68th BPSC Question Paper 2023 [With Solution]

Here you will get the solution of Set A of the 68th BPSC Question Paper.

1. The phrase ‘equality before law’ used in Article 14 of the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of

(A) Britain

(B) USA

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: ‘Equality before law’ is a legal principle that states that all individuals should be treated equally under the law, regardless of their social status, wealth, religion, or other personal characteristics. This principle ensures that every person has an equal opportunity to seek justice and receive a fair trial.

It is a fundamental principle of democratic societies and is enshrined in the constitutions of many countries around the world. In India, the principle of ‘equality before law’ is guaranteed by Article 14 of the Indian Constitution and it was taken from Britain.

2. What was the duration in the making of the Indian Constitution?

(A) 1 year 10 months and 12 days

(B) 2 years 10 months and 5 days

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The making of the Indian Constitution took almost three years (2 Years, 11 Months and 18 Days) to complete. The Constituent Assembly, which was formed to draft the Constitution, held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, and adopted the Constitution on November 26, 1949.

The Constitution came into effect on January 26, 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day in India. During this period, the Constituent Assembly went through a rigorous process of drafting and debating various provisions of the Constitution, seeking inputs from experts, and incorporating the diverse opinions of its members to create a document that reflected the aspirations and values of the people of India.

3. The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to

(A) the Chief Minister

(B) the Governor

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above.

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Council of Ministers in a State is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. This means that they are accountable to the members of the Legislative Assembly for their actions and decisions taken in the governance of the state.

The Council of Ministers is headed by the Chief Minister, who is the leader of the ruling party or coalition in the Legislative Assembly. While the Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other Ministers, they hold office as long as they enjoy the confidence of the Legislative Assembly.

4. Consider the following statements :

In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of

decision-making powers
system as a whole
judicial powers
administrative powers

Which of the above statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: S1: The 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India, passed in 1992, introduced the concept of Panchayati Raj institutions (PRIs) in rural areas, which aimed at the decentralization of administrative and decision-making powers to the grassroots level. Therefore, S1 is correct.

S2: The decentralization of power under Panchayati Raj also involves the transfer of responsibilities from the state government to the PRIs, making them more independent and accountable for their actions. Therefore, S2 is also correct.

S3: S3 is not correct as the 73rd Amendment does not deal with the decentralization of judicial powers.

S4: “In the post-73rd Amendment era, there has to be decentralization of administrative powers” – is also correct, as the PRIs have been given the power to perform several administrative functions, such as the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice, the implementation of schemes for poverty alleviation, and the maintenance of community assets.

5. The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes

(A) members directly elected by citizens

(B) members indirectly elected by citizens through their representatives

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The representation in the Rajya Sabha includes members indirectly elected by citizens through their representatives and members nominated by the President of India. Therefore, the correct option is (D) More than one of the above.

The Rajya Sabha, also known as the Council of States, is the upper house of the Indian Parliament. Its members are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the States and by the members of the Electoral College for the Union Territories. This means that the members of the Rajya Sabha are indirectly elected by citizens through their representatives.

Apart from this, the President of India can also nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha, who are persons having special knowledge or practical experience in fields such as literature, science, art, and social service. Therefore, members nominated by the President of India also have representation in the Rajya Sabha.

6. Which of the following is concerned with the Supreme Court of India?

(A) Appellate jurisdiction

(B) Original jurisdiction

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: All the options (A) Appellate jurisdiction, (B) Original jurisdiction, and (C) Collegium system are concerned with the Supreme Court of India. Therefore, the correct option is (D) More than one of the above.

The Supreme Court of India is the highest court of appeal in the country and has both appellate and original jurisdiction. Its appellate jurisdiction means that it has the power to hear appeals from lower courts and tribunals in both civil and criminal cases. Its original jurisdiction means that it can hear certain types of cases directly without any appeal from lower courts, such as disputes between the Union and State governments, disputes between two or more States, and cases involving violation of fundamental rights.

The Collegium system refers to the process by which the Chief Justice of India and a group of senior judges of the Supreme Court select and recommend the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary, including the Supreme Court and High Courts. This system has been evolved through a series of judgments of the Supreme Court and is not mentioned in the Constitution.

7. The minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions should be how many years according to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?

(A) 21 years

(B) 25 years

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: According to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the minimum age for contesting elections to the Panchayati Raj Institutions is 21 years. Therefore, the correct option is (A) 21 years.

Election Type	Minimum Age to Contest
Lok Sabha (House of the People)	25 years
Rajya Sabha (Council of States)	30 years
State Legislative Assembly	25 years
State Legislative Council	30 years
President of India	35 years
Vice President of India	35 years
Panchayat Elections	21 Years
Municipalities Elections	21 Years

This minimum age limit applies to candidates contesting elections to the posts of the Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, and Zilla Parishad. It is also applicable to candidates contesting elections to the Municipalities, as per the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act. However, it should be noted that the States have the power to increase the minimum age limit if they deem it necessary.

8. With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at the district level in India, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(A) The State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit.

(B) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman.

(C) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: All the given statements are correct with respect to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at the district level in India.

Option A: The State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it deems fit. This provision is mentioned in Section 10(1) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Option B: One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman. This provision is mentioned in Section 10(1)(b) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

Option C: C) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs. This provision is mentioned in Section 34(1) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019.

9. At what level does a Panchayat Samiti operate a Panchayati Raj structure?

(A) District level

(B) Gram Panchayat level

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: A Panchayat Samiti operates at the block level in the Panchayati Raj structure in India. It is also known as Block Panchayat or Mandal Panchayat. It is a local government body that oversees the functioning of gram panchayats within its jurisdiction. A Panchayat Samiti consists of elected representatives from the gram panchayats within its jurisdiction, along with a few nominated members. It is responsible for implementing development programs, conducting audits of gram panchayat accounts, and overseeing the work of the gram panchayats.

10. Which one of the following was established as the first programme of community development?

(A) National Extension Service

(B) Integrated Rural Development Programme

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The National Extension Service (NES) was established in 1952 as the first program of community development in India. The program aimed to encourage rural development by providing technical assistance and training to farmers and other rural community members. The program was implemented by the Ministry of Food and Agriculture in collaboration with state governments and other organizations. It was later replaced by the Community Development Program in 1952, which expanded the scope of community development to include a wider range of development activities such as health, education, and sanitation.

11. Which of the following are the objectives of the SEZ Act, 2005?

1.Generation of additional economic activity

2. Promotion of exports of goods and services

3. Creation of employment

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act, 2005 has the following objectives:

Generation of additional economic activity
Promotion of exports of goods and services
Creation of employment
Development of infrastructure facilities
Promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources.

12. What is the policy measure adopted by the Government of India to improve the system of agricultural marketing?

(A) Minimum Support Price (MSP)

(B) Maintenance of Buffer Stock

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The policy measure adopted by the Government of India to improve the system of agricultural marketing is the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act. The APMC Act provides for the regulation of agricultural markets and the marketing of agricultural produce through the establishment of market yards or market places and the licensing of traders, commission agents, and other intermediaries. The APMC Act aims to ensure transparency in transactions and fair prices to farmers for their produce.

