UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper [Solved]

You are reading Set B of UPSC Prelims 2023 Question Paper.

Q1. In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghika , located?

(a) Andhra

(b) Gandhara

(d) Magadha

Answer: (a)

Solution: Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist center under the Mahasanghika, was located in Guntur district of Andhra near Amravati.

Q2. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements :

The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Solution:

S1: The statement is not correct. The stupa was found even before the advent of Buddhism.

S2: Correct, Stupa was generally a repository of relics. Stupas were typically constructed to house sacred relics of the Buddha or other revered Buddhist figures. They were regarded as important pilgrimage sites for Buddhists.

S3: Correct, Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. Stupas were often built as votive offerings or acts of devotion by Buddhists. They also served as commemorative structures to honor important events or individuals in Buddhist history.

Q3. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well-known as-

(a) Capital cities

(b) Ports

(d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras

Answer: (b)

Solution: In ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar, and Muchiri were well-known as ports. These cities had thriving maritime trade and were important centers of commerce and cultural exchange. They played a significant role in facilitating trade with other regions and were known for their maritime activities, including the export of goods and interaction with foreign traders.

Q4. Which one of the following explains the practice of “Vattakirutal’ as mentioned in Sangam poems?

(a) Kings employing women bodyguards.

(b) Learned persona assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters

(d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

Answer: (d)

Solution: The practice of “Vattakirutal” mentioned in Sangam poems refers to the act of a king who has been defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by fasting until death. This act was seen as a way for the defeated king to maintain his honor and dignity in the face of defeat. It was considered a form of self-sacrifice and an act of bravery.

Q5. Consider the following dynasties:

Hoysala
Gahadavala
Kakatiya
Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d)

Solution: None of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in the early eighth century AD.

The Hoysala dynasty emerged in the 11th century AD and ruled in the region of present-day Karnataka.

The Gahadavala dynasty was prominent in northern India from the 11th to the 12th century AD, ruling in the area around present-day Uttar Pradesh.

The Kakatiya dynasty existed from the 12th to the 14th century AD and established their kingdom in the Telangana region of present-day Andhra Pradesh.

The Yadava dynasty was prominent from the 12th to the 14th century AD and ruled in the region of present-day Maharashtra.

Q6. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs

Literary work : Author

Devi Chandragupta : Bilhana
Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
Melinda Panha : Nagarjuna
Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Devi-Chandraguptam is drama written in the sanskrit language by Vishakhadatta. It is not correctly matched.
Hammira-Mahakavya is a historical epic poem that narrates the life and exploits of King Hammira, who was a prominent ruler of the Rajput Chauhan dynasty. The author of “Hammira-Mahakavya” is Nayachandra Suri (a Jain Poet). It is correctly matched.
Melinda Panha is a buddhst text that captures dialogue between Nagsena and Manander. It is incorrectly matched.
Nitivakyamrita was written by Jain writer Somadeva Suri, so it is correctly matched.

Q7. ‘Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects’. The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(d) Vaishnavism

Answer: (b)

Solution: You are not supposed to read lots of religious text in order to answer this type of question. You need to have the basic understanding that the core of Jainism is non violence and empathy to towards creatures. Just focus on the Non Violence aspect of Jainism and Buddhism in the given table.

Aspect	Buddhism	Jainism
Founder	Gautama Buddha	Mahavira
Belief in God	Varied beliefs: some forms may have deities, while others are atheistic	Non-theistic, no belief in a creator God
Ultimate Goal	Attaining Nirvana (liberation from the cycle of rebirth)	Attaining Moksha (liberation from the cycle of birth and death)
Concept of Self	No permanent, unchanging self (Anatta)	No permanent, unchanging self (Anatta)
Non-violence	Emphasis on non-violence (Ahimsa) but not as strict as Jainism	Central principle, strict adherence to non-violence (Ahimsa)
Views on Karma	Belief in karma and its influence on future lives	Belief in karma and its influence on future lives
Scriptures	Tripitaka (Pali Canon) and various sutras	Agamas and Jain texts such as Tattvartha Sutra
Monastic Order	Monastic community (Sangha) for monks and nuns	Strong monastic tradition with ascetic practices
Rituals	Varied, but generally fewer rituals compared to Hinduism	Rituals and practices related to asceticism, fasting, and purification
Views on World	Focus on the suffering of the world and the path to end it	Recognition of the transient nature of the world and the goal of liberation
Spread	Spread throughout Asia, particularly in East and Southeast Asia	Predominantly practiced in India, with smaller communities worldwide

Q8. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city?

(a) Devaraya I

(b) Mallikarjuna

(d) Virupaksha

Answer: (a)

Solution: The dam across the Tungabhadra River was constructed by Krishna Dev Ray of Vijayanagar empire. Krishnadevaraya was also known for his patronage of architecture and public works. He commissioned many grand buildings, including the iconic Vitthala Temple at Hampi, which is known for its ornate pillars and intricate carvings. He also built many irrigation tanks, which helped to improve agriculture in his kingdom.

If you have gone through Tamil Nadu History Books, this would have been an easy question.

Q9. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to the Portuguese?

(a) Ahmad Shah

(b) Mahmud Begarha

(d) Muhammad Shah

Answer: (c)

Solution: Bahadur Shah was the ruler of the Gujarat Sultanate in the 16th century. During his reign, the Portuguese had established a presence in the region, particularly in the maritime town of Diu. The Portuguese had been expanding their influence and control over various ports along the Indian coast.

In 1535, the Portuguese launched a military campaign against Bahadur Shah to capture the strategically important town of Diu. Despite putting up a strong resistance, Bahadur Shah was eventually defeated by the Portuguese forces. Faced with the overwhelming strength of the Portuguese and their superior naval power, Bahadur Shah chose to surrender Diu to the Portuguese.

Q10. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

(a) The Regulating Act

(b) The Pitt’s India Act

(d) The Charter Act of 1833

Answer: (d)

Solution: The Charter Act of 1833 designated the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India. This act was a significant milestone in the governance of British India as it abolished the East India Company’s trade monopoly and introduced reforms in the administration.

Under the Charter Act of 1833, the Governor General of Bengal was given the title of Governor General of India, signifying an expanded authority over the entire British India territory. This act marked a transition from the Company’s rule to a more centralized control by the British Crown. The Governor General of India became the highest-ranking British official in India, responsible for the administration of the entire country.

Aspect	Charter Act of 1813	Charter Act of 1833
Renewal of East India Company’s Charter	Renewed the East India Company’s charter for another 20 years	Renewed the East India Company’s charter for another 20 years
Trade Monopoly	Continued the monopoly of the East India Company in trade with India	Ended the East India Company’s monopoly in trade with India
Christian Missionaries	Allowed Christian missionaries to enter India and propagate their religion	Continued to allow Christian missionaries in India, but with certain restrictions
Education Reforms	Directed the East India Company to spend a fixed sum for promoting education and the study of Indian languages	Established a fund for the promotion of education and allocated funds for the teaching of European sciences in India
Financial Contributions	Required the East India Company to make a payment of one lakh rupees annually to the British government	Increased the payment to the British government to three and a half lakhs rupees annually
Appointment of Law Commission	Established the Law Commission to codify and improve the legal system in India	Continued the Law Commission and expanded its scope to include judicial and administrative duties
Governor General of India	Retained the designation of Governor General of Bengal	Designated the Governor General of Bengal as the Governor General of India
Administrative Changes	No significant administrative changes were introduced	Introduced administrative reforms, including the centralization of power in the Governor General of India

Q11. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean?

(a) The principle of natural justice

(b) The procedure established by law

(d) Equality before law

Answer: (c)

Solution: The term “Due Process of Law” refers to the principle that individuals are entitled to fair treatment and procedural safeguards under the legal system. It ensures that every person is protected from arbitrary or unjust actions by the government or legal authorities.

While all the options listed have some connection to the concept, the essence of “Due Process of Law” is the fair and just application of laws. It is British in origin.

Aspect	Due Process of Law	Procedure Established by Law
Definition	Ensures fair treatment and procedural safeguards, protecting individuals from arbitrary or unjust actions	Refers to the process or mechanism set by law for the enforcement and application of laws
Fairness	Emphasizes overall fairness and reasonableness in the administration of justice	Focuses on the adherence to established legal procedures and formalities
Scope	Extends beyond mere procedural formalities to include substantive fairness	Primarily concerned with the procedural aspects of law enforcement and application
Fundamental Rights	Protects fundamental rights and liberties of individuals	Focuses on the enforcement and application of laws, regardless of their impact on individual rights
Procedural Safeguards	Requires notice, an opportunity to be heard, and a fair hearing before any deprivation of rights	Emphasizes following the prescribed legal procedures and rules
Protection against Abuse	Guards against arbitrary or unjust actions by the government or legal authorities	Aims to ensure that laws are applied uniformly and consistently, without arbitrary discretion or bias
Judicial Review	Allows for judicial review to ensure the fairness and legality of governmental actions	Primarily concerned with the legality of procedures followed, rather than the fairness of outcomes
Flexibility and Discretion	Provides flexibility and discretion to address individual circumstances and ensure justice	Focuses on the strict adherence to prescribed legal procedures, allowing limited flexibility or discretion

Q12. Consider the following statements

Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-I1 is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (a)

Solution: ‘Prisons’ is a State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India. So, the management and administration of Prisons fall exclusively in the domain of the State Governments.

