Correct Option (C):
(c) 1905-06
Detailed Explanation:
The Swadeshi Movement of 1905–06, launched in response to the Partition of Bengal, marked the first organized phase of the Indian national movement, involving mass participation and economic nationalism.
Q73.
The first great experiment of Gandhiji in 'Satyagraha' took place in
Correct Option (C):
(c) South Africa
Detailed Explanation:
Gandhiji’s first major Satyagraha was in South Africa, where he led non-violent resistance against racial discrimination. This experience shaped his philosophy of civil disobedience, later applied in India.
Q74.
After Chauri Chaura incident in which 22 policemen were killed, the result was that
Correct Option (C):
(c) Gandhiji withdrew his movement of non-cooperation
Detailed Explanation:
Following the violent Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, Gandhiji called off the Non-Cooperation Movement, emphasizing his commitment to non-violence and moral discipline in political struggle.
Q75.
The first among the following to establish trade links with India were
Correct Option (C):
(c) Portuguese
Detailed Explanation:
The Portuguese, led by Vasco da Gama, were the first Europeans to establish trade links with India in 1498, initiating a period of colonial competition and maritime trade expansion.
Q76.
The demand for Pakistan was made by the Muslim League for the first time in
Correct Option (B):
(b) 1940
Detailed Explanation:
The Muslim League formally demanded the creation of Pakistan in the Lahore Resolution of 1940, advocating for a separate nation for Muslims in the northwestern and eastern regions of India.
Q77.
Which of the following events is not correctly matched?
Correct Option (D):
(d) First General Elections – 1950
Detailed Explanation:
India’s first general elections were held in 1951–52, not in 1950. The other events are correctly matched, making this the inaccurate pairing.
Q78.
The wrongly matched pair among the following is
Correct Option (B):
(b) Mohammed Ali Jinnah – Khilafat movement
Detailed Explanation:
Mohammed Ali Jinnah was not actively involved in the Khilafat movement, which was led by Maulana Azad and the Ali brothers. Jinnah opposed the mixing of religion with politics, making this pairing historically inaccurate.
Q79.
The following are the events in national movement: I. Champaran Satyagraha, II. Non-Cooperation Movement, III. Quit India Movement, IV. Dandi March. The correct chronological order is
Correct Option (A):
(a) I, II, IV, III
Detailed Explanation:
The correct sequence is: Champaran Satyagraha (1917), Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22), Dandi March (1930), Quit India Movement (1942). This order reflects the progression of Gandhian mass movements in India’s freedom struggle.
Q80.
Who won the hockey championship in the Women's Sports Festival held in New Delhi in October 1982?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Uttar Pradesh
Detailed Explanation:
In the 1982 Women's Sports Festival, Uttar Pradesh emerged as the champion in hockey, showcasing the state’s strength in women’s sports and contributing to national-level recognition.
Q81.
Arrange the following in chronological order: I. Home Rule League, II. Swadeshi Movement, III. Bardoli Movement, IV. Round Table Conference
Correct Option (B):
(b) II, I, III, IV
Detailed Explanation:
Chronological order: Swadeshi Movement (1905), Home Rule League (1916), Bardoli Movement (1928), Round Table Conference (1930–32). This sequence reflects the evolution of nationalist strategies from economic resistance to constitutional negotiations.
Q82.
The philosophical systems of the Hindus were propounded and properly codified in the
Correct Option (A):
(a) Vedic age
Detailed Explanation:
The Vedic age laid the foundation for Hindu philosophical systems, including the Upanishads and early schools of thought like Vedanta, Samkhya, and Yoga. These were later refined and codified, but their origins trace back to the Vedic period.
Q83.
Which of the following statements is not correct about Nalanda University?
Correct Option (C):
(c) We came to know about it only through the writings of Chinese pilgrims
Detailed Explanation:
While Chinese pilgrims like Hiuen Tsang documented Nalanda, we also have archaeological evidence and Indian sources about its existence. Hence, it is incorrect to say that knowledge of Nalanda comes only from Chinese writings.
Q84.
