1. Which concept was included in the Eleventh Five Year Plan by the planning commission of India ?
(1) Balance growth
(2) Balance development
(3) Inclusive growth
(4) Equal development
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Eleventh Five Year Plan in India, formulated by the planning commission, prominently featured the concept of inclusive growth. This approach aimed to ensure that the benefits of economic development reached all sections of society, focusing on reducing poverty and bridging various inequalities.
2. Which of the following elements are needed for recasting the planning models and strategies in terms of human development as suggested by Mahbub ul Haq ?
a. The plans would start with human balance sheet.
b. A comprehensive set of social and human development indicator.
c. Equal emphasis on production and distribution objectives.
d. Removal of poverty.
(1) Only a, b and d
(2) Only a, b and c
(3) Only c and d
(4) Only d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
According to Mahbub ul Haq’s perspective on human development, recasting planning models requires several key elements. These include starting with a human balance sheet to assess the state of human well being. It also necessitates a comprehensive set of social and human development indicators to measure progress beyond mere economic figures. Furthermore, there should be an equal emphasis on both production and distribution objectives to ensure equitable growth. The removal of poverty is a goal, but the other three elements are the foundational strategies suggested for the model.
3. Which of the following statement is correct about theory of demographic transition ?
A. In first stage birth rate is low.
B. In first stage death rate is high.
C. In first stage population growth rate is high.
D. In first stage birth rate is high.
(1) A and B
(2) B and D
(3) C and D
(4) A and C
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The theory of demographic transition describes population changes over time. The first stage is marked by a high birth rate and a high death rate, resulting in a relatively stable population size.
4. The theory of demographic transition describes :
(1) The changes in birth and death rates during development of the country
(2) The migration patterns within a country
(3) The impact of technology on population growth
(4) The relationship between income and life expectancy
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The demographic transition theory explains how birth and death rates evolve as a country progresses economically and socially. It outlines stages from high rates to low rates, reflecting developmental changes.
5. According to Mahbub ul Haq, there are four essential components in human development paradigm such as :
a. Life expectancy and Health
b. Equity and Enablement
c. Education and Classy Standard of Living
d. Sustainability and Productivity
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) a and c
(4) b and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The human development paradigm, as conceptualized by Mahbub ul Haq, is built on four essential pillars. These components are Equity, which refers to fairness and equal opportunities for all; Enablement, which involves empowering people; Sustainability, ensuring that development meets the needs of the present without compromising future generations; and Productivity, enhancing human capabilities and choices.
6. According to the quantity theory of money, if the money supply doubles and the velocity of money and output remain constant, what happens to the price level ?
(1) It remains the same
(2) It doubles
(3) It halves
(4) It decreases slightly
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The quantity theory of money explains the relationship between the money supply, price level, and other economic variables. The theory posits that if the velocity of money and the output remain constant, the price level is directly proportional to the money supply. Therefore, if the money supply doubles, the price level will also double.
7. Match the following correct pair with respect to the functions of money.
Function Sub function
A. Primary 1. Store of value
B. Secondary 2. Transfer of value
C. Contingent 3. Measure of value
(1) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1
(2) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
(3) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
(4) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The functions of money are typically categorized into primary, secondary, and contingent roles. The primary function includes serving as a measure of value. The secondary function includes acting as a store of value, while the contingent function involves the transfer of value in more complex transactions.
8. The money multiplier effect occurs because
(1) Banks hold all their deposits as reserves
(2) Increase in high-powered money
(3) The government prints more money
(4) People save all their money in banks
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The money multiplier effect arises when an increase in high-powered money leads to a larger expansion in the total money supply. This happens through the fractional reserve banking system, where banks lend out a portion of their deposits, creating additional money in the economy.
9. The quantity theory of money asserts that
(1) Money supply has no effect on prices
(2) Velocity of money is variable
(3) Price level is directly proportional to the money supply
(4) Real output is always constant
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The quantity theory of money states that the price level in an economy is directly proportional to the money supply, assuming that the velocity of money and real output remain constant. This means that changes in the money supply lead to proportional changes in prices.
10. A country is required to abide by the resolutions and rules of the Uruguay convention to become a member of which organization ?
(1) World Trade Organization
(2) Gatt
(3) World Bank
(4) World Peace Conference
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
To join the World Trade Organization (WTO), a country must comply with the resolutions and rules established during the Uruguay Round of trade negotiations. These agreements laid the foundation for the WTO, replacing the earlier GATT framework.
11. Which of the following statements about fiscal deficit is correct ?
A. Amount obtained after subtracting total expenses from total income.
B. It is the sum of the budget deficit and the debt raised by Government from the market and the liabilities of the government.
C. The amount obtained from the sum of revenue receipts and capital receipts only recoveries of loans and other receipts) minus total expenditure.
D. The sum of budgetary deficit and revenue receipt.
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) B and C
(4) A and D
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Fiscal deficit is a key indicator of a government’s financial health. It is correctly defined as the sum of the budget deficit plus the government’s market borrowings and liabilities. It can also be calculated by subtracting revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts from total expenditure. Statement A describes budget deficit, not fiscal deficit.