According to Prisons Act, 1894, the state government has to provide basic facilities to prisoners.

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the `Constitution’ of a country?

(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.

(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.

(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Answer: (c)

Solution: The chief purpose of a constitution in a country is to define and limit the powers of the government. A constitution serves as a fundamental legal document that establishes the framework, structure, and functions of the government. It sets out the rights and responsibilities of citizens, outlines the organization of the government, and specifies the powers and limitations of each branch of government.

Q14. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Answer: (b)

Solution: The 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, is widely believed to have been enacted to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights. This amendment was introduced during the period of emergency in India and brought about significant changes to various aspects of the Constitution.

The 42nd Amendment aimed to strengthen the position of the government and curtail the powers of the judiciary. It introduced provisions that limited the scope and applicability of Fundamental Rights and expanded the authority of the government. This amendment was seen by critics as an attempt to restrict the independence of the judiciary and dilute the significance of Fundamental Rights. The 42nd Amendment Act is often referred to as the “Mini Constitution” or the “Constitution of Indira.”

Source: Licchavi Lyceum

Q15. Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India :

The National Commission for Backward Classes
The National Human Rights Commission
The National Law Commission
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Solution:

The National Commission for Backward Classes: This is a constitutional body. It was established under the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993 as an statutory body but it is now a constitutional body.
The National Human Rights Commission: This is a statutory body. It was established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.
The National Law Commission: This is a statutory body and not a constitutional body. It was established under the Law Commission of India Act, 1956.
The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission: This is a statutory body and not a constitutional body. It was established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

Aspect	Constitutional Body	Statutory Body
Establishment	Established by the Constitution of the country	Created by an act of the legislature or parliament
Constitutional Status	Holds a constitutional status and derives powers directly from the constitution	Operates under specific legislation
Powers and Functions	Typically has broader and significant powers and functions	Limited to what is mentioned in the legislation that created it
Independence	Generally independent and autonomous from government control or influence	Subject to control and supervision of the government
Amendments and Removal	Amendments to the constitution may be required for changes in composition or powers	Changes made through subsequent legislation
Examples	Election Commission, Supreme Court, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)	Central Information Commission, Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Q16. Consider the following statements :

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d)

Solution: None of the statements mentioned are correct.

If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, it does not invalidate all acts done by the President before the decision. The acts performed by the President in the performance of their duties before the decision would still be considered valid and legally binding.
Elections for the post of the President of India cannot be postponed on the grounds that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. The election of the President follows a specific procedure and timeline as prescribed by the Constitution and does not depend on the status of Legislative Assemblies.
The Constitution of India does not prescribe specific time limits within which the President has to declare their assent to a Bill. The President has the power to either give assent to a Bill, withhold assent, or return the Bill for reconsideration. The Constitution does not impose strict time limits for this decision-making process.

Q17. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, Consider the following statements :

When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c)

Solution:

S1: When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill: This statement is correct. The Rajya Sabha has the power to amend or reject the Finance Bill passed by the Lok Sabha. However, the Rajya Sabha cannot initiate or introduce a Finance Bill.

S2: When the Lok Sabha transmits a Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations: This statement is correct. The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to amend or reject a Money Bill. It can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept.

S3: In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for a Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the Finance Bill: This statement is correct. A joint sitting of both houses of Parliament becomes necessary in case of a disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha regarding a Finance Bill. However, a joint sitting is not required for the Money Bill. The decision of the Lok Sabha prevails in the case of a disagreement between the two houses on a Money Bill.

Q18. Consider the following statements:

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
hunting is not allowed in such area
people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (c)

Solution:

S1: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve,’ the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such a forest: This statement is incorrect. When an area is notified as a Community Reserve, the governing authority is typically a Community Reserve Management Committee, which includes representatives from local communities, forest department officials, and other stakeholders. The Chief Wildlife Warden may have a role in overseeing the management but is not the sole governing authority.

S2: Hunting is not allowed in such an area: This statement is correct. Community Reserves are established to protect biodiversity and wildlife, and hunting is generally prohibited within these areas to ensure conservation and ecological balance.

S3: People of such an area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce: This statement is correct. One of the objectives of Community Reserves is to promote the sustainable use of natural resources and provide livelihood opportunities to local communities. As a result, people residing in the Community Reserve area are often allowed to collect non-timber forest produce for their sustenance and economic activities.

S4: People of such an area are allowed traditional agricultural practices: This statement is correct.

Q19. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

S1: Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. This is correct statement.

S2: The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block: This statement is correct.

S3: The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States: This statement is incorrect. In reality, it is the Governor of the concerned State who is responsible for submitting annual reports to the President of India, not the Chief Ministers.

Source: Licchavi Lyceum

Q20. Consider the following statements :

Statement I : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.

Statement II : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

S1: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration: This statement is correct.

The Supreme Court has indeed held in certain judgments that while reservation policies can be implemented under Article 16(4) to provide opportunities to backward classes, they should also be balanced with the consideration of maintaining the efficiency of administration, as stated in Article 335.

S2: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of administration’: This statement is incorrect. Article 335 does not provide the definition of ‘efficiency of administration’.

Q21. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.

Statement II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

Solution:

S1: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production: This statement is correct. India has significant uranium deposits, but it depends on coal for electricity production.

S2: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity: This statement is incorrect. While uranium is used as a fuel for nuclear power generation, the level of enrichment required for electricity production is not fixed at 60%. The enrichment level can vary depending on the type of reactor and its design. Typically, for light-water reactors, the enrichment level is around 3-5% uranium-235, not 60%.

What is Enrichment?

Enrichment, in the context of nuclear technology, refers to the process of increasing the concentration of a particular isotope of uranium, known as uranium-235 (U-235), in natural uranium. Natural uranium consists of a mixture of two isotopes: uranium-238 (U-238) and uranium-235 (U-235).

Enrichment is primarily done to obtain a higher concentration of U-235, which is the fissile isotope capable of sustaining a nuclear chain reaction. The enrichment process separates U-235 from U-238 by exploiting their slight difference in mass. This is typically achieved using a method called gas centrifuge or by employing other techniques like gaseous diffusion or laser enrichment.

The enriched uranium obtained through this process can be used for various purposes, including nuclear power generation and the production of nuclear weapons. The enrichment level required for these different purposes varies:

Nuclear Power Generation: For most commercial nuclear power reactors, the concentration of U-235 in the enriched uranium fuel is typically around 3-5%. This level is sufficient to sustain a controlled chain reaction and produce energy through nuclear fission.
Research Reactors: Some specialized research reactors may require higher enrichment levels, typically in the range of 20% or more, to achieve the desired neutron flux and performance.
Nuclear Weapons: Enrichment levels significantly higher than those used in nuclear power generation are required for the production of nuclear weapons. Weapons-grade uranium generally refers to uranium enriched to around 90% or higher in U-235. Such high levels of enrichment are necessary to achieve a supercritical mass and produce a powerful explosion in a nuclear weapon.

Q22. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

S1: Marsupials are not naturally found in India: This statement is correct. Marsupials are a group of mammals characterized by giving birth to relatively undeveloped young, which then continue to develop and nurse in a pouch. Marsupials are mainly found in Australia, New Guinea, and nearby islands. They have not been naturally found in India. India has its unique diversity of mammalian species, but marsupials are not part of its native fauna.

S2: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. This statement is incorrect. Marsupials have a diverse range of habitats and can thrive in various ecosystems, including forests, deserts, grasslands, and even urban areas. While some marsupials, such as kangaroos, wallabies, and wombats, are adapted to grassland habitats, it is not accurate to say that marsupials can thrive exclusively in montane grasslands with no predators. Marsupials have evolved and adapted to different ecological niches in their respective native regions.

Q23. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

(b) The United Nations Environment Programme

(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature

Answer: (a)

Solution: The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), which develops the Global Invasive Species Database, is a specialist group belonging to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).

What is IUCN?

The IUCN is a global organization dedicated to promoting conservation and sustainability of the natural world. It is known for its work in assessing the conservation status of species, providing expertise on biodiversity conservation, and developing conservation strategies and guidelines.