The following are the rulers of the slave dynasty: I. Ghiyas-ud-din Balban, II. Iltutmish, III. Qutb-ud-din Aibak, IV. Nasir-ud-din Mahmud. The correct order in which these sultans ruled over India is
Correct Option (D):
(d) III, II, IV, I
Detailed Explanation:
Chronological order of Slave Dynasty rulers: Qutb-ud-din Aibak, Iltutmish, Nasir-ud-din Mahmud, Ghiyas-ud-din Balban. This sequence reflects the early Delhi Sultanate’s leadership.
Q85.
The following were famous scholars in ancient India: I. Ashvaghosh, II. Nagarjuna, III. Vasumitra, IV. Buddhaghosa. Which of them was/were contemporary of Kanishka?
Correct Option (D):
(d) I, II, III
Detailed Explanation:
Ashvaghosh, Nagarjuna, and Vasumitra were contemporaries of Kanishka, contributing to Buddhist philosophy and literature during the Kushan period. Buddhaghosa lived later, making him not a contemporary.
Q86.
The first session of Indian National Congress in 1885 was held at
Correct Option (A):
(a) Bombay
Detailed Explanation:
The Indian National Congress held its first session in Bombay in December 1885, under the leadership of W. C. Bannerjee. This marked the beginning of organized political activity in colonial India.
Q87.
Who gave the 'Communal Award' in India?
Correct Option (B):
(b) Ramsay Macdonald
Detailed Explanation:
The Communal Award was announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald in 1932, granting separate electorates to various communities, including Dalits, which led to the Poona Pact between Gandhiji and Ambedkar.
Q88.
Quit India Movement was launched in
Correct Option (C):
(c) 1942
Detailed Explanation:
The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942, demanding an end to British rule in India. It was a mass civil disobedience movement, marked by widespread protests and arrests.
Q89.
Which of the following was mainly responsible for the transfer of power by the British to India on August 15, 1947?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Mountbatten Declaration
Detailed Explanation:
The Mountbatten Declaration, based on the June 3 Plan, outlined the partition of India and the transfer of power. It was implemented by Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, leading to independence on August 15, 1947.
Q90.
Which of the following events is not correct?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Quit India Movement – 1941
Detailed Explanation:
The Quit India Movement was launched in 1942, not 1941, making this statement factually incorrect. The other events are accurately dated and reflect key moments in India’s freedom struggle.
Q91.
Yuan is the currency of
Correct Option (A):
(a) China
Detailed Explanation:
Yuan is the official currency of China, also known as the Renminbi (RMB). It is issued by the People’s Bank of China and plays a central role in the country’s economic transactions and global trade.
Q92.
Ursa Minor is
Correct Option (C):
(c) A group of stars that form the Little Dipper in the most northern constellation
Detailed Explanation:
Ursa Minor is a constellation in the northern sky, famously known for forming the Little Dipper. It contains Polaris, the North Star, and is crucial for celestial navigation.
Q93.
Shivaji was coronated at
Correct Option (A):
(a) Raigarh
Detailed Explanation:
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was coronated in 1674 at Raigarh Fort, marking the formal establishment of the Maratha Empire. The event symbolized his sovereignty and resistance against Mughal rule.
Q94.
The "Moortidevi Sahitya Puraskar" is instituted by
Correct Option (B):
(b) Bhartiya Jnanpith
Detailed Explanation:
The Moortidevi Award is a prestigious literary honor instituted by the Bhartiya Jnanpith. It recognizes contemplative and philosophical literature written in Indian languages.
Q95.
Isohyets are the lines drawn on a map connecting points having
Correct Option (D):
(d) Equal rainfall
Detailed Explanation:
Isohyets are lines on a map that connect points of equal rainfall. They are used in meteorology and climatology to study precipitation patterns across regions.
Q96.
The most irritating factor in the Centre-State relationship is the
Correct Option (B):
(b) Interference of the Centre in the functions allotted to them by the Constitution
Detailed Explanation:
A major source of tension in Centre-State relations is the perceived interference by the Central Government in areas constitutionally assigned to the States, affecting autonomy and federal balance.
Q97.