Option (A): Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a price support mechanism used by the government to support the farmers by offering them a guaranteed minimum price for their crops to safeguard against any sharp fall in farm prices.

Option (B): Maintenance of Buffer Stock is a policy measure to ensure the availability of essential commodities like food grains, sugar, and oil at reasonable prices in the market.

Option (C): Public Distribution System (PDS) is a government-run program for distributing essential commodities like food grains, sugar, and oil to the poor and vulnerable sections of the society at subsidized rates through a network of fair price shops.

13. Which committee suggested the enactment of the Competition Act, 2002?

(A) Rangarajan Committee

(B) S. V. S. Raghavan Committee

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Raghavan Committee report highlighted the need for a competition law and policy framework in India, to promote competition and protect consumer welfare. The committee noted that competition was essential for economic growth and innovation, and that the absence of a competition law in India had led to the dominance of a few large players in many sectors.

One of the key recommendations of the Raghavan Committee report was the establishment of an independent regulator, the Competition Commission of India (CCI), to promote and regulate competition in the Indian market. The committee recommended that the CCI should have wide-ranging powers to investigate and penalize anti-competitive practices, such as cartels and abuse of dominant positions.

14. Match List-I with List-II:

List I	II
a. Grey Revolution	1. Onion production
b. Pink Revolution	2. Tomato and meat production
c. Silver Revolution	3. Production of eggs
d. Red Revolution	4. Fertilizers

(A) (a-4), (b-1), (c-3), (d-2)

(B) (a-3), (b-1), (c-4), (d-2)

(D) (a-4), (b-1), (c-3), (d-2)

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

15. Which of the following Five-Year Plans was focused on Human Resource Development?

(A) First

(B) Third

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: The sixth Five-Year Plan (1980-1985) was primarily focused on human resource development in India. The main objective of this plan was to strengthen the nation’s social and economic infrastructure by investing in education, healthcare, and social welfare programs. The plan aimed to reduce poverty and inequality by improving access to education and training, increasing job opportunities, and expanding social services. The plan also focused on promoting rural development and increasing agricultural productivity. Overall, the sixth Five-Year Plan aimed to create a strong foundation for sustainable development in India by investing in its people.

16. Which of the following States of India received the highest Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity flow during April to September 2022?

(A) Karnataka

(B) Tripura

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Karnataka received highest FDI inflow during the said period.

17. In which budget did the Finance Minister announce the Liberalized Exchange Rate Management System?

(A) Union Budget, 1991-1992

(B) Union Budget, 1992-1993

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: A liberalized exchange rate management system refers to a monetary system where the exchange rate of a country’s currency is determined by market forces of supply and demand, rather than being fixed by the government or central bank.

Under this system, the government or central bank does not intervene in the foreign exchange market to fix the exchange rate, but instead allows the exchange rate to float freely. This means that the exchange rate will fluctuate in response to changes in supply and demand for the currency in the foreign exchange market.

In a liberalized exchange rate management system, the exchange rate acts as a shock absorber to external economic shocks. For example, if there is an increase in demand for a country’s exports, the exchange rate will appreciate, making the country’s exports more expensive for foreign buyers. This may lead to a decrease in demand for exports, which will eventually lead to a depreciation of the exchange rate.

On the other hand, if there is an increase in demand for imports, the exchange rate will depreciate, making imports more expensive and decreasing demand for imports. This can help to balance the country’s trade deficit. In India it was adopted in Union Budget, 1992-1993.

18. Which of the following were goals of the Five-Year Plans?

1. Growth

2. Modernization

3. Self-reliance

4. Literature

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only

(B) 2, 3 and 4 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: All the statements are correct but none of the option is correct.

Read: Five-Year Plans

19. Which organization carries out the survey for determining the poverty line?

(A) NSSO

(B) NITI Aayog

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) is a statistical organization in India under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI). It conducts large-scale sample surveys to gather data on various socio-economic aspects of the Indian population. The NSSO is responsible for conducting surveys related to the determination of the poverty line in India, as well as other surveys related to employment, health, education, consumption, and other socio-economic aspects. The NSSO data is widely used by policymakers, researchers, and analysts to understand the socio-economic conditions of the Indian population and formulate policies to address the challenges.

20. The trade balance of India (merchandise and services) for December 2022 (provisional) is

(A) (-) 10.50 USD billion

(B) (+) 11.98 USD billion

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

21. At what percentage has Bihar registered the lowest Female Workforce Participation Rate for the year 2020-2022?

(A) 4% in rural and 6-5% in urban areas

(B) 6% in rural and 8-1% in urban areas

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) data for 2019-2020 released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI), Bihar had the lowest Female Workforce Participation Rate (FWPR) in the country, which was 5.5% in rural areas and 10.3% in urban areas.

22. The maximum number of tax industries is in which district?

(A) Darbhanga

(B) Purnia

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

This question was deleted by BPSC after the release of Answer Key.

23. According to the National Family Survey-5 released by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on November 24, 2021, there has been a significant improvement in the sex ratio of Bihar. It has increased from – in 2015-2016 to – in 2020-2022.

(A) 1062, 1090

(B) 1040, 1070

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

24. According to the Bihar Economic Survey (2021-2022), what was the rate of growth of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) of Bihar in 2020-2021?

(A) 3%

(B) 2%

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

25. Which one of the following is correct for Bihar economy?

(A) The growth rate is one of the lowest in India at 2.5%.

(B) Bihar produces mostly primary goods.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: Key Points about Bihar Economy

The growth rate of Bihar has been one of the lowest in India, averaging around 5-6% in recent years and dropping to 2.5% during the COVID-19 pandemic in 2020-21.
Bihar’s economy is largely agrarian and the state produces mostly primary goods such as vegetables, fruits, and grains. The secondary and tertiary sectors are relatively underdeveloped in comparison.
The occupational structure of Bihar’s economy is largely stagnant from above, with a high proportion of people employed in agriculture and allied activities, followed by the manufacturing sector. The service sector, which is a major contributor to economic growth in other states, is relatively small in Bihar.

26. The Swadeshi and Boycott were adopted as the methods of struggle for the first time during the

(A) visit of the Simon Commission to India

(B) Partition of Bengal

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Partition of Bengal is the event when the Swadeshi and Boycott movements were first adopted as the methods of struggle in India. The British government partitioned Bengal in 1905 for administrative convenience and divide-and-rule strategy. This decision caused widespread protests and opposition in Bengal and other parts of India.

The Swadeshi movement aimed at promoting Indian goods and boycotting British goods as a means of economic protest, while the Boycott movement called for the boycott of British educational institutions, law courts, and other establishments. These movements had a significant impact on the Indian freedom struggle and paved the way for the non-cooperation movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920.

27. At the Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress (INC) held in 1906, the Flag of Swaraj for India was unfurled by

(A) A. O. Hume

(B) Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

28. During the freedom struggle, a parallel movement launched in the Indian States (in the States ruled by the Indian rulers such as Kashmir, Nizam’s Hyderabad, Travancore, etc.) was

(A) State People’s Movement

(B) Praja Mandal Movement

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The term states Peoples Movements Refers to a general situation where different movements were organised in the princely states. This were variously referred to as states Peoples conference (NOT MOVEMENT), praja mandals and lok parishads. Option “B” mentions PRAJA MANDAL which is the correct answer since other nomenclatures are not mentioned among the options.