What are Invasive Species?

Invasive species, also known as non-native or alien species, are species that are introduced to regions outside their natural range and have the potential to cause harm to the environment, economy, or human health. These species can outcompete native species, disrupt ecosystems, and lead to biodiversity loss.

Q24. Consider the following fauna:

Lion-tailed Macaque
Malabar Civet
Sambar Deer

How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Lion-tailed Macaque: The lion-tailed Macaqu is a species of Old World monkey found in the Western Ghats of India. It is primarily diurnal, which means it is active during the day, rather than being nocturnal or most active after sunset. Therefore, the lion-tailed macaque is not generally nocturnal.
Lion-tailed Macaque
Malabar Civet: The Malabar civet (Viverra civettina) is a critically endangered species of civet found in the Western Ghats of India. It is a nocturnal animal, which means it is most active during the night and sleeps during the day. Therefore, the Malabar civet is generally nocturnal.
Sambar Deer: The Sambar deer is a large deer species found in various parts of South Asia, including India. It is primarily crepuscular, which means it is most active during twilight periods, typically around dawn and dusk. While it may exhibit some activity during the night, it is not strictly nocturnal. Therefore, the sambar deer is not generally nocturnal.

Q25. Which of the following organisms perform a waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

(a) Butterflies

(b) Dragonflies

(d) Wasps

Answer: (c)

Solution: Honeybees are known for performing a waggle dance to communicate the direction and distance to a food source to other members of their colony. The waggle dance is a unique form of communication employed by honeybees to convey valuable information to their Nestmates.

Q.26) Consider the following statements:

Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
Some mushrooms have psycho- active properties.
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
Some mushrooms have biolumi- nescent properties.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Solution: Stop! Stop!

Do not just open your biology books of 12th class kept in shelf, neither start to search the types of Mushrooms on google.

This type of questions has all of the following answer, Why?

Just see past 10 years of UPSC Prelims Examination Question Paper and you will realize it. We call it Biotech type questions.

Q.27) Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :

They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c)

Solution:

S1: Correct, some Indian squirrels build nests by making burrows in the ground.

S2: Correct, Squirrels often store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.

S3: Correct, Indian squirrels, including the Indian palm squirrel, are primarily herbivorous and feed on a diet consisting mainly of plant material such as fruits, nuts, seeds, and tree bark. However, some quarrels are omnivorous.

Source: Licchavi Lyceum

Q.28 Consider the following statements:

Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c)

Solution: All three statements are correct. Some microorganisms, known as extremophiles, are capable of thriving in extreme conditions.

Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures above the boiling point of water, such as in hot springs or deep-sea hydrothermal vents.
Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperatures below the freezing point of water, such as in polar regions or in ice-covered lakes.
Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environments with a pH below 3, such as in acidic hot springs or sulfuric acid pools.

Q.29 Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

(a) Fishing cat

(b) Orangutan

(d) Sloth bear

Answer: (b)

Solution: Orangutans are known to exhibit tool use in their natural habitat. They have been observed using sticks as tools to scrape insects from holes in trees or logs of wood. This behavior showcases their problem-solving abilities and their adaptation to their environment.

Q.30) Consider the following:

Aerosols
Foam agents
Fire retardants
Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Solution: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a type of synthetic chemical compound that contain hydrogen, fluorine, and carbon atoms. They are commonly used in various industries and applications due to their specific properties and characteristics.

Aerosols: HFCs are used as propellants in aerosol products. Aerosols are products that contain a liquid or solid dispersed in a gas propellant. HFCs, with their low boiling points and stability, help in creating the necessary pressure to release the product from the aerosol container.
Foam agents: HFCs are used as blowing agents in the production of foams. Blowing agents are substances that create gas bubbles within the foam, resulting in its cellular structure. HFCs, when introduced into a foam mixture, vaporize and expand, leading to the formation of the foam.
Fire retardants: HFCs can also be used as fire retardants or fire extinguishing agents. They have fire suppression properties and can be used in certain fire suppression systems. HFCs are able to absorb heat and disrupt the chemical reaction that sustains a fire, helping to extinguish or control it.
Lubricants: While HFCs are not commonly used as lubricants in most applications, there are specific cases where they can be used as lubricants in certain systems. HFCs with appropriate viscosity and lubricating properties can be employed in specific industrial processes where compatibility with other materials and lubrication requirements are met.

Q.31) Consider the following statements:

Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: (b)

Solution:

Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake: This statement is correct. The Jhelum River does pass through Wular Lake, which is the largest freshwater lake in India.
Wular Lake
Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake: This statement is incorrect. The Krishna River does not directly feed Kolleru Lake. Instead, the lake receives water from various sources, including drainage canals and other water bodies in the region.
Kolleru and Pulicat Lake
Meandering of the Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake: This statement is correct. The meandering (curving) of the Gandak River has played a significant role in the formation of Kanwar Lake in Bihar, India.
Gandak River

Statement 1 is Correct: The main source of water for Wular Lake is River Jhelum. This lake also has a small island in its centre called the ‘Zaina Lank’.

Statement 2 is Correct: The Kolleru lake is a natural eutrophic lake, situated between the two major river basins of the Godavari and the Krishna, fed by two seasonal rivers and a number of drains and channels

Statement 3 is Correct: The Kanwar lake draws water from the confluence of the Gandak, the Bia and the Kareh river, is situated near Manjhaul, 22 km northwest of Begusarai, Bihar.

Q.32) Consider the following pairs:

Port: Well known as

Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company
Mundra Port : Largest privately owned port in India
Visakhapatnam: Largest container port in India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(d) None of the pairs

Ans: (b)

Solution:

Kamarajar Port: First major port in India registered as a company: This pair is correct. Kamarajar Port, also known as Ennore Port, is the first major port in India that was registered as a company under the Indian Companies Act, 1956.
Mundra Port: Largest privately owned port in India: This pair is correct. Mundra Port, located in Gujarat, is indeed the largest privately owned port in India. It is operated by the Adani Group.
Visakhapatnam: Largest container port in India: This pair is incorrect. While Visakhapatnam Port is one of the major ports in India and handles significant cargo, it is not the largest container port in the country. Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust (JNPT) near Mumbai is the largest container port in India.

Q.33) Consider the following trees:

Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
Mahua (Madhuca indica)
Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: (b)

Solution:

Jackfruit: Jackfruit is a tropical tree that is generally considered to be evergreen or semi-evergreen. It does not shed all of its leaves simultaneously, but rather continuously throughout the year. Therefore, it is not considered a deciduous tree.
Mahua: Mahua is a medium to large deciduous tree native to the Indian subcontinent. It sheds its leaves during the dry season and regrows them during the rainy season. So, it is a deciduous tree.
Teak: Teak is a large deciduous tree native to tropical regions. It sheds its leaves during the dry season and grows new leaves when the conditions are favorable. Therefore, it is also a deciduous tree.
Deciduous trees

Category	Deciduous Trees	Evergreen Trees
Leaf Characteristics	Shed their leaves seasonally, usually during autumn or dry seasons.	Retain their leaves throughout the year, with some leaf shedding occurring throughout the year as well.
Leaf Color	Leaves often change color in autumn before shedding, displaying vibrant hues of red, orange, and yellow.	Leaves maintain their green color throughout the year, though some evergreen species may have variations in leaf color.
Growth Pattern	Experience a period of dormancy during the winter or dry season, with new leaves sprouting in spring or the wet season.	Continuously grow and produce new leaves throughout the year, adapting to the climate they are in.
Adaptability	Suited for areas with distinct seasons, tolerating cold winters or dry conditions by shedding leaves and conserving resources.	Thrive in regions with milder climates, such as tropical or Mediterranean climates, where they can continuously photosynthesize and maintain growth.
Ecosystem Role	Leaf shedding provides organic matter and nutrients to the soil, supporting nutrient cycling and contributing to forest ecosystems.	Provide year-round foliage cover, serving as habitats and food sources for wildlife, and contributing to overall ecosystem stability.

Q.34 Consider the following statements:

India has more arable area than China.
The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: (b)

Solution:

India has more arable area than China: This statement is correct. India has a larger arable area, which refers to the land suitable for agriculture, compared to China. This is due to the size and geographical characteristics of the two countries.
The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China: This statement is correct. India has a higher proportion of irrigated area compared to China. This is due to the significant reliance on irrigation for agriculture in India, with extensive canal networks and groundwater extraction.
The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China: This statement is incorrect. China generally has higher average productivity per hectare in agriculture compared to India. This is attributed to various factors, including technological advancements, efficient farming practices, and agricultural policies implemented in China.