12. Which of the following statements about revenue expenditure is correct ?
A. The expenditure on salaries is included in it.
B. The loans given to States by Centre is included in it.
C. The expenditure on Public Health is included in it.
D. The expenditure on Research and Development is included in it.
(1) A and B
(2) A and C
(3) B and C
(4) B and D
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Revenue expenditure includes spending that does not create assets. Salaries and Public Health expenses are part of routine government operations and are classified as revenue expenditure. Loans to states and R&D spending are capital expenditures.
13. Which of the following measures are suggested to reduce internal public debt burden in India ?
a. Reducing public expenditure.
b. Reduction in the interest rate.
c. Using amount received from disinvestment.
d. Purchasing prohibited gold to eliminate debt.
(1) Only a, b and d
(2) Only a, b and c
(3) Only a, b and c
(4) Only c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
To reduce internal public debt, measures include cutting public expenditure, lowering interest rates, and utilizing disinvestment proceeds. These strategies reduce borrowing needs and debt servicing costs. Purchasing prohibited gold is not a recognized fiscal strategy.
14. A tax where impact and incidence lie on the same person who is legally responsible to pay the tax is known as
(1) Direct tax
(2) Indirect tax
(3) Value added tax
(4) Goods and service tax
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A direct tax is one where the person liable to pay also bears the final burden. The impact and incidence fall on the same entity. Examples include income tax and corporate tax.
15. The concept of money multiplier explains the relationship between
(1) Money supply and budget deficit
(2) Money supply and reserve money
(3) Money supply and money demand
(4) Money supply and rate of interest
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The money multiplier shows how changes in reserve money lead to larger changes in money supply. It reflects the banking system’s ability to create money through lending and deposit expansion.
16. What is the GDP deflator used for ?
(1) To measure inflation
(2) To measure unemployment
(3) To measure economic growth
(4) To measure fiscal deficit
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The GDP deflator compares nominal GDP to real GDP to assess changes in the price level. It is a broad measure used to track inflation across the entire economy.
17. In which of the following unemployment types, certain employees have zero marginal output ?
(1) Open unemployment
(2) Technological unemployment
(3) Disguised unemployment
(4) Cyclical unemployment
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Disguised unemployment occurs when more workers are employed than needed, especially in agriculture. These extra workers contribute zero marginal output, meaning their removal doesn’t affect total production.
18. The ratio of Gross Domestic Product at current prices to that of Gross Domestic Product at constant prices is used to find out
(1) Green national income
(2) GDP deflator
(3) Level of unemployment
(4) Gross national income
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The GDP deflator is calculated by dividing nominal GDP by real GDP. This ratio helps determine the overall inflation in the economy by measuring changes in the price level.
19. What are the main stages of the business cycle ?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Six
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The business cycle has four stages: expansion, peak, contraction, and trough. These phases represent the fluctuations in economic activity over time.
20. Consider the following statements in the context of estimating national income using the income method.
a. Transfer payments are not included in estimating national income using income method.
b. Illegal money such as hawala money, money earned through smuggling are not included in estimating national income using the income method.
c. Windfall gains such as prize won are included in estimating national income using the income method.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Both a and c are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
In the income method of estimating national income, only earned incomes from productive activities are counted. Transfer payments and illegal earnings are excluded. Windfall gains are also excluded as they are non-productive.
21. In the year, 2022 India signed Free Trade Agreements with ___________ countries.
a. UAE
b. Netherland
c. Australia
d. China
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) a and d
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
In 2022, India expanded its trade relationships by signing Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). The countries with which these agreements were signed include the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Australia. These agreements aim to strengthen economic ties and reduce trade barriers.
22. Which of the following is connected with International Monetary Fund (IMF) ?
a. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs)
b. International Liquidity
c. International Monetary System
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only c
(4) All the three a, b and c
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is associated with Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), which are international reserve assets. It also manages International Liquidity and oversees the International Monetary System to promote global financial stability.
23. What was the percentage increase in the expansion of Multinational Companies during the period of 1985-90 according to the World Investment Report of 1992 ?
(1) 30 percent
(2) 32 percent
(3) 34 percent
(4) 36 percent
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The World Investment Report of 1992 noted a 34 percent increase in the expansion of Multinational Companies during the period 1985–1990, reflecting significant global investment growth.
24. An unemployment that is caused by a temporary mismatch between demand and supply of labour is called as
(1) Structural Unemployment
(2) Frictional Unemployment
(3) Cyclical Unemployment
(4) Natural Unemployment
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Frictional unemployment arises from a temporary mismatch between job seekers and job openings. It typically occurs when individuals are transitioning between jobs or entering the workforce.
25. As per the data given in Global Human Development Report 2023 – 24, match the following correct pairs with reference to the per capita Gross national income.
Country Per capita GNP (in Dollar)
A. China I. 5,374
B. Pakistan II. 18,025
C. India III. 65,565
D. America IV. 6,951
(1) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – I
(2) A – III, B – IV, C – I, D – II
(3) A – II, B – I, C – IV, D – III
(4) A – IV, B – I, C – II, D – III
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
According to the Global Human Development Report 2023–24, the correct per capita GNP figures are: China – $18,025, Pakistan – $5,374, India – $6,951, and America – $65,565.