29. Which of the following statements regarding the Indian freedom struggle is not correct?

(A) Gandhiji withdrew from the Non-Cooperation Movement due to the Chauri-Chaura Incident.

(B) Gandhiji gave his first major public speech at Banaras Hindu University.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: This question was framed in the light of Chauri Chaura incident. The Chauri Chaura incident was a violent confrontation that occurred on February 5, 1922, in the town of Chauri Chaura in the state of Uttar Pradesh, India. A group of Indian protesters, who were participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement, clashed with the local police, resulting in the death of 22 policemen.

The incident shocked Mahatma Gandhi, who was leading the Non-Cooperation Movement, and he immediately called off the movement. Gandhi believed that the use of violence went against the principles of non-violent resistance, which he had advocated.

Following the incident, the British colonial authorities launched a massive crackdown on Indian nationalists, and Gandhi himself was arrested on March 10, 1922, for sedition. He was subsequently tried and sentenced to six years in prison, although he was released after serving only two years due to health concerns. Hence, statement under option (C) is not correct.

30. Which one of the following was a journal brought out by Abul Kalam Azad?

(A) The Comrade

(B) Al-Hilal

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Al-Hilal was a weekly Urdu-language newspaper published by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad from 1912 to 1914. The newspaper played an important role in the Indian independence movement and was known for its outspoken criticism of British colonial rule. The British authorities banned the newspaper in 1914, and Maulana Azad was arrested and imprisoned for three years.

31. How did the study of history help in creating a feeling of nationalism in India towards the end of the 19th century?

(A) By reinterpreting history and refuting the British portrayal of Indians as backward, primitive and incapable of governing themselves

(B) By writing about India’s glorious past and urging people to take pride in their achievements

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (D)

Solution: The study of history played a crucial role in creating a feeling of nationalism in India towards the end of the 19th century. Some of the ways in which history helped in this regard are:

(A) By reinterpreting history and refuting the British portrayal of Indians as backward, primitive and incapable of governing themselves: Indian historians like R.C. Dutt and Romesh Chunder Dutt challenged the colonial interpretation of Indian history and presented a more positive image of Indian civilization. They argued that India had a rich and ancient culture and a glorious past, which had been distorted by British historians. This reinterpretation helped Indians to challenge the inferiority complex that had been created by British colonial rule.

(B) By writing about India’s glorious past and urging people to take pride in their achievements: Historians like Bankim Chandra Chatterjee and Rabindranath Tagore wrote about India’s great cultural and intellectual achievements, such as the Vedas, the Upanishads, and the Bhagavad Gita. They urged Indians to take pride in their heritage and to strive for a revival of Indian culture.

(C) By urging people to struggle and change the miserable conditions of life under British rule: Historians like Dadabhai Naoroji and Gopal Krishna Gokhale used history to show how British colonial policies had led to the impoverishment of India. They argued that the only way to improve the condition of the people was to struggle for self-rule and economic development. This call to action helped to mobilize Indians for the freedom struggle.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) More than one of the above.

32. Which of the following statements are not correct regarding the Non-Cooperation Movement in the towns?

1. Only the upper caste and the rich took art in the movement.

2. The council elections were boycotted even by the Justice Party of Madras.

3. Thousands of students left government controlled schools, headmasters and teachers resigned and lawyers gave up their practice.

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Non-Cooperation Movement was a mass civil disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in 1920. The movement aimed to boycott British goods, institutions, and symbols of authority, and to promote Indian self-reliance and self-governance.

The movement had a significant impact on Indian society and politics. Some of the key features of the movement were:

It was a mass movement that involved people from all sections of society, including peasants, workers, students, and intellectuals.
The movement led to the boycott of British institutions such as schools, colleges, and law courts. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their practice.
The movement also led to the boycott of British goods, which had a significant impact on the British economy. People began to use khadi (hand-spun cloth) as a symbol of resistance to British rule.
The movement saw the emergence of new leadership, such as Jawaharlal Nehru, Subhas Chandra Bose, and Vallabhbhai Patel, who played important roles in the Indian independence movement.
The movement was marked by a series of protests and demonstrations, some of which turned violent. The most notable of these was the Chauri Chaura incident, which led to the suspension of the movement.

Overall, the Non-Cooperation Movement played a critical role in the Indian independence movement, and it served as a precursor to the larger and more successful Civil Disobedience Movement.

33. “A Sanyasi who came to that district after a spell as an indentured labourer in Fiji, carrying a copy of Tulsidas Ramayana on his back from which he would recite verses to rural audience.” The peasant leader referred to here is

(A) Jhinguri Singh

(B) Yadunandan Sharma

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The question is asking about the peasant leader referred to in a particular statement. The statement describes a Sanyasi who came to a district after working as an indentured laborer in Fiji, and who carried a copy of Tulsidas Ramayana on his back, from which he would recite verses to rural audiences. This description matches the known biography of Baba Ram Chandra, a peasant leader in Uttar Pradesh, who was known for his recitation of the Ramayana to rural audiences. Therefore, the correct answer is (C).

34. Who was the founder of All India Harijan Sangh in 1932?

(A) Jagjivan Ram

(B) Mahatma Gandhi

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The question is asking about the founder of All India Harijan Sangh, which was established in 1932. The Harijan Sangh was an organization founded by Mahatma Gandhi to represent the interests of the “untouchables” or Dalits, who were considered to be outside the traditional caste system in India.

35. On February 20, 1947, Prime Minister Attlee announced the British Government’s decision to withdraw from India latest by

(A) August 1947

(B) January 1948

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

36. Who established Swaraj Dal in Bihar?

(A) Shri Krishna Singh

(B) Ramlal Shah

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Swaraj Dal was a political party formed in Bihar in the 1920s, which was committed to the cause of Indian independence. Shri Krishna Singh was a prominent leader of the Swaraj Dal in Bihar, and he played a key role in the state’s politics during the independence movement.

37. During the Salt Satyagraha in Bihar, in addition to making salt, the people chose to oppose the government by opposing which tax?

(A) Haathi

(B) Development

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (E)

38. The elected Government of Bihar formed by Shri Krishna Singh resigned in February 1938 for which reason?

(A) Participation in the Freedom Struggle of India

(B) For the release of political prisoners

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The government of Bihar was formed after the 1937 provincial elections, in which the Indian National Congress won a majority. However, the government resigned in February 1938 demanding the release of political prisoners.

39. Who saved the life of Gandhiji in Bihar during Champaran Satyagraha?

(A) Batak Mian

(B) Hamid Ansari

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Champaran Satyagraha was a movement led by Gandhi in Bihar, which aimed to secure the rights of indigo farmers who were being exploited by British planters. During this movement, Batak Mian, a local Muslim leader, saved the life of Gandhi by warning him of an impending attack.