Q.35 Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Marakkanam Salt Pans

(d) Rann of Kutch

Ans: (d)

Solution: The Rann of Kutch is a large seasonal salt marsh located in the Thar Desert region of Gujarat and parts of Sindh in Pakistan. It is known for its vast expanse of marshy salt flats, which are the result of repeated falls in sea level over geological time. This area experiences significant changes in water levels and is characterized by salt pans and marshy vegetation.

Q.36 Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

(a) Aluminum

(b) Copper

(d) Titanium

Ans: (d)

Solution: Ilmenite and rutile are minerals that contain significant amounts of titanium dioxide. Titanium is derived from these minerals and is widely used in various industries due to its exceptional strength, low density, and corrosion resistance. It is utilized in the production of alloys, aerospace components, medical implants, paints, and coatings, among many other applications.

Q. 37 About three-fourths of world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

(a) Argentina

(b) Botswana

(d) Kazakhstan

Ans: (c)

Solution: The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is a major global producer of cobalt. It is estimated that around 70-80% of the world’s cobalt supply comes from the DRC. Cobalt is a crucial component in lithium-ion batteries used in electric vehicles, making the DRC a significant player in the global supply chain for electric vehicle batteries.

About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (c) Democratic Republic of the Congo.

The Democratic Republic of the Congo is the largest producer of cobalt globally, accounting for a significant portion of the world’s cobalt supply. Cobalt is a critical component in the production of lithium-ion batteries, which are widely used in electric vehicles and various electronic devices. The country’s rich reserves and favorable geological conditions make it a major player in the global cobalt market.

Q.38 Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

(a) Cameroon

(b) Nigeria

(d) Uganda

Ans: (a)

Solution: Cameroon is a country that is part of the Congo Basin. The Congo Basin is a vast area of central Africa that encompasses multiple countries, including Cameroon, as well as the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Central African Republic, Equatorial Guinea, Gabon, and parts of Angola and Zambia. It is known for its dense rainforests, diverse wildlife, and the Congo River, which is the second longest river in Africa.

Visit: Licchavi Lyceum for More Updates

Q.39 Consider the following statements:

Amarkantak Hills are at confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: (d)

Solution:

Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges: This statement is incorrect. Amarkantak Hills are located in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India, and they are considered to be the origin of the Narmada and Son rivers. However, they are not at the confluence of the Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range: This statement is incorrect. The Biligirirangan Hills, also known as BR Hills, are located in the Chamarajanagar district of Karnataka, India. They are not part of the Satpura Range, which is situated in central India.
Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats: This statement is correct. The Seshachalam Hills, also known as Tirumala Hills, are a part of the Eastern Ghats located in the Chittoor district of Andhra Pradesh, India. They are considered to be the southernmost part of the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghat.

Q.40 With reference to India’s projects connectivity, consider the following statements:

East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans: (d)

Solution:

East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat: This statement is incorrect. The East-West Corridor, a part of the Golden Quadrilateral Project, connects Silchar in Assam to Porbandar in Gujarat. It does not connect Dibrugarh and Surat.
East-West Corridor
Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar: This statement is incorrect.
Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China: This statement is incorrect. The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor (BCIM-EC) is a proposed economic corridor that aims to connect Kunming in China with Kolkata in India, passing through Bangladesh and Myanmar. It does not connect Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh.

Q.41 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.

Statement II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d)

Solution:

Statement I: Interest income from the deposits (InvITs) distributed to their investors is in Infrastructure Investment Trusts exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. This statement is incorrect. In reality, both interest income and dividend income earned by investors from Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) are generally taxable as per the applicable tax laws.

Statement II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002′. This statement is correct. InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the ‘Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002’ (SARFAESI Act). This recognition allows InvITs to raise funds through borrowings and issue security interests against their assets.

Q.42 Consider the following statements:

Statement I : In the post-pandemic recent past many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.

Statement II : Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Statement I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. This statement is correct. In some cases, central banks have indeed implemented interest rate hikes in response to various factors such as improving economic conditions, inflationary pressures, or to address concerns of asset price bubbles.

Statement II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. This statement is also correct. Central banks typically use monetary policy tools to manage inflation and stabilize the economy. By adjusting interest rates, implementing open market operations, and managing the money supply, central banks aim to influence consumer prices and maintain price stability.

Furthermore, Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I as central banks raise interest rates as a measure to curb inflationary pressures and control rising consumer prices.

Q.43 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer : (c)

Solution:

Statement I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. This statement is correct. Carbon markets, such as emissions trading systems, have gained significant traction as a mechanism to mitigate climate change. They provide economic incentives for reducing greenhouse gas emissions and have been implemented in various regions around the world as a means to address climate change challenges.

Statement II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. This statement is incorrect. While carbon markets do involve the buying and trading of emission allowances, the resources exchanged are not directly transferred to the state or government. In a carbon market, participants buy and trade emission allowances, but the revenue generated from the sale of these allowances can be used for various purposes, including investments in emission reduction projects, renewable energy initiatives, or even returned to participating entities.

Q.44 Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?

(a) Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement

(b) Oversight payment systems

(d) Regulating the functions of Non- banking Financial Institutions

Answer : (a)

Solution: ‘Sterilization’ refers to the monetary policy action taken by a central bank to offset the impact of its intervention in the foreign exchange market or to neutralize the effects of liquidity injections or withdrawals. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) conducts sterilization to manage liquidity in the economy.

Among the given options, conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ of settlement is considered part of sterilization. Open Market Operations involve the buying or selling of government securities by the central bank in the open market. When the RBI sells government securities, it absorbs excess liquidity from the market, thus sterilizing the impact of previous liquidity injections. Conversely, when the RBI buys government securities, it injects liquidity into the market.

Q.45 Consider the following market

Government Bond Market
Call Money Market
Treasury Bill Market
Stock Market

How many of the above are included in capital markets?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer : (b)

Solution: In the given options, only two of them are included in the capital markets:

Government Bond Market: This market involves the buying and selling of government bonds, which are debt securities issued by the government to raise funds. It is an important segment of the capital market as it allows governments to borrow money from investors.
Stock Market: The Stock Market is a market where shares or ownership interests in publicly-traded companies are bought and sold. It is a crucial component of the capital market, and allows companies to raise capital through the issuance of shares, and investors to trade in those shares.

The other two options, Call Money Market and Treasury Bill Market, are part of the money market rather than the capital market.

Call Money Market: The Call Money Market is a segment of the money market where banks and financial institutions borrow and lend money for short durations, typically overnight.
Treasury Bill Market: Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government securities with a maturity period of less than one year. The Treasury Bill Market is a part of the money market where these T-bills are traded.

Q.46 Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?

(a) Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce

(b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

(c) Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender. their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers

(d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production

Answer: (b)

Solution: The Small Farmers, Large Field (SFLF) model is an agricultural production model that aims to address the challenges faced by small-scale farmers by promoting collective action and resource pooling. In this model, small farmers come together to form groups or cooperatives and collectively cultivate larger fields.

The SFLF model recognizes that small-scale farmers often face limitations in terms of access to resources, such as land, capital, technology, and markets. By pooling their resources and working together, small farmers can overcome these limitations and achieve economies of scale.

Q.47 Consider the following statements:

The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for Niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
Some tribal people in India use Niger seed oil for cooking.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (c)

Solution:

Statement 1: The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for Niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. This statement is correct. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for certain crops, including Niger seeds. The MSP is a guaranteed price at which the government agrees to purchase the crops from farmers to support their income and ensure price stability in the market.

Statement 2: Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. This statement is correct. Niger is primarily cultivated as a Kharif crop in India. Kharif season refers to the monsoon season, and Niger seeds are typically sown during this season and harvested later.

Statement 3: Some tribal people in India use Niger seed oil for cooking. This statement is correct. Niger seed oil is commonly used for cooking purposes, particularly among tribal communities in India. The oil extracted from Niger seeds is known for its nutritional benefits and is used in traditional cooking practices.

Q.48 Consider the investments in the following assets:

Brand recognition
Inventory
Intellectual property
Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer : (c)

Solution: Among the assets listed, the following are considered intangible investments:

Brand recognition: Brand recognition refers to the awareness and perception that consumers have of a particular brand. It represents the value associated with the brand’s reputation, customer loyalty, and market presence.
Intellectual property: Intellectual property (IP) includes intangible assets such as patents, trademarks, copyrights, and trade secrets. These assets provide legal protection and exclusive rights to the creators or owners, allowing them to derive value and commercialize their innovations or creative works.
Mailing list of clients: A mailing list of clients, although not explicitly mentioned, can be considered an intangible asset. It represents a database of customer contacts and information, which can be used for targeted marketing campaigns, customer relationship management, and generating business opportunities.

The term inventory refers to the raw materials used in production as well as the goods produced that are available for sale. Hence, Raw material is a tangible asset.