26. The Human Poverty Index (HPI) includes measures of
(1) Income, literacy, life expectancy
(2) Education, employment, income
(3) Longevity, knowledge, standard of living
(4) Health, infrastructure, natural resources
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Human Poverty Index (HPI) measures Longevity, Knowledge, and Standard of Living. It assesses deprivation through indicators like survival rates, literacy, and access to basic services.
27. Which two of the following indicators are correct as Development Indicators ?
A. Rate of capital formation
B. Standard of living
C. Stress within castes
D. Water distribution between two states
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and D
(4) A and C
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Rate of capital formation and Standard of living are recognized development indicators. They reflect economic growth and quality of life, unlike social tensions or regional disputes.
28. Which of the following are characteristics of the third stage of the theory of demographic transition ?
a. Low birth rate
b. High death rate
c. Small family size
d. Low growth rate of population
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only a and c
(3) Only a and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
In the third stage of demographic transition, there is a low birth rate, small family size, and low population growth rate. The death rate remains low, unlike in earlier stages.
29. TRIMS agreement under the WTO deals with
(1) Intellectual Property Rights
(2) Investment Measures Affecting Trade
(3) Agricultural Subsidies
(4) Environmental Standards
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The TRIMS agreement under the WTO addresses Investment Measures Affecting Trade, ensuring that domestic regulations do not distort international trade flows.
30. Which of the following are challenges before Co-operative Sector in India ?
a. Decreasing Government Grants to Co-operative Sector.
b. Increasing political interference in Co-operative Societies.
c. Competition with Multinational Corporations.
d. To expand the market.
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Co-operative Sector in India faces challenges such as decreasing government grants, political interference, competition from multinational corporations, and the need to expand market access.
31. In 2022, Indian Farmers Fertilizer Co-operative Limited (IFFCO) established world’s first Nano Urea (Liquid) Plant at _____________.
(1) Kalol, Gujarat
(2) Deoghar, Jharkhand
(3) Phulpur, Uttar Pradesh
(4) Aonla, Uttar Pradesh
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
In 2022, the Indian Farmers Fertilizer Co-operative Limited (IFFCO) launched the world’s first Nano Urea (Liquid) Plant at Kalol, Gujarat, marking a major advancement in sustainable fertilizer technology.
32. In case of contract farming, the price of produced crop is _____________.
(1) Pre-determined
(2) Pre-indetermined
(3) As per market rate
(4) Pre-determined and market rate whichever is higher
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
In contract farming, the price of the crop is pre-determined through an agreement between the farmer and the buyer, ensuring price stability and reducing market risk.
33. Which mobile app is launched by Government of India to showcase the authentic handcrafted products made by Self Help Groups ?
a. Nari Shakti Doot
b. e-UMANG
c. e-LAKSHMI
d. e-SARAS
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Only d
(4) a and b
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Government of India launched the e-SARAS mobile app to promote authentic handcrafted products made by Self Help Groups (SHGs), enhancing their visibility and market access.
34. Identify the correct pair about food grain crops area under irrigation in 2019-20.
State Irrigated area – percent
A. Maharashtra 1. 98.78
B. Punjab 2. 19.09
C. Telangana 3. 84.89
D. Uttar Pradesh 4. 81.82
(1) A – 1, B – 3, C – 2, D – 4
(2) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
(3) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1, D – 4
(4) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
In 2019-20, the irrigation percentages were: Maharashtra – 19.09%, Punjab – 98.78%, Telangana – 81.82%, and Uttar Pradesh – 84.89%, making option (2) the correct match.
35. Consider the following statements about growth of agricultural gross value added in India’s gross value added at constant basic prices (2011-12).
A. It has declined from 2019-20 to 2022-23.
B. It was 3.3 percent during the year of 2022-23.
(1) Only A is correct
(2) Only B is correct
(3) Both A and B are correct
(4) Neither A nor B is correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Between 2019-20 and 2022-23, the agricultural gross value added (GVA) declined, and in 2022-23, the growth rate was 3.3 percent, confirming both statements as correct.
36. Consider the following statements.
a. The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) launched in 2014-15 by the NDA government.
b. NMSA aims at food security and supply of oil and gas.
c. NMSA aims at Indian agriculture more resilient to climate change.
(1) a is correct
(2) b is correct
(3) c is correct
(4) a, b and c are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) focuses on making Indian agriculture resilient to climate change, not on oil and gas supply, making only statement c correct.
37. The General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT) was replaced by which of the following in January 1995 ?
(1) World Health Organization
(2) World Trade Organization
(3) International Trade Union
(4) World Bank
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
In January 1995, the World Trade Organization (WTO) replaced the General Agreement on Trade and Tariff (GATT) to regulate and liberalize international trade.
38. The focus of the Ninth Five Year Plan was on :
(1) Self reliance and modernisation
(2) Growth with social justice
(3) Removal of poverty and attainment of self reliance
(4) Growth with social justice and equality
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Ninth Five Year Plan emphasized growth with social justice and equality, aiming for inclusive development across all sections of society.
39. V. M. Dandekar and Nilkantha Rath estimated the value of the diet with _______ calories as minimum level of nutrition.
(1) 2100
(2) 2150
(3) 2200
(4) 2250
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Economists V. M. Dandekar and Nilkantha Rath set 2250 calories as the minimum nutritional requirement per person per day for defining the poverty line.