40. Who led cultivators in Bihar during the Non-Cooperation Movement?

(A) Swami Vidyanand

(B) Raj Kumar Shukla

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Non-Cooperation Movement was a movement launched by Gandhi in 1920, which aimed to secure Indian independence by using non-violent means. Swami Vidyanand was a prominent leader of the movement in Bihar, and he played a key role in mobilizing cultivators in the state.

41. In ancient times, the area to the south of the Ganga was known as

(A) Takshashila

(B) Chola

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: None of the above options is correct. In ancient times, the area to the south of the Ganga was known as Magadha. Magadha was an important and powerful kingdom in ancient India, and it is known for producing great rulers such as Bimbisara, Ajatashatru, and Ashoka. The kingdom of Magadha played a significant role in shaping the political, economic, and cultural history of ancient India.

42. When did the use of iron begin in Indian subcontinent?

(A) Around 12000 years ago

(B) Around 6000 years ago

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (E)

Solution: None of the above options are correct. The use of iron began in the Indian subcontinent around 3000 years ago, during the Iron Age. This period is marked by the beginning of the use of iron tools and weapons, replacing the earlier Bronze Age technology. Iron objects from this period have been found in various archaeological sites across the Indian subcontinent.

43. According to the rock inscription in Sanskrit, composed around second century CE, Sudarshan Lake, an artificial reservoir, was repaired by

(A) Kanishka

(B) Rudradaman

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

44. The temple of Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwa near Allahabad are the important remains of the

(A) Gupta art

(B) Rashtrakuta art

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: The temple of Deogarh near Jhansi and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwa near Allahabad are the important remains of the Gupta art. The Gupta period, which lasted from the 4th to the 6th century CE, is known for its flourishing art, architecture, literature, and philosophy. The art of this period is characterized by a blend of Indian and Hellenistic styles, as seen in the temple of Deogarh and the sculptures in the temple at Garhwa. Therefore, the correct option is:

45. In which of the following battles are the main opponents not correctly stated?

(A) First Battle of Panipat: Babur and Ibrahim Lodi

(B) Second Battle of Panipat: Tipu Sultan and Marathas

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the Marathas and the combined forces of Ahmad Shah Durrani, the Afghan king, and Najib-ud-Daula, the Rohilla chief.

Tipu Sultan was not involved in this battle, as he was born over 30 years after the battle took place.

46. During the Delhi Sultanate, the designation ‘Muqaddam or Chaudhari’ was used for

(A) revenue officials

(B) village accountant

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: During the Delhi Sultanate, the designation ‘Muqaddam or Chaudhari’ was used for village headmen. They were responsible for the collection of revenue, maintenance of law and order, and general administration of their respective villages. They acted as intermediaries between the state and the villagers, and played an important role in the revenue administration of the Sultanate.

47. Tabaqat-i-Akbari, which has been sometimes considered more reliable than Abul Fazl’s Akbarnama, was written by

(A) Nizamuddin Ahmad

(B) Abdul Hamid Lahori

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Tabaqat-i-Akbari is a historical and biographical work written by the Mughal court historian, Nizamuddin Ahmad, during the reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar. The book is a detailed account of the prominent personalities and officials of the Mughal Empire, as well as the cultural and social practices of the time.

It is divided into three parts, with the first part containing information about Akbar’s ancestors and the second and third parts providing details about the personalities and officials of the Mughal court during Akbar’s reign. The Tabaqat-i-Akbari is considered an important source of information on the Mughal Empire and its administration during the 16th century.

48. Who among the following famous rulers founded a suburban township of Nagalapuram, near Vijayanagara, after his mother’s name?

(A) Harihara

(B) Bukka

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

49. In 1940, Patna Women’s College was founded by which of the following societies?

(A) Society of Jesus

(B) Irish Christian Brothers

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

50. Who among the following headed the two Boundary Commissions set up to delineate the international frontiers between India and Pakistan in 1947?

(A) A. P. Moon

(B) A. V. Alexander

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Radcliffe Commission was a British commission established in 1947 to determine the boundaries between India and Pakistan (including Bangladesh) after the partition of British India. The commission was chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe, a British lawyer and judge, and consisted of four other British and Indian judges.

The commission was tasked with determining the borders of the two countries based on various factors such as demographics, religious and linguistic differences, and geographic features. The commission was given just five weeks to complete its work, which was a daunting task given the complexity of the situation.

The Radcliffe Commission submitted its report on August 9, 1947, just a day before India and Pakistan were to gain independence from Britain. The report recommended the partition of Punjab and Bengal, and the creation of two independent countries, India and Pakistan.

The partition led to massive violence and displacement, with millions of people being uprooted from their homes and forced to migrate to the other side of the border. The Radcliffe Commission’s role in the partition of India and Pakistan remains controversial to this day, with some arguing that the borders it drew were arbitrary and contributed to the violence and displacement that followed.

51. Who introduced the system of Mahalwari Settlement in Bengal?

(A) Lord Corwallis

(B) Holt Mackenzie

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The Mahalwari System was a revenue settlement scheme introduced by the British in India during the early 19th century (1822). It was initially implemented in parts of North India, particularly in the United Provinces (present-day Uttar Pradesh) and Punjab by Holt Mackenzie.

Under the Mahalwari System, the land revenue was assessed and collected from individual villages or groups of villages by a village headman. The land revenue was fixed based on the productivity of the land, which was assessed periodically. The revenue was then collected from the cultivators of the land.

The Mahalwari System differed from the earlier revenue settlement systems, such as the Zamindari System and the Ryotwari System, in that it recognized the rights of the cultivators and gave them a direct stake in the payment of land revenue. The cultivators were allowed to retain ownership of the land and were given a share in the produce, which was subject to payment of the fixed land revenue.

The Mahalwari System was regarded as a more equitable and flexible system of revenue collection.

Parameter	Mahalwari Settlement	Permanent Settlement
Introduced by	Holt Mackenzie	Lord Cornwallis
Year of Introduction	1822	1793
Areas of Implementation	North India, particularly in United Provinces (Uttar Pradesh) and Punjab	Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha
Basis of Revenue Assessment	Villages or groups of villages called “Mahals”	Individual Zamindars
Ownership of Land	Cultivators were allowed to retain ownership of the land	Zamindars were recognized as the owners of the land
Responsibility of Payment	Village headman was responsible for paying the land revenue	Zamindars were responsible for paying the land revenue to the British government
Assessment of Revenue	Based on the productivity of the land, which was assessed periodically	Fixed revenue rates were determined based on the estimated value of the land, which remained unchanged regardless of changes in productivity
Impact on Peasantry	Gave cultivators a direct stake in the payment of land revenue and recognized their rights	Created a burden on the cultivators, who were at the mercy of the Zamindars and often subjected to exploitation

52. In 1940, Vinoba Bhave started individual Satyagraha from

(A) Nadiad in Kheda district, Gujarat

(B) Pavnar, Maharashtra

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: Individual Satyagraha was a form of Satyagraha that was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1940. It was a call for individuals to stand up against British colonial rule and demand India’s independence. The movement was unique in that it focused on individual action rather than collective action.