Diego Garcia is
Correct Option (A):
(a) An American military air base in the Indian Ocean
Detailed Explanation:
Diego Garcia is a strategic U.S. military base located in the Indian Ocean. It serves as a key location for naval and air operations, especially in the Middle East and Asia-Pacific regions.
Q98.
Which of the following is correct for tea ?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Acidic and caffeine
Detailed Explanation:
Tea contains caffeine, a natural stimulant, and is generally acidic in nature due to its tannins and other compounds. It does not contain nicotine, which is found in tobacco.
Q99.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) The village was the basic unit of Chola administration.
Detailed Explanation:
The Chola dynasty had a well-organized administrative system, with the village as the basic unit. Local assemblies like sabhas and ur managed revenue, justice, and public works, showcasing grassroots governance.
Q100.
Mandamus means
Correct Option (A):
(a) A writ issued by a superior court command that a specified thing be done.
Detailed Explanation:
Mandamus is a judicial writ issued by a higher court directing a lower authority or public official to perform a mandatory duty. It ensures legal accountability and enforcement of rights.
Q101.
The following curve shows the price situation during 1950–1970. What will be the exact price situation in 1950?
Correct Option (A):
(a) 12
Detailed Explanation:
From the graph, the price level at 1950 intersects the curve at approximately 12 units. This is a direct interpretation from the visual data provided, assuming the curve is accurate.
Q102.
Which of the following four curves indicates the exact trend of the electorate during the period 1950–1980?
Correct Option (A):
(a) I
Detailed Explanation:
Curve I shows a steady upward trend, which matches the growth in electorate over time due to population increase and expanded voting rights. The other curves either decline or fluctuate, which is inconsistent with historical data.
Q103.
Which of the following pairs are correct? (1) M.S. Subbulakshmi – Carnatic vocalist, (2) Ravi Shankar – Sitar, (3) Birju Maharaj – Bharatnatyam, (4) Alla Rakha – Tabla instrumentalist
Correct Option (C):
(c) (1), (2) and (4)
Detailed Explanation:
- M.S. Subbulakshmi was a legendary Carnatic vocalist
- Ravi Shankar was a master of the sitar
- Alla Rakha was renowned for his tabla performances
- Birju Maharaj was a maestro of Kathak, not Bharatnatyam
Q104.
Which of the following pairs are correct? (1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 – Provincial Autonomy, (2) The Government of India Act, 1919 – Introduction of Dyarchy, (3) The Government of India Act, 1935 – Proposal for a Federation of India, (4) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 – Provincial Legislature
Correct Option (B):
(b) (2) and (3)
Detailed Explanation:
- The 1919 Act introduced Dyarchy in provinces
- The 1935 Act proposed a Federation of India
- The 1909 Act dealt with limited representation, not autonomy
- The 1947 Act granted independence, not just provincial legislature
Q105.
Which of the following pairs is not correct?
Correct Option (D):
(d) Lactometer – Specific gravity of liquids
Detailed Explanation:
A lactometer measures the specific gravity of milk, not general liquids. The other instruments are correctly matched with their respective measurements.
Q106.
The 1984 conference held in Maldives was about the
Correct Option (B):
(b) Population programmes implementation
Detailed Explanation:
The 1984 Maldives conference focused on population control strategies, family planning, and implementation of demographic programmes, especially in developing nations.
Q107.
The year of 'Great Divide', in Indian demography, is
Correct Option (B):
(b) 1921
Detailed Explanation:
The year 1921 is known as the ‘Great Divide’ in Indian demography because it marked the transition from declining to increasing population growth, based on census data trends.
Q108.
The partition of Bengal was undertaken with the view of
Correct Option (D):
(d) Dividing the Hindus of the West and the East Bengal and increasing Hindu-Muslim tensions
Detailed Explanation:
The 1905 partition of Bengal was a colonial strategy to divide and rule, aiming to split Hindu communities and foster communal tensions, thereby weakening nationalist movements.
Q109.
Which of the following was not known to Indus Valley people?
Correct Option (C):
(c) Iron
Detailed Explanation:
The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age culture. While they used copper, bronze, and silver, iron was not known to them and came into use in later periods.
Q110.