40. In India, 1991 Economic Reforms were accepted for which of the following objectives ?
a. To increase India’s Economic Growth Rate.
b. To create full employment conditions in India.
c. To decrease the proportion of Below Poverty Line Persons in India.
d. To decrease Regional disparity in India.
(1) Only a
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The 1991 Economic Reforms aimed to increase economic growth, create full employment, and reduce poverty, making options a, b, and c the core objectives.
41. 10th Ministerial Conference of the WTO was held at _____________ in the year _____________.
(1) Doha, 2001
(2) Nairobi, 2015
(3) Indonesia, 2013
(4) Abu Dhabi, 2024
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The 10th Ministerial Conference of the World Trade Organization (WTO) was held in Nairobi, Kenya in 2015, marking the first time the conference was hosted in Africa.
42. Consider the following statements.
a. Government of Maharashtra has launched Mukhyamantri Sour Krishi Pump Yojana 2021-22.
b. The main objective of this Scheme is day time power availability for agricultural pumps and replacement of diesel pumps to reduce pollution.
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Only a is correct
(3) Only b is correct
(4) Both a and b are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Mukhyamantri Sour Krishi Pump Yojana aims to provide daytime solar power for agricultural pumps and replace diesel pumps to reduce pollution. The launch year mentioned in statement ‘a’ is incorrect.
43. Which Scheme is being implemented in Maharashtra with World Bank funding to facilitate sustainable ground water management ?
(1) Bharatmala Pariyojana
(2) Nadi Sanvardhan Yojana
(3) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
(4) Atal Bhujal Yojana
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Atal Bhujal Yojana, supported by the World Bank, is implemented in Maharashtra to promote sustainable groundwater management through community participation.
44. What was the average size of land holding in Maharashtra as per Agriculture Cenasus 2015-16 ?
(1) 2 hectare
(2) 0.20 hectare
(3) 1.34 hectare
(4) 0.54 hectare
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
As per the Agriculture Census 2015-16, the average land holding size in Maharashtra was 1.34 hectare, reflecting the typical farm size in the state.
45. Consider the following statements.
A. The Maharashtra State is leading in Foreign Direct Investment.
B. The business-friendly environment coupled with various policies and skilled workforce has helped the Maharashtra State to remain on the forefront in terms of FDI inflow in India.
(1) A is correct
(2) B is correct
(3) Both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Maharashtra leads in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) due to its business-friendly policies, skilled workforce, and robust infrastructure, making both statements correct.
46. Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund was launched in the 2020 as a part of Atmanirbhar Bharat Stimulus Package. What was the size of the package ?
(1) 15,000 crore
(2) 20,000 crore
(3) 11,000 crore
(4) 21,000 crore
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Animal Husbandry Infrastructure Development Fund, part of the Atmanirbhar Bharat Stimulus Package, was launched in 2020 with a size of ₹15,000 crore to support dairy and livestock infrastructure.
47. In which year the Kisan Credit Card Scheme was launched to empower farmers to purchase agricultural products and services ?
(1) 1991
(2) 1995
(3) 1998
(4) 2005
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Kisan Credit Card Scheme was launched in 1998 to provide farmers with timely and flexible credit for purchasing agricultural inputs and services.
48. Consider the following statements about Co-operative Farming.
a. Co-operative agriculture is a solution to solve the problems caused by sub-division of land.
b. In Co-operative farming pooling of land is done of those farmers who have small land holdings for the purpose of cultivation.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Co-operative farming addresses issues of land fragmentation by encouraging farmers with small holdings to pool their land for joint cultivation, improving efficiency and productivity.
49. Consider the following statements related to Periodic Labour Force Survey 2023-24.
a. ‘Periodic Labour Force Survey’ first time published in April 2018.
b. ‘Periodic Labour Force Survey’ only takes into account the unemployability of people belonging to 15 to 55 age group.
c. The unemployment rate in India shows decreasing trend in last five years.
d. During 2023-24, the unemployment rate among rural female and urban female was 7.1% and 2.1% respectively.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(1) Only statement a is correct
(2) Statements a and b are correct
(3) Only statement c is correct
(4) Statements a, c and d are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The unemployment rate in India has shown a declining trend over the past five years. The other statements contain factual inaccuracies regarding the survey’s scope and data.
50. Minimum Support Price (MSP) for the crops comes under the ___________ of WTO’s Agreement regarding Agriculture.
(1) Ambar Box
(2) Blue Box
(3) Green Box
(4) S and D Box
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is categorized under the Amber Box in the WTO’s Agreement on Agriculture, as it is considered a trade-distorting subsidy.
51. Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of organic farming in India ?
a. ‘Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana’ (PKVY) has been launched in 2015 to promote organic farming in India.
b. In 2022-23, Madhya Pradesh ranked 1st in organic farm production in India.
c. In 2022-23, Maharashtra ranked 2nd in organic farm production in India.
d. The demand for organic crop products is increasing in domestic and International markets.
(1) Only statements a and b are correct
(2) Only statements b and c are correct
(3) Only statements a, b and c are correct
(4) Statements a, b, c and d are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
All statements are correct regarding organic farming in India. The PKVY scheme was launched in 2015 to promote organic agriculture. In 2022-23, Madhya Pradesh ranked first and Maharashtra second in organic production. There is also a rising demand for organic products in both domestic and international markets.