Q.49 Consider the following:

Demographic performance
Forest and ecology
Governance reforms
Stable Government
Tax and fiscal efforts

For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Answer : (b)

Solution: The Fifteenth Finance Commission of India used the following criteria for the vertical devolution and horizontal distribution of taxes:

Population: The Finance Commission considers the population of each state as one of the key factors in determining the distribution of taxes. States with larger populations generally receive a higher share of tax revenue.
Area: The geographical area of a state is also taken into account by the Finance Commission. States with larger areas may receive a relatively higher share of tax revenue to account for the higher administrative and infrastructural costs associated with a larger territory.
Income Distance: The Finance Commission considers the per capita income of each state as a measure of its fiscal capacity. States with lower per capita income are usually allocated a higher share of tax revenue to support their development needs.

In addition to these three criteria, the Fifteenth Finance Commission also used the following criteria for the horizontal distribution of taxes among states:

Forest and Ecology: The Commission considered the efforts made by states in preserving and maintaining their forest cover and ecology. States with a higher focus on forest conservation and environmental protection were rewarded with a higher share of tax revenue.
Demographic Performance: The Finance Commission looked at specific demographic indicators, such as fertility rate, sex ratio, and literacy rate, to assess the demographic performance of states. States with better demographic indicators were given preference in the distribution of tax revenue.

Q.50 Consider the following infrastructure sectors:

Affordable housing
Mass rapid transport
Health care
Renewable energy

How many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Solution: The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative aims to promote sustainable development by investing in various infrastructure sectors. It recognizes the importance of addressing multiple areas of development simultaneously.

Affordable housing: The initiative focuses on investing in affordable housing projects, aiming to provide adequate and affordable housing solutions for communities in need. This sector addresses the critical issue of housing affordability and accessibility, ensuring that people have access to safe and decent living conditions.
Mass rapid transport: The S3i initiative also emphasizes investments in mass rapid transport systems. By supporting the development of efficient and sustainable transportation networks, it aims to improve urban mobility, reduce traffic congestion, and minimize carbon emissions. This sector plays a crucial role in creating accessible and sustainable transportation options for communities.
Health care: The S3i initiative recognizes the significance of investing in healthcare infrastructure. It supports the development and improvement of healthcare facilities, aiming to enhance access to quality healthcare services. By focusing on this sector, the initiative contributes to the overall well-being and health outcomes of communities.
Renewable energy: The S3i initiative places a strong emphasis on investments in renewable energy infrastructure. It recognizes the importance of transitioning to sustainable and clean energy sources to combat climate change and reduce reliance on fossil fuels. By supporting the development of renewable energy projects, the initiative aims to promote environmental sustainability and contribute to the global shift towards a low-carbon economy.

Q.51 With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements:

Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (b)

Solution:

Statement 1: Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. This statement is incorrect. Home Guards are not raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. Instead, they are raised under the respective State Home Guards Acts and Rules.

Statement 2: The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the maintenance of internal security. This statement is correct. The Home Guards serve as an auxiliary force to the police and assist in maintaining internal security. They are often deployed during emergencies, natural disasters, and other law and order situations.

Statement 3: To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. This statement is also correct. In some states, Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised specifically to aid in preventing infiltration along the international border and coastal areas.

Q.52 With reference to India, consider the following pairs :

Action : Act under which it is covered

Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms : The Official Secrets Act, 1923
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties : The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Celebratory gunfire that endanger personal safety of others : The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (b)

Solution: The following pairs are correctly matched:

Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 1923.
Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

Q.53 Consider the following pairs:

Regions often mentioned in news:: Reason for being in news

North Kivu and Ituri: War between Armenia and Azerbaijan
Nagorno-Karabakh : Insurgency in Mozambique
Kherson and Zaporizhzhia : Dispute between Israel and Lebanon

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Ans:(d)

North Kivu and Ituri: These regions are located in the Democratic Republic of the Congo and have been historically affected by conflicts involving various armed groups, ethnic tensions, and resource disputes. They are not related to the war between Armenia and Azerbaijan.
Nagorno-Karabakh: Nagorno-Karabakh is a region located in the South Caucasus, specifically in the border area between Armenia and Azerbaijan. It has been the subject of a territorial conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan, not insurgency in Mozambique.
Kherson and Zaporizhzhia: These regions are located in Ukraine. They have not been in the news due to a dispute between Israel and Lebanon. Israel and Lebanon are countries in the Middle East, and their disputes typically revolve around issues related to their own territories or regional conflicts.

Q.54 Consider the following statements:

Statement I : Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.

Statement II: The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

Solution:

S1: Israel had established diplomatic relations with some Arab states through the Abraham Accords. The Abraham Accords were a series of agreements signed in 2020 between Israel, the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Bahrain, Sudan, and Morocco to normalize diplomatic and economic relations. So, S1 is correct.

S2: The Arab Peace Initiative, proposed by Saudi Arabia in 2002, is a separate initiative that calls for Israel’s complete withdrawal from the occupied territories and the establishment of a Palestinian state with East Jerusalem as its capital in exchange for normalizing relations between Israel and the Arab League. While the Arab Peace Initiative has been supported by the Arab League, it has not been signed by Israel. S2 is incorrect.

Q.55 Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards:

Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award: For Most spectacular and outstanding performance by sportsperson over period of last four years.
Arjuna Award: For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson
Dronacharya Award: To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportsperson or teams
Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar : To recognize the contribution made by sports persons even after retirement

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Solution:

S1: The Major Dhyan Chand Award is a prestigious sports award in India named after Major Dhyan Chand, a legendary field hockey player. It is presented by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports in India to recognize the lifetime achievement of sportspersons in the field of sports. The award is given in recognition of their outstanding contribution to sports and their achievements throughout their career.

S2: Arjuna Award: For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson The Arjuna Award is not specifically given for lifetime achievement. It is awarded to sportspersons for their outstanding performance in their respective sports disciplines over the last four years.

S3: Dronacharya Award: To honor eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons teams The Dronacharya Award is correctly described as an award given to honor eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams. This pair is correctly matched.

S4: Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Purashkar: To recognize the contribution made by sports persons even after retirement The Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Purashkar is not specifically given to recognize the contribution made by sports persons even after retirement. This award is presented to individuals, entities, or organizations that have made significant contributions in the field of sports development and promotion in various ways.

Q.56 Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022:

It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
The official mascot was named Thambi’.
The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Correct Answer: (b)

Solution:

It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
The official mascot was named Thambi’.

Q.57 Consider the following pairs:

Area of conflict mentioned in news:: Country where it is located

Donbas : Syria
Kachin: Ethiopia
Tigray: North Yemen

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer:(d)

Solution:

Donbas is a region in eastern Ukraine, not in Syria.
Kachin is a state in Myanmar (Burma), not in Ethiopia.
Tigray is a region in Ethiopia, not in North Yemen.

Q.58 In recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

(a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements

(b) Establishment of Chinese military bases

(d) Successful coups

Answer : (d)

Solution: In the past, military leaders have toppled the government of Mali, Chad, Guinea, Sudan and Burkina Faso.

Q.59 Consider the following heavy industries:

Fertilizer plants
Oil refineries
Steel plants

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Correct answer: (c)

Solution:

Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing all three of the mentioned heavy industries:

Fertilizer plants: Green hydrogen can be used as a feedstock for the production of ammonia, which is a key component in fertilizer manufacturing.
Oil refineries: Green hydrogen can be used as a replacement for fossil fuels in the refining process, reducing carbon emissions.
Steel plants: Green hydrogen can be used as a reducing agent in the production of steel, replacing the use of coal and reducing carbon emissions.

What is Green Hydrogen?

Green hydrogen refers to hydrogen gas that is produced using renewable energy sources, such as solar or wind power, through a process called electrolysis. In electrolysis, an electric current is passed through water (H2O), splitting it into hydrogen (H2) and oxygen (O2) molecules. The electricity used in this process is generated from renewable sources, ensuring that the production of hydrogen is carbon-free.

Q.60 Consider the following statements about G-20:

The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:(c)

Solution: Both statements are correct.

The G-20 group was indeed originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss international economic and financial issues.
Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s priorities within the G-20 framework.

What is G20?

The G20, also known as the Group of Twenty, is an international forum that brings together the leaders of 19 major economies and the European Union. The members of the G20 represent around 80% of the world’s GDP and two-thirds of the global population. The group was established in 1999 as a response to the financial crises of the late 1990s and was intended to promote global economic stability and cooperation.

The G20 holds annual summits where leaders discuss and coordinate on a wide range of global issues, including economic growth, trade, financial regulation, climate change, and development. The forum provides a platform for leaders to address challenges and develop policy responses through dialogue and collaboration. In addition to the annual summits, there are also meetings at the ministerial and working group levels throughout the year.