53. The Congress took a critical stand over the Montford Reforms in 1918, which led to break up with the old moderate remnants (Sapru, Jayakar and Chintamani) who formed the

(A) Servants of India Society

(B) Swaraj Party

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

54. The Cabinet Mission was sent to India for which of the following?

1. To establish a national government

2. To work out a constitutional arrangement for the transfer of power

3. To work out the details of Jinnah’s demand for Pakistan

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

55. Who among the following made an offer to Humayun that he would surrender Bihar and pay an annual tribute of 10 lakh dinars if he was allowed to retain Bengal?

(A) Sher Khan

(B) Bairam Khan

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Sher Khan, also known as Sher Shah Suri, made an offer to Humayun that he would surrender Bihar and pay an annual tribute of 10 lakh dinars if he was allowed to retain Bengal.

56. The Vikramshila University was established by

(A) Dharmapala

(B) Devapala

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

Solution: Vikramshila University was an important center of Buddhist learning in ancient India. It was established by the Pala king Dharmapala in the late 8th century CE, in present-day Bihar, India.

Dharmapala was a devout Buddhist and a patron of Buddhism. He established the university as a center for Buddhist studies and invited renowned scholars from all over India and other countries to teach and study there.

Vikramshila University flourished for several centuries and produced many famous scholars and practitioners of Buddhism. However, the university declined in the 12th century and was eventually abandoned. Today, only the ruins of the university remain, but it is still regarded as an important site of Buddhist learning and a symbol of India’s rich cultural heritage.

57. Who among the following was the first Governor of Bihar?

(A) Sir James David Sifton

(B) Sir Hugh Dow

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

58. Who was the author of Mahatma Gandhi and Bihar, Some Reminiscences?

(A) J. P. Narayan

(B) Karpoori Thakur

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

59. Which is the oldest church in Bihar?

(A) Luke’s Church

(B) Stephen’s Church

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (C)

60. The late actor Kumudlal Ganguly, also known by his stage name Ashok Kumar, was born in which of the following cities of Bihar?

(A) Munger

(B) Bhagalpur

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

61. Which of the following Union Ministries recently launched the YUVA 2.0 Scheme in 2022?

(A) Health and Family Welfare Ministry

(B) Education Ministry

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

Solution: The YUVA 2.0 Scheme is a government initiative launched in India to empower youth through skill development and entrepreneurship. YUVA stands for “Youth Upliftment through Vocation and Advancement,” and it aims to provide young people with the necessary tools and opportunities to enhance their employability and become self-reliant.

Key features and objectives of the YUVA 2.0 Scheme

Skill Development: The scheme focuses on skill development training for youth in various sectors, including manufacturing, construction, hospitality, healthcare, and more. The training programs are designed to equip young individuals with industry-relevant skills, thereby increasing their chances of gaining meaningful employment or starting their own ventures.
Entrepreneurship Support: YUVA 2.0 also promotes entrepreneurship among youth by providing them with entrepreneurial training, guidance, and financial support. The scheme aims to foster a culture of innovation and self-employment, enabling young people to create their own jobs and contribute to economic growth.
Industry Partnerships: The scheme encourages collaboration between training institutes and industries to ensure that the skill development programs are aligned with market demands. This partnership facilitates a smooth transition for trained youth into the job market, as they possess the skills sought after by employers.
Placement Assistance: YUVA 2.0 offers placement assistance services to the trained youth, connecting them with potential employers. The scheme establishes a strong network with industries and companies to facilitate job placements and bridge the gap between skilled youth and employment opportunities.
Financial Support: The scheme provides financial assistance to eligible youth for setting up their own businesses. This support can include seed capital, loans, subsidies, and other forms of financial aid, empowering young entrepreneurs to turn their business ideas into reality.
Mentorship and Guidance: YUVA 2.0 emphasizes mentorship and guidance to help youth navigate their career paths and business ventures. Experienced professionals and entrepreneurs act as mentors, offering insights, advice, and support to the aspiring youth, thereby enhancing their chances of success.
Monitoring and Evaluation: The scheme incorporates a robust monitoring and evaluation mechanism to ensure the quality and effectiveness of the skill development programs. Regular assessments and feedback help in identifying areas of improvement and making necessary modifications to maximize the impact of the scheme.

The YUVA 2.0 Scheme recognizes the potential of India’s youth and strives to create an ecosystem that empowers them to become skilled professionals and successful entrepreneurs. By focusing on skill development, entrepreneurship, industry partnerships, and financial support, the scheme aims to harness the demographic dividend and promote inclusive growth by unlocking the potential of India’s youth.

62. The Ministry of Home Affairs has completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of the country’s how many languages?

(A) 40

(B) 233

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) 576

Explanation: The Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) conducted by the Ministry of Home Affairs in November 2022 covered a total of 576 languages spoken in the country.

63. Which of the following committees submitted a report on gas pricing, recommending complete pricing freedom from January 1, 2026?

(A) Arun Goel Committee

(B) Kirit Parikh Committee

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Kirit Parikh Committee

Explanation: The Kirit Parikh Committee submitted a report on gas pricing, which recommended complete pricing freedom starting from January 1, 2026.

64. Which of the following cities was not conferred with five-star garbage-free city rank according to Swachh Survekshan, 2022?

(A) Surat

(B) Bhopal

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E) None of the above

65. The Prime Minister inaugurated the first greenfield airport “Donyi Polo Airport in which of the following locations?

(A) Dholka

(B) Itanagar

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Itanagar

Explanation: The Prime Minister inaugurated the first greenfield airport, “Donyi Polo Airport,” in Itanagar.

66. Which animal has been approved as a food animal by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) in November 2022?

(A) Himalayan yak

(B) Mountain goat

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Himalayan yak

67. India’s first floating financial literacy camp was organized recently by India Post Payments Bank in which of the following locations?

(A) Srinagar

(B) Andaman Islands

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Srinagar

68. The President of India inaugurated PARAM KAMRUPA Supercomputer facility at which of the following IITs?

(A) Kharagpur

(B) Bombay

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Guwahati

Explanation: The President of India inaugurated the PARAM KAMRUPA Supercomputer facility at IIT Guwahati.

69. In the 90th Indian Air Force Day, celebrated on 8th October, 2022, an hour-long air display of eighty aircrafts was carried out over which of the following locations?

(A) Gateway of India, Mumbai

(B) Dal Lake, Jammu and Kashmir

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Sukhna Lake, Chandigarh

70. Which month of the year is celebrated as Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month under the Poshan Abhiyaan of the Government of India?

(A) May

(B) September

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) September

Explanation: Rashtriya Poshan Maah or National Nutrition Month is celebrated in September as part of the Poshan Abhiyaan of the Government of India.

71. What is the name of recently launched final module of China’s Tiangong Space Station?

(A) Tianhe

(B) Wentian

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Mengtian

Explanation: The recently launched final module of China’s Tiangong Space Station is named Mengtian.

72. Which of the following is the world’s largest volcano erupted for the first time in 38 years?

(A) Mount St. Helens

(B) Mauna Loa

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Mauna Loa

Explanation: Mauna Loa is the world’s largest volcano and it erupted for the first time in 38 years.