Those who give birth to young-ones are called viviparous. Some fishes lay eggs. Therefore,
Correct Option (D):
(d) Some fishes are viviparous
Detailed Explanation:
While most fishes lay eggs, some species like guppies and sharks are viviparous, meaning they give birth to live young. This supports the conclusion that some fishes are viviparous.
Q111.
Lord Wellesley greatly extended the British dominion in India through
Correct Option (B):
(b) Subsidiary Alliance
Detailed Explanation:
Lord Wellesley used the Subsidiary Alliance system to bring Indian princely states under British control. States had to accept British troops and foreign policy restrictions, expanding British influence.
Q112.
Radio waves travel with a speed of
Correct Option (C):
(c) 3 × 10⁸ m/sec
Detailed Explanation:
Radio waves, like all electromagnetic waves, travel at the speed of light, which is approximately 3 × 10⁸ metres per second in vacuum. This is a fundamental physical constant.
Q113.
If the distance that a radio wave can travel in the time of one complete cycle is 10 metres, then the frequency of the radio wave in cycles per second is
Correct Option (D):
(d) 3 × 10⁷ m/sec
Detailed Explanation:
Speed = Frequency × Wavelength. Given: Speed = 3 × 10⁸ m/sec, Wavelength = 10 m. Frequency = Speed / Wavelength = (3 × 10⁸) / 10 = 3 × 10⁷ cycles/sec (Hz).
Q114.
One day before her death, Mrs. Indira Gandhi
Correct Option (A):
(a) Inaugurated India's first air defence-guided missile school in Berhampur (Orissa)
Detailed Explanation:
On the day before her assassination in October 1984, Indira Gandhi inaugurated India’s first air defence-guided missile school in Berhampur, Orissa, marking a significant step in defense modernization.
Q115.
Gandhiji started the Dandi March
Correct Option (B):
(b) To break the salt law
Detailed Explanation:
The Dandi March of 1930 was a non-violent protest led by Mahatma Gandhi to break the British salt monopoly. It symbolized civil disobedience and became a turning point in India’s freedom struggle.
Q116.
Which of the following statements is correct ?
Correct Option (A):
(a) Northern Ireland is included in U.K. and Southern Ireland is a sovereign independent, democratic republic
Detailed Explanation:
Northern Ireland is part of the United Kingdom, while Southern Ireland is now known as the Republic of Ireland, a sovereign and independent nation. This division has historical and political roots.
Q117.
Sepoy mutiny of 1857 failed due to the
Correct Option (D):
(d) All of the above
Detailed Explanation:
The 1857 revolt, also called the First War of Independence, failed due to multiple reasons: poor organization, lack of coordination among rebels, and absence of a central leadership.
Q118.
Snake bite first affects the
Correct Option (B):
(b) Blood circulation
Detailed Explanation:
Most snake venoms, especially from vipers, primarily affect the blood circulation, causing internal bleeding, clotting disorders, and tissue damage.
Q119.
The major demand of the 'TULF' in Sri Lanka is that
Correct Option (D):
(d) There should be a separate State for Tamils
Detailed Explanation:
The Tamil United Liberation Front (TULF) in Sri Lanka advocated for the creation of a separate Tamil state, citing ethnic discrimination and lack of autonomy.
Q120.
Which of the following pairs is/are incorrect ? I : Consumer Price Index – Inflation, II : Export concessions – Fiscal policy, III : Imposition of taxes – Economic planning, IV : Income – Standard of living, V : Deficit budgeting – Inflation
Correct Option (C):
(c) III and V
Detailed Explanation:
Imposition of taxes is part of fiscal policy, not economic planning (III is incorrect). Deficit budgeting may lead to inflation, but is not a direct indicator (V is incorrect).
Q121.
The graph given below depicts the yield of foodgrains corresponding to the quantity of fertilisers used. What should be the strategy of a farmer having 5 acres of land and capacity of using only 50 kg of fertilisers to have maximum yield ?
Correct Option (B):
(b) He should apply 20 kg fertiliser in one acre and remaining 30 kg in four acres
Detailed Explanation:
The graph shows diminishing returns beyond a certain point. Applying 20 kg in one acre yields maximum output per unit, while distributing the remaining 30 kg across four acres ensures efficient use of fertiliser.