52. Indian Agricultural Sector played positive role in process of economic development of India through which of the following factors ?
a. Supply of raw material to industries
b. Market for industrial products
c. Employment supply for increasing population
d. Contribution in capital formation
(1) c and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The agricultural sector supports economic development by supplying raw materials to industries, serving as a market for industrial goods, providing employment, and contributing to capital formation through savings and investment.
53. Consider the following statements.
a. As per Livestock Census 2019, Maharashtra ranks fifth at All India level with total livestock about 3.31 crore.
b. Maharashtra has experienced outbreak of Lumpy skin disease in bovines since 2020-21.
(1) Both a and b are correct
(2) Only a is correct
(3) Only b is correct
(4) a is correct and b is incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Maharashtra has faced an outbreak of Lumpy skin disease in bovines since 2020-21. The ranking and livestock count in statement ‘a’ are not accurate as per the 2019 Livestock Census.
54. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a. During 2022-23, Maharashtra ranked 2nd in total exports from India.
b. Maharashtra ranked 2nd as per the ‘Export Preparedness Index 2022’.
c. Maharashtra State established total 37 Special Economic Zones (SEZs).
d. Maharashtra State has total 8 Agri Export Zones.
(1) Only statements a and b are correct
(2) Only statements b and c are correct
(3) Only statements a, b and c are correct
(4) Statements a, b, c and d are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
All statements are correct. Maharashtra ranked 2nd in exports and in the Export Preparedness Index 2022. It has 37 SEZs and 8 Agri Export Zones, supporting its strong export infrastructure.
55. Consider the following statements.
a. As on 31st March, 2023, there were about 2.24 lakh Co-operative Societies in Maharashtra.
b. Out of which, about 56% were Co-operative Housing Societies.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both are correct
(4) Both are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
As of 31st March 2023, Maharashtra had around 2.24 lakh Co-operative Societies, with Co-operative Housing Societies making up approximately 56% of the total.
56. Rochdale Co-operative System was concerned with
(1) Farmers
(2) Traders
(3) Consumers
(4) Labourers
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Rochdale Co-operative System is historically linked to consumer co-operatives, emphasizing fair pricing, democratic control, and member welfare.
57. Who has given the following definition of co-operation ?
“A group or group of individuals who have come together to achieve a common goal through joint efforts can be known as co-operation.”
(1) Prof. C. R. Fay
(2) Shri. Calvert
(3) Shri. C. F. Strickland
(4) Shri. Herrik
Answer: There is no correct answer provided in the answer key for this question.
Explanation:
The definition describes co-operation as collective effort toward a common goal, but the correct attribution is not confirmed in the official answer key.
58. GAGAN (GAGAN) is the full form of _____________ .
(1) Global Aid for Geographical Automatic Navigation
(2) GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation
(3) Global Administrative Geo And Network
(4) GPS for Adventures Geo Additional Network
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
GAGAN stands for GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation, developed by ISRO and AAI to enhance GPS accuracy for aviation and other sectors.
59. Which Public – Private – Partnerships (PPPs) models are used in India to create infrastructure through private participation ?
a. Build – Operate – Transfer
b. Design – Build – Finance – Operate – Transfer
c. Rehabilitate – Operate – Transfer
d. Toll – Operate – Transfer
(1) Only a
(2) a and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
India uses multiple PPP models including BOT, DBFOT, ROT, and TOT to involve private players in infrastructure development.
60. Which of the following sector/sectors helps India to resolve the problems of large unemployment and mass poverty ?
a. Agriculture
b. Education
c. Industrialisation
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only c
(3) Only b and c
(4) Only b
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Industrialisation is key to solving unemployment and poverty by creating diverse job opportunities and boosting economic productivity.
61. What is the full form of UMANG ?
(1) Unified Mobile Application for New-Age Governance
(2) Universal Mobile Application for New-Age Governance
(3) Unique Mobile Application for New-Age Governance
(4) United Mobile Application for New-Age Governance
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
UMANG stands for Unified Mobile Application for New-Age Governance. It is a government-developed platform that provides access to multiple central and state services through a single mobile interface.
62. Which of the following statements are true in case of Prasar Bharti ?
a. Prasar Bharti broadcast in 23 languages.
b. Prasar Bharti is private broadcasting service.
c. ‘Bahujan Hitay, Bahujan Sukhay’ is motto of Prasar Bharti.
d. Prasar Bharti celebrated Golden Jubilee year on 23 November 2022.
(1) a and c
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Prasar Bharati is a public broadcaster in India, not private. It broadcasts in 23 languages and follows the motto ‘Bahujan Hitay, Bahujan Sukhay’. The Golden Jubilee date mentioned is incorrect.
63. Reserve Bank of India has been vested with extensive powers to control commercial banking system by _____________.
a. The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
b. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949
c. Foreign Exchange Management Act
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Both a and b
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The RBI derives its regulatory powers from the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. These acts empower it to supervise and control the commercial banking system.