73. Who among the following recently received the 2022 Booker Prize for his novel, The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida?

(A) Michael Ondaatje

(B) Pradeep Mathew

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Shehan Karunatilaka

Explanation: Shehan Karunatilaka recently received the 2022 Booker Prize for his novel, The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida.

74. What was the theme of the World Space Week, 2022?

(A) Women in Space

(B) Satellites Improve Life

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Space and Sustainability

75. Which of the following laboratories claimed a historic nuclear fusion breakthrough in December 2022?

(A) Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory

(B) Oak Ridge National Laboratory

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E) None of the above

Explanation: The question does not specify which laboratory claimed a historic nuclear fusion breakthrough in December 2022. Therefore, none of the given options is the correct answer.

76. Which of the following is Collins Dictionary’s word of the year 2022?

(A) Permacrisis

(B) Carolican

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Permacrisis

77. Which of the following countries, along with Senegal, launched the International Drought Resilience Alliance during COP27?

(A) Italy

(B) Germany

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Spain

78. The Embassy of which country applied a Gl Tag for Nihonshu’ for the first time in India?

(A) China

(B) Japan

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Japan

Explanation: The Embassy of Japan applied a Gl Tag for Nihonshu (Japanese sake) for the first time in India.

79. Which of the following space agencies announced that it had successfully used steam to propel its EQUULEUS spacecraft?

(A) NASA

(B) SUPARCO

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) JAXA

Explanation: JAXA (Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency) announced that it had successfully used steam to propel its EQUULEUS spacecraft.

80. What is the name of Tesla humanoid robot launched in October 2022

(A) Optimus

(B) Atlas

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Optimus

81. The first floating solar power plant’ has been built at which place in Bihar?

(A) Dilbarpur, Darbhanga

(B) Jamalpur, Darbhanga

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Kadirabad, Darbhanga

82. According to the Economic Survey for the year 2019-2020, which district has lowest per capita income?

(A) Sheohar

(B) Araria

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Sheohar

Explanation: According to the Economic Survey for the year 2019-2020, Sheohar district has the lowest per capita income.

83. According to the NITI Aayog SDG Report for the year 2020-2021, how much did the State of Bihar score?

(A) 22 out of 100

(B) 35 out of 100

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C)

84. Which sport has been included in the Khelo India Women’s Tournament for the first time?

(A) Cricket

(B) Track Cycling

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Track Cycling

Explanation: Track Cycling has been included in the Khelo India Women’s Tournament for the first time.

85. Which of the following has been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) Tag in August 2022?

(A) Applique (Khatwa) Work of Bihar

(B) Sikki Grass Products of Bihar

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Mithila Makhana

86. Which of the following has been added to the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2022?

(A) Astronomical Observatory at the Langat Singh College

(B) Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E) None of the above

87. In the year 2020, Bihar gained the rank out of 36 States in the Ease of Doing Business, awarded by Business Reforms Action Plan (BRAP).

(A) 23rd

(B) 24th

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E) None of the above

88. Ganga Jal Aapurti Yojana was inaugurated by Chief Minister Nitish Kumar on November 28, 2022 at which place?

(A) Lakhisarai

(B) Rajgir

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Bodh Gaya

89. Which of the following associations/boards declared equal pay for men and women players in October 2022?

(A) Bihar Cricket Association

(B) Board of Control for Cricket in India

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Board of Control for Cricket in India

Explanation: The Board of Control for Cricket in India declared equal pay for men and women players in October 2022.

90. The urbanization of the State has increased very rapidly in the last ten years. According to the 2011 Census, the level of urbanization in Bihar was just increased to percent, which has percent at present.

(A) 11-3, 15-3

(B) 12-2, 13-1

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) 11-3, 15-3

91. In the end of its mountainous journey at Attock, the Indus River is joined by which river from Afghanistan?

(A) Amu Darya

(B) Kabul River

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Kabul River

Explanation: In the end of its mountainous journey at Attock, the Indus River is joined by the Kabul River from Afghanistan.

92. Which one of the following is the wildlife campaign in the world launched in 1973?

(A) Project Tiger

(B) Lion Project

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above.

Correct answer: (A) Project Tiger

Explanation: Project Tiger is the wildlife campaign in the world launched in 1973.

Source: Licchavi Lyceum

93. Which of the following statements is true about troposphere?

(A) It is the topmost layer of the atmosphere

(B) The temperature at this layer increase with the height.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Its average height is 13 km.

94. The southern continent broken from Pangea is called

(A) Laurasia

(B) Gondwanaland

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Gondwanaland

Explanation: The southern continent broken from Panga is called Gondwanaland.

Source: Licchavi Lyceum

95. The Arctic region and the Antarctic continent are situated near

(A) the Sahara Desert

(B) the North and South Poles

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) the North and South Poles

Explanation: The Arctic region and the Antarctic continent are situated near the North and South Poles.

96. Which States of India have common border with Myanmar?

(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram

(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Mizoram

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram

Explanation: The States of Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, and Mizoram have a common border with Myanmar.

97. Which one of the following is the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore shore environment, coral reefs, salt marshes, sea grasses, marshes and mangroves?

(A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

(B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

Explanation: The Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is known as the world’s richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective. It comprises 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, forests of the nearshore shore environment, coral reefs, salt marshes, sea grasses, marshes, and mangroves.

98. In which type of climatic region do Uttar Pradesh and Bihar fall as per Köppen’s classification scheme?

(A) Cwg

(B) Aw

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (A)

99. India’s territorial limit extends towards the sea up to how many nautical miles/km from the coast?

(A) 16 nautical miles (about 25.9 km)

(B) 12 nautical miles (about 21-9 km)

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) 12 nautical miles (about 21.9 km)

Explanation: India’s territorial limit extends towards the sea up to 12 nautical miles, which is approximately 21.9 kilometers, from the coast.

100. Which of the following river valleys is rich in coal reserves in India?

(A) Damodar River Valley

(B) Son River Valley

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation: More than one river valley in India is rich in coal reserves. The Damodar River Valley, Son River Valley, and Mahanadi River Valley are all known for their significant coal reserves.

101. Which of the following statements is true about sugar industry in India?

(A) It is a weight-losing industry.

(B) Maharashtra has emerged as a leading sugar producer in the country.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation: Both options (A) and (B) are true statements about the sugar industry in India. The sugar industry is considered a weight-losing industry because the weight of sugarcane decreases during the process of converting it into sugar. Additionally, Maharashtra has emerged as one of the leading sugar-producing states in India. However, Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of sugar in the country, not the second-largest.

102. Towards the end of summer, there are pre-monsoon showers which are a common phenomenon in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka. Locally, they are known as

(A) Blossom showers

(B) Norwesters

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Mango showers

Explanation: Towards the end of summer, the pre-monsoon showers in Kerala and coastal areas of Karnataka are locally known as mango showers. These showers play a crucial role in the ripening of mangoes, which is why they are referred to as mango showers.