The G20 includes major economies such as the United States, China, Japan, Germany, France, the United Kingdom, India, Brazil, Russia, and others. The group also invites guest countries and representatives from international organizations to participate in its meetings, ensuring broader engagement and inclusiveness in the decision-making process.

Visit: Licchavi Lyceum for More Updates

Q.61 With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

(a) archaeological excavations

(b) establishment of English Press in Colonial India

(d) construction of railways in Colonial India

Answer : (a)

Solution: With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were associated with archaeological excavations.

These individuals were prominent archaeologists and scholars who made significant contributions to the field of archaeology in India. Alexander Rea was the Director-General of the Archaeological Survey of India, while A. H. Longhurst served as the Superintendent of the Archaeological Survey of India. Robert Sewell, James Burgess, and Walter Elliot were also associated with the Archaeological Survey of India and conducted important excavations and research on historical sites and monuments in India.

Q.62 Consider the following pairs:

Site: Well known for

Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine
Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine
Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (b)

Solution: Among the given pairs, only two pairs are correctly matched.

Sittanavasal: Jain cave shrine
Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrin

Q.63 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.

Statement II : It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same

day.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer : (a)

Solution: Both the statements are correct.

National Handloom Day is commemorated in India on August 7 each year.

August 7 was designated to celebrate National Handloom Day to memorialize the ‘Swadeshi’ Movement. Therefore, there is a strong connection between National Handloom Day and the Swadeshi Movement.

Q.64 Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:

Statement I : One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer : (d)

Solution: The Flag Code of India specifies that the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the National Flag should be 3:2. In other words, the length of the flag should be 1.5 times the height. However, according to the Flag Code of India, the standard sizes for the National Flag of India is not 600 mm x 400 mm.

Q.65 Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer : (c)

Solution: Statement I is correct. Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year in India to promote constitutional values among citizens.

However, Statement II is incorrect. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India did not set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar. The Drafting Committee, chaired by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, was formed on 29th August 1947, and it was responsible for drafting the Constitution of India. The Constitution was adopted and enacted on 26th November 1949, but the Drafting Committee’s formation was not on the same day.

Q.66 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Statement II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

Solution: Statement I is correct. Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. The country has a long history and expertise in the gold industry, including refining, trading, and storage.

However, Statement II is incorrect. Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world. The countries with the largest gold reserves include the United States, Germany, Italy, France, and China.

Q.67 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council’.

Statement II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-l

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer : (c)

Solution: Statement I is correct. Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have indeed launched the Trade and Technology Council. This council aims to enhance cooperation between the USA and the EU on trade and technology-related issues.

However, Statement II is incorrect. The USA and the EU have not claimed that they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control through this council. The Trade and Technology Council is focused on fostering cooperation, dialogue, and addressing trade and technology-related challenges and opportunities.

Q.68 Consider the following statements :

Statement I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.

Statement II : Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India took advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (d)

Solution: Statement I is incorrect. India’s share of global exports of goods is not 3.2%. The actual share may vary based on different time periods and data sources. As of September 2021, India’s share of global exports of goods is around 1.7%.

Statement II is correct. Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have indeed taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ (PLI) scheme. The PLI scheme aims to boost domestic manufacturing, attract investment, and enhance production in various sectors.

Q.69 Consider the following statements:

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (a)

Solution: Statement I is correct. The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. It aims to ensure fiscal discipline and stability among the member states by setting limits on the budget deficits and public debt levels.

Statement II is incorrect. The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ does not involve sharing infrastructure facilities among the countries of the European Union. It primarily focuses on fiscal and budgetary matters.

Statement III is incorrect. The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ does not enable the countries of the European Union to share their technologies. It is primarily concerned with fiscal and economic policies rather than technology sharing.

Q.70 Consider the following statements:

Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the ‘Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)’.
The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (d)

Solution: GCM was signed by 164 members and it is a non-legally binding framework.

Q.71 Consider the following countries:

Bulgaria
Czech Republic
Hungary
Latvia
Lithuania
Romania

How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) Only five

Answer : (a)

Solution:

Hungary shares a land border with Ukraine.

Romania shares a land border with Ukraine.

Bulgaria, Czech Republic, Latvia, and Lithuania do not share a land border with Ukraine.

Q.72 With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles.

(b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.

(d) Infrared waves are a part of the lower visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Answer : (c)

Solution: Infrared waves are a part of the electromagnetic spectrum and are emitted by the Sun as part of solar radiation. In the Earth’s atmosphere, water vapor is an important greenhouse gas that has the ability to absorb infrared waves. This absorption of infrared radiation by water vapor and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere helps to trap heat and contribute to the greenhouse effect, which is important for maintaining Earth’s temperature and supporting life.

Q.73 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.

Statement II: The high temperature and moisture of rain forests cause tropical dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer : (d)

Explanation: The soil in tropical rainforests is often nutrient-poor due to rapid nutrient cycling. The warm and wet climate promotes the rapid decomposition of organic matter, leading to the fast recycling of nutrients. As a result, most of the nutrients are stored in the vegetation rather than in the soil.

Q.74 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.

Statement II : The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a)

Solution: Statement I is correct. During summer, the temperature contrast between continents and oceans tends to be greater. Land surfaces heat up more quickly and to higher temperatures compared to the water in oceans. This temperature difference leads to contrasting weather patterns and influences factors such as wind circulation and precipitation.

Statement II is also correct. The specific heat of water is higher than that of land surfaces. This means that water requires more heat energy to raise its temperature compared to an equivalent mass of land. As a result, water bodies like oceans have a higher heat capacity and take longer to heat up or cool down compared to land surfaces.

Statement II provides the correct explanation for Statement I. The higher specific heat of water contributes to the temperature contrast between continents and oceans during summer, as water absorbs and stores more heat energy, moderating the temperature changes in oceanic regions.

Q.75 Consider the following statements:

In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer : (c)

Solution: Statement 1 is correct. In a seismograph, P waves (primary waves) are recorded earlier than S waves (secondary waves) during an earthquake. P waves are the fastest seismic waves and can travel through solids, liquids, and gases, whereas S waves are slower and can only travel through solids.

Statement 2 is also correct. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation, similar to the way a slinky compresses and extends. In contrast, in S waves, the particles vibrate perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation, causing a side-to-side or up-and-down motion.

Both statements are correct.

Q.76 With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :

None of them uses seawater.
None of them are set up in water-stressed districts.
None of them is privately owned.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (d)

Solution:

None of them uses seawater: This statement is incorrect. Many coal-based thermal power plants in India use seawater for cooling purposes. Seawater is a commonly used coolant in thermal power plants to condense the steam after it passes through the turbine.
None of them are set up in water-stressed districts: This statement is incorrect. Some coal-based thermal power plants in India are indeed located in water-stressed districts where the availability of water resources is limited. However, it is worth noting that the choice of location for power plants takes into consideration various factors, including water availability and sustainability.
None of them is privately owned: This statement is incorrect. There are both privately owned and government-owned coal-based thermal power plants in India. The power sector in India includes a mix of public and private ownership.

Q.77 ‘‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

(a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

(b) Converting crop residues into packing material

(d) Producing biochar from thermo- chemical conversion of biomass

Answer : (a)

Solution: The “Wolbachia method” refers to a technique used for controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes, particularly dengue, chikungunya, and Zika.

Wolbachia is a naturally occurring bacterium found in many insects, including mosquitoes. When introduced into the mosquito population, it can reduce the ability of mosquitoes to transmit these viral diseases. The method involves infecting mosquito populations with Wolbachia to reduce their ability to transmit the viruses to humans.

This approach is being researched and implemented as a potential strategy for controlling mosquito-borne diseases in various parts of the world.

Q.78 Consider the following activities:

Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters

How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (c)

Solution: The activities mentioned in the question are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration. Let’s break down each activity:

Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively: This is known as enhanced weathering. The idea is that when basalt rock is exposed to air and water, it undergoes a natural chemical reaction called mineral carbonation, where carbon dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere reacts with the minerals in the rock to form stable carbonate compounds. By spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands, it is believed that the carbon dioxide can be captured and sequestered over long periods of time.
Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime: This is another method of carbon capture and sequestration known as ocean alkalinity enhancement. By adding lime (calcium oxide or calcium hydroxide) to the ocean waters, it can help increase the alkalinity, which in turn can enhance the ocean’s capacity to absorb and store carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. The carbon dioxide reacts with the added lime to form calcium carbonate, which can eventually sink to the ocean floor and sequester the carbon over long time scales.
Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters: This is a form of carbon capture and storage (CCS) known as geological sequestration. It involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions from industrial sources (such as power plants or factories) and injecting the CO2 underground into suitable geological formations, such as depleted oil and gas reservoirs or deep saline aquifers. The CO2 is stored and trapped underground, preventing it from being released into the atmosphere.