64. Which Committee recommended the formulation of Monetary Policy based on the monetary targeting ?
(1) Hilton Young Committee
(2) Central Banking Enquiry Committee
(3) Chakravarty Committee
(4) Nachiket Mor Committee
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Chakravarty Committee recommended that India’s Monetary Policy should be based on monetary targeting, aiming to control inflation through money supply regulation.
65. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a. During 2021 – 22, currency with the public was greater than demand deposits of residents.
b. During 2021 – 22, short-term time deposits of residents were greater than long-term time deposits of residents.
c. During 2021 – 22, net bank credit to the government was less than bank credit to the commercial sector.
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) Both a and b are correct
(4) Both a and c are correct
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
In 2021–22, currency with the public exceeded demand deposits, and bank credit to the commercial sector was greater than credit to the government, reflecting private sector growth.
66. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Monetary Policy of RBI ?
a. Inflation targeting monetary policy was recommended by Urjit Patel Committee.
b. The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 was amended in May 2016 to provide a statutory basis for the implementation of the flexible inflation targeting framework.
c. The Reserve Bank of India decides the members in Monetary Policy Committee.
d. Before the constitution of the Monetary Policy Committee, a Technical Advisory Committee on Monetary Policy advised the RBI for formulating Monetary Policy.
(1) Statements a, b and d are correct
(2) Statements a and b are correct
(3) Statements a, b and c are correct
(4) Statements a, c and d are correct
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Urjit Patel Committee recommended inflation targeting. The RBI Act was amended in 2016 to formalize this. Before the Monetary Policy Committee, the Technical Advisory Committee advised RBI. MPC members are appointed jointly by RBI and government.
67. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘District as Export Hub’ initiative ?
a. Balanced development of all the districts in country.
b. To select products from each district and sell it in the International market.
c. To provide financial assistance to exporters.
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and c
(4) Only b
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The District as Export Hub initiative focuses on identifying products from each district and promoting them in the international market. Balanced development and financial assistance are not its primary stated goals.
68. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
A. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a tax that is levied when a consumer buys a good or service.
B. GST is a single national uniform tax levied on all goods and services across the country.
C. The Motto of GST is “One Tax, One Market, One Nation”.
D. Customs duties have been subsumed under GST.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A, B and C
(4) A, B and D
Answer: There is no correct answer provided in the answer key for this question.
Explanation:
Statements A, B, and C are correct. GST is a consumption-based tax, uniform across India, and follows the motto “One Tax, One Market, One Nation”. Customs duties are not subsumed under GST.
69. In the year 2015, Hon’ble Prime Minister launched the Rural Entrepreneurs Awareness Development Yojana (Student READY) for _____________ field.
a. Agriculture Engineering and Biotechnology.
b. Horticulture and Sericulture.
c. Dairy Technology and Food Technology.
(1) Only a and b
(2) Only b
(3) Only a
(4) a, b, c
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Student READY program launched in 2015 covers fields like Agriculture Engineering, Biotechnology, Horticulture, Sericulture, Dairy Technology, and Food Technology, promoting entrepreneurship and skill development.
70. In India, after 1991 the share of service sector in India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) increased by _____________ speed but the share of service sector in employment generation increased by _____________ speed.
(1) Low, High
(2) High, Low
(3) Medium, Low
(4) High, High
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Post-1991 reforms, the service sector’s GDP share grew at a high speed, but its employment generation grew at a low speed, leading to jobless growth in the sector.
71. The Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956 had reserved _____________ industries for the Public Sector and Industrial Policy Resolution, 1991 reduced this number to _____________ .
(1) 5, 3
(2) 17, 8
(3) 18, 17
(4) 6, 7
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 reserved 17 industries for the public sector. After liberalization in 1991, this number was reduced to 8, allowing greater private sector participation.
72. Fifteenth Finance Commission regarding distribution of grants has laid significant emphasis on health, education and rural economy because
a. There were many challenges in health and education sector after COVID pandemic.
b. Health and education are public goods and influences human capital.
c. 70% labour supply is from rural economy.
d. Development of rural roads results positively for employment.
(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Fifteenth Finance Commission emphasized health, education, and the rural economy due to COVID-related challenges, their role as public goods, the labour supply from rural areas, and the employment impact of rural infrastructure.
73. Components of bulk imports are
a. Petroleum, crude oil and products
b. Cereals and pulses, edible oil and sugar
c. Fertilizers, non-ferrous metals, papers
(1) a, b and c
(2) Only b
(3) Only d
(4) Only a
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India’s bulk imports include petroleum and crude oil, food items like cereals and edible oils, and industrial inputs such as fertilizers and metals.
74. Goods and Service Tax Bill (GST) (115th Constitutional Amendment) was introduced in the Lok Sabha on _____________ .
(1) December 19, 2014
(2) March 22, 2011
(3) April 25, 2011
(4) November 29, 2011
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The GST Bill, introduced as the 115th Constitutional Amendment, was first tabled in the Lok Sabha on March 22, 2011, initiating India’s tax reform journey.
75. Which of the following export processing zones converted into Special Economic Zones by Government of India ?
a. Kandala and Surat
b. Santacruz (Mumbai)
c. Chennai
d. Visakhapatnam
(1) Only a
(2) b and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Government converted Export Processing Zones (EPZs) like Kandala, Surat, Santacruz, Chennai, and Visakhapatnam into Special Economic Zones (SEZs) to boost exports.