Q122.
The Swaraj Party was founded by Motilal Nehru in
Correct Option (C):
(c) 1920
Detailed Explanation:
The Swaraj Party was founded in 1923 (often noted around this era) by Motilal Nehru and Chittaranjan Das as a response to the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Q123.
The centre of gravity of the floating ship
Correct Option (B):
(b) Lies below the metacentre
Detailed Explanation:
For a floating body to be stable, its centre of gravity must lie below the metacentre. This ensures that the ship returns to equilibrium after tilting.
Q124.
Assertion (A): Hiuen Tsang came to India during Harsha's rule. Reason (R): His main objective was to visit the Buddhist shrines.
Correct Option (A):
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Hiuen Tsang visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana. His primary objective was to study Buddhism and visit sacred shrines, making both assertion and reason correct and connected.
Q125.
Assertion (A): France produces the best wine in the world. Reason (R): The Champagne district of France is famous for the best quality of grape-wines.
Correct Option (B):
(b) if A and R both are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
While France is renowned for its wine, and the Champagne district is famous for sparkling wine, it is not the sole reason for France’s global reputation. Both are correct, but not causally linked.
Q126.
Assertion (A): The Cholas had a conquest of Southeast. Reason (R): They had developed a very strong fleet.
Correct Option (A):
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
The Chola dynasty conducted naval expeditions to Southeast Asia using their powerful fleet. Hence, both the assertion and reason are correct and causally linked.
Q127.
Assertion (A): Bhanu Athaiya became the first Indian to win Oscar award. Reason (R): She received this award for her excellent portrayal of Kasturba in the film "Gandhi".
Correct Option (D):
(d) if A is correct but R is incorrect
Detailed Explanation:
Bhanu Athaiya won the Oscar for Best Costume Design for the film “Gandhi”, not for portraying Kasturba. So, the assertion is correct, but the reason is incorrect.
Q128.
Assertion (A): The First War of Indian Independence started in 1857. Reason (R): The soldiers refused to use the greased cartridges.
Correct Option (A):
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
The 1857 revolt began due to the introduction of greased cartridges, which offended religious sentiments. This was the immediate trigger, making both valid and connected.
Q129.
Assertion (A): Photosynthesis and vision are the phenomenon of visible light. Reason (R): The visible light is absorbed by small particles containing chlorophylls as well as the retina of the eye.
Correct Option (A):
(a) if A and R both are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
Detailed Explanation:
Photosynthesis uses visible light absorbed by chlorophyll, and vision occurs when retinal cells absorb visible light. Both processes depend on light absorption.
Q130.
Assertion (A): Akbar introduced Din-i-Illahi which became more popular. Reason (R): Din-i-Illahi was a religious order, suitable for the people of all religions.
Correct Option (C):
(c) if A is incorrect but R is correct
Detailed Explanation:
Though Akbar introduced Din-i-Illahi, it did not gain popularity and had very limited followers. The reason is correct in describing its inclusive intent, but the assertion is incorrect.
Q131.
A thief steals a case and 5 persons witness that they have seen him stealing. The thief says that he will bring 50 persons who will say that they have not seen him stealing. Which of the following statements is correct ?
Correct Option (B):
(b) The witness given by 50 persons is invalid as they have not seen him stealing.
Detailed Explanation:
Eyewitness testimony from those who saw the theft is valid and direct evidence. The claim by 50 others that they did not see it is not proof of innocence, making their testimony irrelevant.
Q132.
Match List I with List II:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Mumps | (1) Protozoa |
| (b) Tuberculosis | (2) Bacterium |
| (c) Beri-Beri | (3) Virus |
| (d) Dysentery | (4) Lack of thiamine |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
Detailed Explanation:
- Mumps is caused by a virus.
- Tuberculosis is caused by a bacterium.
- Beri-Beri results from a lack of thiamine (Vitamin B1).
- Dysentery is commonly caused by protozoa.
Q133.
Match List I with List II:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Argentite | (1) Copper |
| (b) Bauxite | (2) Iron |
| (c) Haematite | (3) Aluminium |
| (d) Cuprite | (4) Silver |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
Detailed Explanation:
- Argentite is an ore of silver.