Q.79 ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?

(a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

(b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat

(d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies

Answer: (a)

Solution: Aerial metagenomics refers to the collection and analysis of DNA samples from the air in a specific habitat. It involves the use of air-sampling devices to capture and analyze the genetic material (DNA) present in the air, including microorganisms like bacteria, viruses, fungi, and other particles. This technique allows researchers to study the genetic diversity and composition of airborne microorganisms in a particular environment without the need for direct sampling of individual organisms. By collecting DNA samples from the air in a habitat at one go, aerial metagenomics provides valuable insights into the microbial communities and their functions in various ecosystems.

Q.80 ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?

(a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

(b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues

(d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population

Answer: (a)

Solution: Microsatellite DNA, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs) or simple sequence repeats (SSRs), are repetitive sequences of DNA consisting of short motifs repeated in tandem. These sequences are highly variable among individuals and species, making them useful for studying genetic diversity and population genetics.

In the context of the options provided, microsatellite DNA is commonly used in molecular ecology and evolutionary biology to investigate the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. By analyzing the variation in microsatellite loci across different individuals or populations, scientists can infer genetic relatedness, population structure, migration patterns, and other aspects of the evolutionary history of species.

Microsatellites are often employed in studies such as population genetics, phylogenetics, and conservation genetics to understand the genetic structure and dynamics of animal populations and to explore their evolutionary relationships.

Q81 Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana:

It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer : (b)

Solution:

It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. – This statement is incorrect. The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is a safe motherhood intervention, but it is implemented by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare at the national level in India, not by the State Health Departments.
Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. – This statement is correct. The main objective of Janani Suraksha Yojana is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality rates among economically disadvantaged pregnant women by promoting institutional delivery.
It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. – This statement is correct. The primary goal of Janani Suraksha Yojana is to encourage pregnant women, especially those from economically weaker sections, to give birth in health institutions rather than at home, in order to ensure safer deliveries and better access to essential maternal and newborn care.
Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. – This statement is incorrect. The Janani Suraksha Yojana primarily focuses on maternal health and promoting institutional deliveries. It does not specifically include the provision of public health facilities for sick infants up to one year of age.

Q.82 Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant Women.
It runs a campaign for delayed Cord clamping at the time of child birth.
It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents
It addresses non-nutritional causes of Anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, Hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (c)

It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents, and pregnant women: This statement is correct. The Anaemia Mukt Bharat (AMB) Strategy includes the provision of prophylactic calcium supplementation for specific target groups, including pre-school children, adolescents, and pregnant women. Calcium supplementation is important for maintaining healthy bone development and preventing anaemia, especially during growth phases and pregnancy.
It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth: This statement is not correct. The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy primarily focuses on interventions to prevent and address anaemia in the population. While delayed cord clamping may have benefits for newborns, such as increased iron stores, it is not specifically mentioned as a campaign or intervention under the AMB Strategy.
It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents: This statement is correct. The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy recognizes the importance of deworming as a preventive measure against anaemia. Periodic deworming of children and adolescents helps to control parasitic infections, such as soil-transmitted helminths, which can contribute to anaemia.
It addresses non-nutritional causes of Anemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis: This statement is correct. The Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy acknowledges that anaemia can have non-nutritional causes, particularly in specific regions or pockets where certain conditions prevail. These conditions include malaria (which can cause hemolytic anaemia), hemoglobinopathies (genetic disorders affecting hemoglobin production), and fluorosis (excessive fluoride intake leading to anaemia). The strategy emphasizes addressing these specific causes of anaemia in endemic areas.

Q.83 Consider the following statements:

Carbon fibers are used in the Manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
Carbon fibers once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Solution: Statement 1 is correct: Carbon fibers are indeed used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircraft. Carbon fiber composites are known for their high strength-to-weight ratio and are commonly used in industries such as aerospace and automotive for making lightweight and strong components.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Carbon fibers can be recycled. While the recycling process for carbon fibers is more complex compared to other materials, it is possible to recycle carbon fibers. Various methods, such as mechanical and chemical recycling, are being developed to recycle carbon fiber composites and recover the valuable carbon fiber material for reuse.

Q.84 Consider the following actions:

Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
Detection of the tilt of the mart phone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode.

In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c)

Solution: In all of the actions mentioned, the function of an accelerometer is required. An accelerometer is a sensor that measures acceleration or changes in velocity. It detects changes in motion or orientation and provides corresponding data to the system for appropriate actions. Let’s analyze each action:

Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously: In modern cars, accelerometers are often used to detect sudden changes in acceleration that occur during a crash. When a car crash is detected, the accelerometer sends a signal to deploy the airbags, helping to protect the occupants.
Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive: Laptops and some electronic devices are equipped with accelerometers that can detect sudden changes in motion, such as free fall or impact. When a laptop is in free fall or experiences a significant impact, the accelerometer detects the change in acceleration and triggers a protective mechanism, such as turning off the hard drive to prevent data loss or damage.
Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode: Smartphones often use accelerometers to detect changes in orientation or tilt. When the accelerometer senses a change in the tilt of the phone, it provides the necessary input for the system to rotate the display between portrait and landscape mode accordingly.

In all three actions, the function of an accelerometer is required to detect the relevant changes in motion or orientation and trigger the appropriate response or action.

Visit: Licchavi Lyceum for More Updates

Q. 85 With reference to the role of bio filters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements:

Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Solution:

Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. – This statement is correct. Biofilters in a recirculating aquaculture system (RAS) play a crucial role in waste treatment. They help remove uneaten fish feed and other organic debris from the water, preventing the accumulation of excess nutrients and maintaining water quality.
Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. – This statement is correct. One of the key functions of biofilters in an RAS is to convert toxic ammonia (produced from fish waste and uneaten feed) into less harmful nitrate through a process called nitrification. Beneficial bacteria in the biofilter break down ammonia into nitrite and further convert nitrite into nitrate.
Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in the water. – This statement is incorrect. Biofilters do not increase phosphorus as a nutrient for fish in the water. While biofilters play a role in nutrient cycling by converting ammonia to nitrate, they do not specifically increase phosphorus levels in the water. The nutrient levels in the water are usually maintained through proper feed management and supplementation.

Q.86 Consider the following pairs:

Objects in space: Description

Cepheids : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
Nebulae : Stars which brighten and dim periodically
Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Cepheids: Giant clouds of dust and gas in space – This pair is incorrect. Cepheids are not giant clouds of dust and gas. Cepheids are actually a type of variable star that pulsates in brightness over a regular period of time. They are used as important distance indicators in astronomy.
Nebulae: Stars which brighten and dim periodically – This pair is also incorrect. Nebulae are not stars that brighten and dim periodically. Nebulae are interstellar clouds of dust, hydrogen, helium, and other gases. They are the birthplaces of stars and can exhibit various shapes and colors.
Pulsars: Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse – This pair is correct. Pulsars are indeed neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse under their own gravity. Pulsars emit beams of radiation that can be observed as regular pulses or flashes.

Q. 87 Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

(a) Australia

(b) Canada

(d) Japan

Answer: (d)

Solution: Several countries have developed their own satellite navigation systems to provide positioning, navigation, and timing services independent of foreign systems like GPS. Here are a few examples:

United States: The United States has the Global Positioning System (GPS), which is widely used globally for navigation and positioning purposes.
Russia: Russia has the Global Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS), which is a constellation of satellites providing positioning and timing services.
European Union: The European Union has developed the Galileo system, which is still in the process of being fully deployed. Galileo is intended to provide an independent European satellite navigation capability.
China: China operates the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS), also known as COMPASS. It provides positioning, navigation, timing, and short message communication services.
India: India has developed the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), also known as NAVIC. It provides positioning and timing services in the Indian region.
Japan: Japan has the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS), which is designed to enhance GPS coverage over Japan and neighboring regions.

It’s worth noting that while some countries have their own satellite navigation systems, they often have compatibility with and can be used in conjunction with other global systems like GPS for increased accuracy and reliability.

Q. 88 Consider the following statements:

Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Solution: Both statements are incorrect.

Ballistic missiles are not jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights. Ballistic missiles are powered by rockets during the entire flight. They follow a high trajectory and rely on the momentum gained during the powered phase to reach their targets. Once the rocket propulsion is exhausted, they follow a ballistic trajectory, hence the name “ballistic” missiles.
Agni-V and BrahMos are both missiles developed by India, but the descriptions provided in the statement are incorrect. Agni-V is an intercontinental ballistic missile (ICBM), not a medium-range supersonic cruise missile. It is a solid-fueled missile that can deliver nuclear warheads and has a range capable of reaching targets in Asia, Europe, and parts of Africa.