76. Which of the following was/were objectives of Industrial Policy 1956 ?
a. To increase economic growth rate of country.
b. To reduce inequality in distribution of income and wealth.
c. To impose restrictions on monopoly.
d. To stimulate privatization.
(1) a and c
(2) a, b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Industrial Policy of 1956 aimed to accelerate growth, reduce inequality, and curb monopolies. It promoted the public sector, not privatization.
77. The foreign investment flows in our country is/are through mainly of the following ?
a. FDI
b. FII
c. FSI
d. FIC
(1) a and b
(2) b and c
(3) c and d
(4) a and d
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India receives foreign investment mainly via FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) and FII (Foreign Institutional Investment), which support long-term and short-term capital flows respectively.
78. Which of the following are types of indirect tax ?
a. Securities transaction tax
b. Corporation tax
c. Customs duty
d. Goods and Services Tax
(1) a, b and c
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) c and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Customs duty and Goods and Services Tax (GST) are indirect taxes, levied on goods and services rather than income or profits.
79. When the Government cannot raise enough financial resources through taxation, it finances its development expenditure through _____________ .
A. By withdrawing its cash balances with the Reserve Bank of India.
B. Borrowing from the market.
C. Borrowing from the Reserve Bank of India.
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) A, B and C
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
To meet development expenditure, the government uses cash balances, market borrowings, and RBI borrowings, especially when tax revenue falls short.
80. Which of the following includes in capital receipts of Central Government ?
a. Recovery of previous loans given to State Governments
b. Net market borrowings
c. Other capital receipts such as provident funds and special deposits etc.
d. Goods and Service Tax
(1) a and b
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Capital receipts include loan recoveries, market borrowings, and provident fund deposits. GST is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt.
81. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to fifteenth Finance Commission ?
a. The fifteenth Finance Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of N. K. Singh.
b. Initially the responsibility of the Commission was to cover the five year period 2020 to 2025. But actually the Commission submitted its final report for the years 2021 – 22 to 2025 – 26.
c. For the year 2020 – 21, the Commission submitted its interim report.
d. The Commission gave more weightage to population criteria for the horizontal distribution of tax revenue.
(1) Statements b, c and d are correct
(2) Statements a, c and d are correct
(3) Statements a, b and c are correct
(4) Statements a, b and d are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Fifteenth Finance Commission was chaired by N. K. Singh. It initially covered 2020–2025, but submitted an interim report for 2020–21 and a final report for 2021–22 to 2025–26. The weightage to population was not increased compared to previous commissions.
82. Providing food or fertilizers to the consumers at lower prices than those at which the Government procures the commodities is the _____________ type of subsidy.
(1) Procurement subsidy
(2) Regulatory subsidy
(3) Cash subsidy
(4) Credit subsidy
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A procurement subsidy involves the government buying commodities at a higher price and selling them at a lower price to consumers, ensuring affordability and supporting producers.
83. Which of the following are objectives of Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Uthan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) plan ?
a. To provide energy security to farmers.
b. To provide water security to farmers.
c. To reduce the use of petrol in agricultural sector.
d. To increase the farmers’ income.
(1) a and b
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
PM-KUSUM aims to provide energy security via solar pumps, ensure water access, and increase farmers’ income. Reducing petrol use is not a stated objective.
84. In which of the following Five Year Plan, modernisation and restructuring of Delhi and Mumbai Airports launched through joint venture companies ?
(1) First
(2) Third
(3) Sixth
(4) Tenth
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The Tenth Five Year Plan (2002–2007) initiated modernisation of Delhi and Mumbai airports through joint ventures, enhancing infrastructure and private participation.
85. In India, which of the following measures included in the social security measures ?
a. Providing cash payments to families of specified class whose income from earning has been reduced drastically or ceased temporarily or permanently.
b. Providing medical benefits and medical care to persons of the specified class in the event of sickness, maternity etc.
c. Providing cash payments in the form of stipends, pensions etc. to the dependents of an employee in the event of his death.
d. To reduce the suffering of the individual from the peoples in the society.
(1) Only d
(2) a and b
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Social security includes cash payments, medical benefits, and pensions to dependents. Statement ‘d’ is vague and not a defined measure.
86. Which of the following are the main objectives of the Special Economic Zone Act ?
a. To decrease the proportion of economic activity.
b. Promotion of exports of only services.
c. To increase the investment from domestic and foreign sources.
d. To develop infrastructure.
(1) a, b and c
(2) a, c and d
(3) c and d
(4) b, c and d
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The SEZ Act aims to increase investment and develop infrastructure. It promotes exports of goods and services, not just services, and seeks to increase economic activity.
87. Which are the internal causes of industrial sickness ?
a. Financial problem
b. Labour problem
c. Modern machinery
d. Management problems
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b and d
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Industrial sickness arises from financial, labour, and management issues. Modern machinery is not a cause; it typically improves efficiency.
88. Consider the following statements.
a. In 2014 – 15, India’s export to the seven leading countries viz., Hongkong, China, USA, UAE, Germany, UK and Japan was 36 percent.
b. In 2014 – 15, India’s import from the seven leading countries viz., Hongkong, China, USA, UAE, Germany, UK and Japan was 29.4 percent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only b is correct
(3) a and b are correct
(4) a and b are incorrect
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
In 2014–15, India’s exports to seven leading countries were 36%, and imports from them were 29.4%, confirming both statements.