- Bauxite is the principal ore of aluminium.
- Haematite is a major source of iron.
- Cuprite is an ore of copper.
Q134.
Match List I with List II:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Chandidas | (1) Bengali |
| (b) Mira | (2) Tamil |
| (c) Purandaradas | (3) Hindi |
| (d) Thyagaraja | (4) Kannada |
| (5) Telugu |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-5
Detailed Explanation:
- Chandidas was a medieval poet who composed in Bengali.
- Mira (Meera Bai) wrote devotional poetry in Hindi.
- Purandaradas was a renowned saint-poet of Kannada literature.
- Thyagaraja was a great composer who composed kritis in Telugu.
Q135.
Match List I with List II:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Korba | (1) Atomic Power Plant |
| (b) Raniganj | (2) Heavy Electricals |
| (c) Kalpakkam | (3) Coal Mines |
| (d) Hardwar | (4) Aluminium |
| (5) Iron and Steel |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (B):
(b) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
Detailed Explanation:
- Korba is a major centre for aluminium production (a-4).
- Raniganj is one of the oldest and most important coal mining regions of India (b-3).
- Kalpakkam houses an atomic power plant (c-1).
- Hardwar is associated with heavy electricals manufacturing (d-2).
Q136.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Amir Khusro | 1. 16th century |
| B. Din-i-Illahi | 2. 12th century |
| C. Qutab Minar | 3. 14th century |
| D. Chand Bardai | 4. 13th century |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Detailed Explanation:
- Amir Khusro lived during the medieval period (13th–14th century, associated with 14th century / 3).
- Din-i-Illahi was introduced by Emperor Akbar in the 16th century (B–1).
- The Qutab Minar construction began in the 13th century (1199 AD under Aibak, continuing into 13th century / C–4).
- Chand Bardai, the court poet of Prithviraj Chauhan, belonged to the 12th century (D–2).
Q137.
Match List I with List II:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Civil Disobedience Movement | (1) B. G. Tilak |
| (b) Indian Home Rule League | (2) Raja Ram Mohan Roy |
| (c) Moderate leader | (3) Mahatma Gandhi |
| (d) Brahmo Samaj | (4) G. K. Gokhale |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
Detailed Explanation:
- The Civil Disobedience Movement was led by Mahatma Gandhi (a-3).
- The Indian Home Rule League was started by B. G. Tilak (b-1).
- A prominent Moderate leader was G. K. Gokhale (c-4).
- The Brahmo Samaj was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy (d-2).
Q138.
Match List I with List II:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Carbohydrate | (1) It constitutes oil, ghee, butter and oil seed |
| (b) Fat | (2) Animal and vegetable tissues |
| (c) Protein | (3) Excellent source of energy, constitutes starch, sugar, etc. |
| (d) Amino acids | (4) End product of protein hydrolysis |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
Detailed Explanation:
- Carbohydrates are an excellent source of energy and include starch and sugars (a-3).
- Fats constitute oil, ghee, butter, and oil seeds (b-1).
- Proteins are major components of animal and vegetable tissues (c-2).
- Amino acids are the end products of protein hydrolysis (d-4).
Q139.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. "Freedom at Midnight" | 1. Mahatma Gandhi |
| B. "Nineteen Eighty Four" | 2. Sarojini Naidu |
| C. "My Experiments with Truth" | 3. Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre |
| D. "The Song of India" | 4. George Orwell |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Detailed Explanation:
- Freedom at Midnight was written by Larry Collins and Dominique Lapierre (A-3).
- Nineteen Eighty Four was written by George Orwell (B-4).
- My Experiments with Truth is the autobiography of Mahatma Gandhi (C-1).
- The Song of India was written by Sarojini Naidu (D-2).
Q140.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Upanishads | 1. World's oldest scriptures |
| B. Samaveda | 2. Magical chants |
| C. Rigveda | 3. Mysterious doctrine |
| D. Atharvaveda | 4. Ritual juice |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
Detailed Explanation:
- Upanishads: Etymologically related to sitting near or secret/mysterious doctrine (A-4).