Q.89 Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution

Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer : (b)

Solution:

Statement 1: Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. This statement is correct. Mercury is often used in small-scale and artisanal gold mining to extract gold from ore. This process releases mercury into the environment, leading to pollution and potential health risks.

Statement 2: Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. This statement is also correct. Coal combustion releases mercury into the air, which can then be deposited into water bodies and soil. This mercury pollution can have adverse effects on ecosystems and human health.

Statement 3: There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. This statement is incorrect. While exposure to high levels of mercury can be toxic and harmful to human health, there are established safe exposure limits for mercury in various contexts. These limits are set by regulatory agencies and organizations such as the World Health Organization (WHO) to protect public health.

Q.90 With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (c)

Solution: All three statements regarding green hydrogen are correct:

It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion: Green hydrogen can be used as a fuel in internal combustion engines, similar to traditional fossil fuels. This can include applications in transportation, such as using green hydrogen in combustion engines in vehicles.
It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation: Green hydrogen can be blended with natural gas to create a hydrogen-enriched gas mixture, which can be used as fuel for heat or power generation in various industries and applications. This blending helps reduce carbon emissions and transition to cleaner energy sources.
It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles: Green hydrogen can also be used in hydrogen fuel cells to power electric vehicles. In this case, the fuel cell converts hydrogen into electricity, which is then used to power the vehicle’s electric motor. This technology offers zero-emission transportation solutions.

Q.91 Consider the following statements with reference to India:

According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006′, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and 15 crore and machinery between 25 crore.
All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d)

Solution: Both statements are incorrect:

Statement 1: According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the classification of micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs) is based on investment in plant and machinery, not just machinery alone. The exact investment limits for each category may vary based on the sector and whether the enterprise is manufacturing or service-oriented. As of September 2021, the investment limits for MSME classification are as follows:

Micro Enterprises: Investment up to 1 crore in plant and machinery.
Small Enterprises: Investment between 1 crore and 10 crore in plant and machinery.
Medium Enterprises: Investment between 10 crore and 50 crore in plant and machinery.

Statement 2: While bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) do have certain priority sector lending benefits, not all bank loans to MSMEs automatically qualify under the priority sector. The priority sector lending guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) cover specific sectors and categories, including agriculture, small business, export credit, education, housing, and more. Banks are required to meet specific targets for lending to the priority sector, including lending to MSMEs, but it is not a blanket inclusion for all MSME loans.

Q.92 With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system.
A digital currency can be distributed with conditions programmed into it such as a time- frame for spending it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Solution: Both statements regarding Central Bank digital currencies (CBDCs) are correct:

Statement 1: It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT system. CBDCs are digital currencies issued by central banks, and their transactions can be conducted directly between parties without relying on traditional intermediaries or payment systems like the US dollar or the SWIFT system. CBDCs provide an alternative form of payment and settlement that can be used domestically and potentially internationally.

Statement 2: A digital currency can be distributed with conditions programmed into it, such as a time-frame for spending it. CBDCs can be designed with programmable features that allow for the implementation of specific conditions or restrictions. For example, a central bank may set a time limit for spending CBDCs after which they expire or impose certain usage restrictions to achieve policy objectives.

Q.93 In the context of finance, the term “beta” refers to

(a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms

(b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward

(d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market

Answer: (d)

Solution: In finance, beta refers to a measure of the sensitivity or volatility of a stock or investment portfolio in relation to movements in the overall market. It quantifies the degree to which an asset’s price tends to move in response to changes in the broader market. A beta value greater than 1 indicates that the asset tends to be more volatile than the market, while a beta value less than 1 indicates lower volatility compared to the market. Beta is used by investors to assess the risk associated with an investment and its potential for generating returns in relation to the overall market performance.

Q94. Consider the following statements:

The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Solution: Two of the statements are correct, while one is incorrect:

Statement 1: The Self-Help Group (SHG) program was not originally initiated by the State Bank of India. The SHG movement in India started as a pilot project in the late 1980s, and it gained significant momentum through the efforts of non-governmental organizations (NGOs), civil society organizations, and grassroots movements. While the State Bank of India and other banks have played a role in providing microcredit to SHGs, they were not the original initiators of the program.

Statement 2: In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. This statement is correct. SHGs are typically formed by a group of individuals from similar socio-economic backgrounds who come together to create a common fund. When a member of the group takes a loan from a bank or financial institution, the other members of the SHG collectively provide support and take joint responsibility for the repayment of the loan.

Statement 3: The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks do support SHGs. This statement is also correct. In India, both Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) actively support SHGs by providing them with financial assistance, including loans, credit facilities, and other banking services. These banks recognize the potential of SHGs as an effective tool for financial inclusion and poverty alleviation.

Q95. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.

Statement II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (b)

Solution: Statement I: India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care. This statement is correct. India’s public health care system has historically been skewed towards curative care, with a significant emphasis on hospitals and medical treatments. While efforts have been made to increase the focus on preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care, the overall balance is still tilted towards curative care.

Statement II: Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the states are primarily responsible for organizing health services. This statement is also correct. In India, health care is primarily a state subject, and the responsibility for organizing and delivering health services lies with the state governments. The central government plays a supporting role through policies, guidelines, funding, and national health programs.

However, Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I. The limited focus on preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care in India’s public health care system is not solely due to the decentralized approach of health care delivery. It is a broader systemic issue influenced by various factors such as resource allocation, infrastructure, capacity building, and policy priorities.

Q.96 Consider the following statements:

Statement I: According to the United Nations World Water Development Report, 2022′, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year.

Statement II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s population living in its territory.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the correct explanation for Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for Statement I

(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Statement I: According to the United Nations World Water Development Report, 2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater withdrawal each year. This statement is correct. India is one of the largest consumers of groundwater globally, and its groundwater extraction accounts for a significant portion of the world’s total withdrawal.

Statement II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of the world’s population living in its territory. This statement is incorrect. While India does have a large population and significant water demands, it does not require more than a quarter of the world’s groundwater to meet its drinking water and sanitation needs. The water demand and supply situation in India is complex and varies across regions, with some areas facing water scarcity and others having access to sufficient water resources.

Visit: Licchavi Lyceum for More Updates

Q.97 Consider the following statements:

According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) None

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Statement 1: According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. This statement is correct. Article 355 of the Constitution states that it shall be the duty of the Union (Central) Government to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.

Statement 2: The Constitution of India does not explicitly exempt the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. The right to legal counsel is a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 22(1) of the Constitution, which provides safeguards against preventive detention. It includes the right to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of one’s choice. However, the exact provisions and procedures related to legal counsel during preventive detention may vary based on specific laws and regulations.

Statement 3: The Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, was repealed in 2004 and is no longer in force. It has been replaced by the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967. Therefore, the statement referring to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, is not applicable.

Q.98 Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

(a) Angola

(b) Costa Rica

(d) Somalia

Answer: (d)

Solution: The country that has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in the news in the recent past for its severe famine is Somalia. Somalia has experienced significant political instability and conflict for many years, which has led to food insecurity and humanitarian crises. The combination of conflict, drought, and other factors has resulted in severe famines and food shortages in the country.

Q.99 Consider the following statements:

In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Solution:

Statement 1: In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are indeed key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. The Nagoya Protocol is an international agreement that aims to promote the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources. India is a signatory to the Nagoya Protocol and has established BMCs at the local level to facilitate the implementation of the protocol’s objectives, including the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity.

Statement 2: The Biodiversity Management Committees in India do have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within their jurisdiction. The BMCs play a crucial role in regulating access to biological resources and associated traditional knowledge, ensuring that any benefits derived from their utilization are shared fairly and equitably. They have the authority to impose fees on the collection of biological resources to support conservation efforts and provide benefits to local communities.

Q.100 Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:

The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the above statements are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(d) All four

Answer: (a)

Solution:

Statement 1: The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. This statement is correct. The Electoral College for the election of the President of India consists of elected members of both houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the states. Nominated members are not eligible to vote in the presidential election.

Statement 2: Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. This statement is incorrect. The value of the vote of each MLA is determined by the population of the state they represent, not the number of elective assembly seats. The value of votes in the presidential election is calculated based on a formula that takes into account the population of each state and the total number of elected members in the state legislative assembly.

Statement 3: The value of the vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. This statement is incorrect. The value of votes of MLAs in different states is determined by the population of the state they represent. The larger the population of the state, the greater the value of each MLA’s vote. Therefore, without specific data, we cannot conclude that the value of votes of MLAs in Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.

Statement 4: The value of the vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to the total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. This statement is incorrect. The value of votes of MLAs in different states is determined by the population of the state, not the ratio of population to the number of elective seats. Therefore, the comparison based on the ratio of population to the number of elective seats is not relevant for determining the value of votes in the presidential election.

Important Links