103. The atmosphere is mainly heated by the

(A) short-wave solar radiation

(B) reflected solar radiation

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) long-wave terrestrial radiation

104. Which of the following States of India borders with the maximum number of districts in Bihar?

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Jharkhand

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (D) More than one of the above

105. Which of the following is the last railway station of Bihar in the train route from Bhagalpur towards Mirza Cheuki?

(A) Pirpainti Railway Station

(B) Ammapali Railway Station

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Ammapali Railway Station

106. With reference to the mineral production in Bihar, consider the following statements :

1. Rohtas has the highest deposit of pyrites.

2. Limestone is found in Kaimur (Bhabhua), Munger (Monghyr) and Rohtas districts.

3. Gold deposits are found in Jamui district.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 3 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E) None of the above

107. Phalgu, a sacred river flowing in Bihar, is formed by the confluence of which the following rivers?

(A) Lilajan and Son rivers

(B) Son and Mohana rivers

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Mohana and Lilajan rivers

108. In Bihar, tea gardens were established for the first time in which of the following places?

(A) Thakurganj

(B) Bahadurganj

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Thakurganj

Explanation: Tea gardens were established for the first time in Bihar in Thakurganj.

109. Choose the correct order of the following districts of Bihar as per the ascending decadal population growth (2001-2011).

(A) Siwan < Kishanganj < Madhepura

(B) Madhepura < Kishanganj < Siwan

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Siwan < Kishanganj < Madhepura

Explanation: The correct order of the districts of Bihar based on the ascending decadal population growth (2001-2011) is Siwan < Kishanganj < Madhepura.

110. Which food industry dominates among the agro-based industries in Bihar?

(A) Cereal-based industry

(B) Pulses industry

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Cereal-based industry

Explanation: Among the given options, the cereal-based industry dominates among the agro-based industries in Bihar.

111. Large number of thin strips of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be

(A) a zebra of black stripes

(B) a horse of black stripes

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) a horse of less brightness

112. Shrillness of sound is determined by

(A) amplitude of sound

(B) wavelength of sound

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) wavelength of sound

Explanation: The shrillness of sound is determined by the wavelength of the sound waves. Higher-frequency sound waves with shorter wavelengths are perceived as shriller, while lower-frequency sound waves with longer wavelengths are perceived as deeper.

113. Which of the following photoelectric devices is most suitable for digital applications?

(A) Photovoltaic cell

(B) Photo-emitter

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Photovoltaic cell

Explanation: The photoelectric effect pertains to the release of electrons upon the impact of electromagnetic radiation, like light, on a material. A photoelectric device utilizes this phenomenon, effectively generating electricity or electric signals from light exposure. An exemplar of such a device is the photovoltaic cell, which harnesses light energy to generate electrical power.

In contrast, other options are essentially the converse of this principle; for instance, photo emitting or light-emitting diodes radiate light upon the passage of electric current—effectively the inverse of the photoelectric effect.

Similarly, a photodiode alters its electrical characteristics when exposed to light, acting akin to a light-controlled switch permitting the flow of electricity upon illumination, but it does not generate electricity autonomously.

Photodiodes contain a p-n junction that conducts electricity in a sole direction. Within a photodiode, this p-n junction barrier is present on both sides in the absence of light, analogous to an open switch where electricity flow is inhibited. Conversely, under illumination, one side’s p-n junction barrier diminishes, facilitating the passage of electricity similar to a closed switch.

Although this mechanism facilitates the operation of photodiodes, they do not inherently produce electricity. Photovoltaic cells, commonly known as solar cells, possess an extensive application in digital technology. For instance, satellite communication relies substantially on solar cells as a primary power source.

114. Ball bearings are used to convert static friction into

(A) drag

(B) sliding friction

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) rolling friction

Explanation: Ball bearings are used to convert static friction into rolling friction. By introducing small metal balls between moving parts, ball bearings enable smooth rolling motion and reduce friction compared to sliding or dragging friction.

115. A goalkeeper in a game of football pulls his hands backwards after holding the ball shot at the goal. This enables the goalkeeper to

(A) exert large force on the ball

(B) increase the force exerted by the ball on hands

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) decrease the rate of change of momentum

Explanation: By pulling his hands backward after holding the ball shot at the goal, the goalkeeper is effectively increasing the time of contact between the ball and his hands. This results in a decrease in the rate of change of momentum, allowing the goalkeeper to have better control and prevent the ball from bouncing off forcefully.

116. Which among the following is a positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element?

(A) Beta ray

(B) Alpha ray

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Alpha ray

Explanation: A positively charged particle emitted by a radioactive element is called an alpha particle. Alpha particles consist of two protons and two neutrons and have a positive charge.

117. Centripetal force is responsible to

(A) keep the body moving along the circular path

(B) fly the object along a straight line

(D) More than one of the above.

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) keep the body moving along the circular path

Explanation: Centripetal force is the force that acts inward towards the center of the circular path and is responsible for keeping a body moving along the circular path. It is required to maintain the necessary inward acceleration to counteract the tendency of an object to move in a straight line.

118. Which of the following energy changes involves frictional force?

(A) Potential energy to sound energy

(B) Chemical energy to heat energy

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Kinetic energy to heat energy

Explanation: The energy change from kinetic energy to heat energy involves frictional force. When two surfaces rub against each other, friction converts the kinetic energy of the moving object into heat energy.

119. A bus is moving along a straight path and takes a sharp turn to the right side suddenly. The passengers sitting in the bus will

(A) fall in the forward direction

(B) bent towards left side

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) bent towards left side

120. Before playing the orchestra in a musical concert, a satirist tries to adjust the tension and pluck the string suitably. By doing so, he/she is adjusting

(A) amplitude of sound

(B) intensity of sound

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) frequency of the sitar string with the frequency of other musical instruments

Explanation: By adjusting the tension and plucking the string suitably, the satirist is primarily adjusting the frequency of the sitar string. This is done to match the frequency of the sitar string with the frequencies of other musical instruments in the orchestra, ensuring harmony and coherence in the overall sound produced.

121. A form of matter has no fixed shape but it has a fixed volume. An example of this form of matter is

(A) krypton

(B) kerosene

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Kerosene

Explanation: Among the given options, kerosene is a form of matter that has no fixed shape but has a fixed volume. Krypton is a noble gas, carbon steel is a solid alloy, and both of them have definite shapes and volumes.

122. Some metal oxides react with acid as well as base to produce salt and water. They are known as amphoteric oxides. The examples of amphoteric oxides are

(A) Al₂O3 and ZnO

(B) Al₂O3 and CuO

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Al₂O₃ and ZnO

Explanation: Amphoteric oxides are metal oxides that can react with both acids and bases to produce salts and water. Examples of amphoteric oxides include aluminum oxide (Al₂O₃) and zinc oxide (ZnO).

123. Which gas contributes to global warming through its greenhouse effect?

(A) Nitrous oxide

(B) Methane

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (D) More than one of the above

Explanation: Both nitrous oxide (N₂O) and methane (CH₄) contribute to global warming through their greenhouse effect. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is also a significant greenhouse gas that contributes to global warming.

124. Acids react with metal carbonates to liberate —— gas.

(A) CO₂

(B) CO

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) CO₂

Explanation: Acids react with metal carbonates to liberate carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas. This reaction is commonly observed when an acid reacts with a carbonate compound, resulting in the formation of a salt, water, and carbon dioxide gas.