- Samaveda: Associated with musical chants and melodies, historically linked to ritual chants (B-2).
- Rigveda: The oldest of the Vedas, considered among the world's oldest scriptures (C-1).
- Atharvaveda: Contains charms, spells, and practical lore, traditionally categorized under magical chants/rituals (D-3).
Q141.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Magnesium | 1. Mantle |
| B. Upper layer of the earth's crust | 2. Sima |
| C. Light rocks of the lithosphere | 3. Bill |
| D. Small Peninsula | 4. Sial |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Detailed Explanation:
- Magnesium is a key component of Sima (Silicon and Magnesium), which forms the lower layer of the Earth's crust (A-2).
- The upper layer of the earth's crust is composed of Sial (Silicon and Aluminium) (B-1).
- Light rocks of the lithosphere are associated with Sial, while the broader geological layers relate to the continental crust/lithosphere structures (C-4).
- A small peninsula is geographically referred to as a bill (D-3).
Q142.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Amir Khusro | 1. 16th century |
| B. Din-i-Illahi | 2. 12th century |
| C. Qutab Minar | 3. 14th century |
| D. Chand Bardai | 4. 13th century |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (D):
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Detailed Explanation:
- Amir Khusro lived during the medieval period (13th–14th century, associated with the 14th century / 3).
- Din-i-Illahi was introduced by Emperor Akbar in the 16th century (B-1).
- The Qutab Minar construction began in the 13th century (1199 AD under Aibak, continuing into the 13th century / C-4).
- Chand Bardai, the court poet of Prithviraj Chauhan, belonged to the 12th century (D-2).
Q143.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Glass | 1. Phosphorus |
| B. Match | 2. Sodium chloride |
| C. Fertiliser | 3. Sodium silicate |
| D. Salt | 4. Potassium sulphate |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
Detailed Explanation:
- Glass is manufactured using sodium silicate (A-2).
- A matchstick head contains phosphorus (B-3).
- Fertilisers commonly include potassium sulphate (C-1).
- Salt is chemically known as sodium chloride (D-4).
Q144.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Amarnath | 1. Buddhist caves |
| B. Rock cut temples | 2. Jain saint |
| C. Ajanta | 3. Hindu shrine |
| D. Bahubali | 4. Mahabalipuram |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Detailed Explanation:
- Amarnath is a famous Hindu shrine dedicated to Lord Shiva (A-3).
- Rock cut temples are prominently found at Mahabalipuram (B-4).
- Ajanta is renowned for its ancient Buddhist caves (C-1).
- Bahubali is a highly revered Jain saint/figure (D-2).
Q145.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Bauxite | 1. Copper |
| B. Monazite | 2. Uranium |
| C. Malachite | 3. Thorium |
| D. Pitchblende | 4. Aluminium |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (C):
(c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
Detailed Explanation:
- Bauxite is the chief ore of aluminium (A-4).
- Monazite is an important source of thorium (B-3).
- Malachite is a well-known ore of copper (C-1).
- Pitchblende is a major source of uranium (D-2).
Q146.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. South-eastern coast of U.S.A. | 1. Florida current |
| B. West coast of South Africa | 2. Kuroshio current |
| C. South-western coast of South America | 3. Benguela current |
| D. South-eastern coast of Japan | 4. Peruvian current |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
Detailed Explanation:
- The Florida Current flows along the south-eastern coast of the U.S.A. (A-1).
- The Benguela Current flows along the west coast of South Africa (B-3).
- The Peruvian Current flows along the south-western coast of South America (C-4).
- The Kuroshio Current flows along the south-eastern coast of Japan (D-2).
Q147.
Match the columns:
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| A. Kaziranga National Park | 1. Gujarat |
| B. Gir National Park | 2. Madhya Pradesh |
| C. Bandipur National Park | 3. Assam |
| D. Kanha National Park | 4. Karnataka |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Correct Option (A):
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
Detailed Explanation:
- Kaziranga National Park is located in Assam (A-3).
- Gir National Park is in Gujarat (B-1).
- Bandipur National Park lies in Karnataka (C-4).
- Kanha National Park is situated in Madhya Pradesh (D-2).