125. Which acid is described as HOOCCOOH ?

(A) Oxalic acid

(B) Acetic acid

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A) Oxalic acid

Explanation: The acid described as HOOCCOOH is oxalic acid. Oxalic acid has the chemical formula H₂C₂O₄ and is commonly found in plants such as rhubarb and spinach. It is used in various applications, including cleaning agents and metal polishing.

126. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution respectively. Which of them will turn red litmus to blue?

(A) Acid

(B) Base

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) Base

127. The odour of acetic acid resembles that of

(A) tomato

(B) kerosene

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Vinegar

Explanation: Acetic acid is the main component of vinegar, which is commonly used in cooking and food preparation. The odor of acetic acid is similar to that of vinegar, which is sour and pungent.

128. Why does dry HCI gas not change the color of dry litmus paper.

(A) Blue litmus becomes dry in the presence of dry HCI gas.

(B) No H3O+ ions are present. Litmus changes colour only in the presence of H3O+ ions.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) No H₃O⁺ ions are present. Litmus changes color only in the presence of H₃O⁺ ions.

Explanation: Dry HCl gas does not change the color of dry litmus paper because it does not release H₃O⁺ ions in the absence of moisture. Litmus paper changes color in the presence of acidic or basic solutions due to the presence of H₃O⁺ or OH⁻ ions, respectively.

129. Detect the odd one.

(A) Setting of cement

(B) Burning of coal

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E) None of the above

130. Which of the following statements about diamond and graphite is true?

(A) They have same crystal structure.

(B) They have same degree of hardness.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E)

131. The stomata open or close due to change in the

(A) protein composition of cells

(B) amount of water in cells

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) amount of water in cells

Explanation: Stomata are small openings on the surface of plant leaves that regulate the exchange of gases and water vapor. They open and close in response to changes in the turgor pressure of guard cells, which control their opening and closing. The turgor pressure of guard cells depends on the amount of water in the cells. When the cells are hydrated, they become turgid and the stomata open, allowing gas exchange. When the cells lose water, they become flaccid and the stomata close to reduce water loss. Therefore, option (B) is the correct statement.

132. Chlorophyll absorbs the sunlight.

(A) green and blue

(B) green and red

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) red and blue

Explanation: Chlorophyll, the pigment responsible for photosynthesis in plants, primarily absorbs light in the red and blue regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. It absorbs red and blue light most efficiently, while reflecting or transmitting green light, which is why plants appear green to our eyes. Therefore, option (C) is the correct statement.

133. Which of the following is not a correct match?

(A) Thick, hard stem with branching near base: Tree

(B) Weak stem which cannot stand upright: Creeper

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A)

134. Water reaches great heights in trees because of suction pull caused by

(A) absorption

(B) transpiration

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) transpiration

Explanation: Water is transported in plants through a process called transpiration. Transpiration occurs when water evaporates from the leaves and creates a suction force that pulls water up from the roots. As water molecules evaporate from the stomata in the leaves, it creates a negative pressure or tension that draws water upward through the xylem vessels. This process is known as the transpiration pull. Therefore, option (B) is the correct statement.

135. Which among the following is a character chloroplast which makes them qualified self-replication?

(A) Presence of DNA only

(B) Absence of RNA

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Presence of both DNA and RNA

Explanation: Chloroplasts, the organelles responsible for photosynthesis in plants, have their own DNA and RNA. The presence of DNA allows chloroplasts to replicate themselves by dividing and synthesizing new proteins. The RNA in chloroplasts is involved in protein synthesis. Therefore, option (C) is the correct statement.

136. The parts of the skeleton that are not as hard as bones and which can be bent are called as

(A) carpals

(B) cartilage

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) cartilage

Explanation: Cartilage is a flexible connective tissue found in various parts of the body, including the nose, ears, and joints. It is not as hard as bones and provides support while allowing some flexibility. Unlike bones, cartilage is not mineralized and does not contain blood vessels. Therefore, option (B) is the correct statement.

137. In lichen, a chlorophyll-containing partner, ……………… live together.

(A) fungus and a bacterium

(B) alga and a virus

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) alga and a fungus

Explanation: Lichens are symbiotic organisms composed of a fungus and a photosynthetic partner, usually an alga or a cyanobacterium. The fungus provides a protective structure, absorbs water and minerals, and provides a suitable environment for the photosynthetic partner. The alga or cyanobacterium, in turn, carries out photosynthesis and provides nutrients to the fungus. Therefore, option (C) is the correct statement.

138. Female Anopheles can be distinguished from female Culex because it sits

(A) at an angle with substratum

(B) parallel to the surface of substratum

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (A)

139. The most important cell type associated with the immunity of the body is

(A) platelets

(B) lymphocytes

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B) lymphocytes

Explanation: Lymphocytes are the most important cell type associated with the immune system of the body. They are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the body’s defense against infections and diseases. Lymphocytes are responsible for recognizing and attacking foreign substances, such as bacteria and viruses, and coordinating the immune response. Platelets are involved in blood clotting, and red blood cells (RBCs) are responsible for carrying oxygen in the bloodstream. However, lymphocytes specifically play a central role in the immune system. Therefore, option (B) is the correct statement.

140. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about muscles in human body?

(A) Muscles work in pairs.

(B) Muscles become shorter, stiffer and thicker when contracted.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) Muscles can only push the bone.

Explanation: Option (C) is incorrect. Muscles can both push and pull bones. Muscles work in pairs, with one muscle contracting and pulling while the other relaxes and returns the bone to its original position. This coordinated action of muscles allows for movement in different directions. Therefore, option (C) is the incorrect statement.

146. Which of the following statements is false?

(A) Every square is a rectangle,

(B) Every rhombus is a parallelogram.

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E)

147. In a family of some persons, B says that R is the daughter of my sister A, who is the only daughter of T. X is the child of T and Z, who is the grandmother of H. K is the mother of M, who is the only sister of H. X is unmarried. If S is the spouse of A, how is K related to S?

(A) Sister-in-law

(B) Wife of brother-in-law

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (B)

148. How many words, no matter if they are meaningless, can be formed by the letters of the word ‘DIARY”?

(A) 5

(B) 10

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (E) None of the above

149. Select the missing number from the given alternatives :

(A) 56

(B) 77

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C) 66

Explanation: To find the missing number, let’s analyze the given alternatives. The numbers 56, 77, and 66 are provided as options. If we observe closely, we can see that the pattern between the numbers is that each number is a multiple of 11. 56 is 5 times 11, 77 is 7 times 11, and therefore, the missing number should also be a multiple of 11. The only option that satisfies this pattern is option (C) 66, as it is 6 times 11. Therefore, the correct answer is option (C) 66.

149. Select the missing number from the given alternatives.

44	49	37
52	?	41
58	35	53

(A) 56

(B) 77

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans: (B)

150. Find the missing number in the given series following the same pattern:

15, 20, 32, 62, 118, 248, ?

(A) 322

(B) 368

(D) More than one of the above

(E) None of the above

Correct answer: (C)

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