89. Export Centers and Goods exported are given below. Match the correct pairs.
Column – I
a. Shivkashi
b. Ambala
c. Rajkot
d. Agra
Column – II
i. Leather shoes
ii. Engine pump
iii. Scientific equipment
iv. Match boxes
(1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Shivkashi – Match boxes, Ambala – Scientific equipment, Rajkot – Engine pump, Agra – Leather shoes are the correct export center-product pairs.
90. Which of the following initiatives taken by Indian Government for increasing export from India ?
a. To set up Special Economic Zones.
b. In 2004 – 2009 Foreign Trade Policy of India, ‘Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana (Special Agricultural Yield Scheme) was introduced to increase export of fruits, flowers and vegetables.
c. In Foreign Trade Policy 2015 – 2020, the Agricultural Export Zones was introduced.
d. Export Oriented Units Scheme was started in 1991.
(1) a, b and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) b and c
(4) a and b
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The government promoted exports via SEZs and the Vishesh Krishi Upaj Yojana. Agricultural Export Zones and EOU scheme were introduced earlier than stated.
91. Match the following correct pair with respect to the following various organisations working for agriculture sector.
Objectives
A. Co-ordination, Guidance and Management for Agricultural Research and Education
B. Liberalization of trade
C. To bring effective co-ordination and harmonization among agricultural universities
Institute
- Maharashtra Council of Agricultural Education and Research
- Indian Council of Agricultural Research
- World Trade Organization
(1) A – 2, B – 3, C – 1
(2) A – 3, B – 2, C – 1
(3) A – 2, B – 1, C – 3
(4) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) oversees agricultural research and education. The World Trade Organization (WTO) promotes liberalization of trade. The Maharashtra Council of Agricultural Education and Research coordinates among agricultural universities in Maharashtra.
92. Consider the following statements regarding Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana :
a. Benefits of the “Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana” are given to each cluster having 20 ha. land for five consecutive years.
b. Enhancing soil fertility and producing healthy food grains through organic farming without use of chemicals is the one of the objective of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana.
c. Guarantee of quality.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only a
(2) Only b
(3) Both a and b
(4) Both b and c
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana (PKVY) promotes organic farming, aiming to enhance soil fertility and produce chemical-free grains. It also ensures quality certification. The cluster size and duration mentioned in statement ‘a’ are inaccurate.
93. According to the Reserve Bank of India, the total number of operative Kisan Credit Cards (KCCs) in the financial year 2022 – 23 were about _____________ .
(1) 280.96 Lakh
(2) 282.96 lakh
(3) 286.96 Lakh
(4) 289.96 lakh
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
In 2022–23, the Reserve Bank of India reported approximately 282.96 lakh operative Kisan Credit Cards (KCCs), supporting farmers with timely credit access.
94. The price at which the distribution of food grains supplied through Public Distribution System (PDS) to consumer at fixed price is known as
(1) Issue price
(2) Procurement price
(3) Minimum support price
(4) Market price
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Issue Price is the fixed rate at which food grains are distributed to consumers under the Public Distribution System (PDS), distinct from procurement or market prices.
95. India’s global hunger index score in the Global Hunger Index 2023 is _____________ which puts it in the serious category.
(1) 27.2
(2) 28.7
(3) 29.9
(4) 30.2
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
India’s Global Hunger Index score in 2023 was 28.7, placing it in the serious category, indicating persistent challenges in food and nutrition security.
96. Match the pairs – as per minimum support prices fixed by Central Government in 2021 – 22 for following crops.
a. Bajra I. 7275
b. Maize II. 6300
c. Tur III. 1870
d. Moong IV. 2250
(1) I II III IV
(2) IV III II I
(3) III II I IV
(4) II III IV I
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
In 2021–22, MSPs were: Bajra – ₹2250, Maize – ₹1870, Tur – ₹6300, Moong – ₹7275, matching option (2).
97. As per Global Forest Resource Assessment, 2020 arrange the Mangrove area in the World in ascending order.
(1) Asia, Africa, North and Central America, South America
(2) Africa, Asia, South America, North and Central America
(3) North and Central America, South America, Africa, Asia
(4) South America, North and Central America, Africa, Asia
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
According to Global Forest Resource Assessment 2020, mangrove area in ascending order is: South America, North and Central America, Africa, Asia.
98. The Government of India set up an expert committee under the Chairmanship of Shri Y. K. Alagh on _____________ to examine the methodological issue in fixation of minimum support prices.
(1) 5 May 2003
(2) 6 May 2003
(3) 7 May 2003
(4) 7 May 2005
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
On 7 May 2003, the Government of India formed a committee under Shri Y. K. Alagh to review MSP fixation methodology.
99. Based on data from the World Bank’s Food Security Update in March 2023, which countries recorded food inflation highest and lowest between March 2022 and February 2023 ?
(1) Pakistan and Indonesia
(2) Argentina and China
(3) Sri Lanka and India
(4) Germany and Canada
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Between March 2022 and February 2023, Argentina had the highest food inflation, and China had the lowest, as per World Bank’s Food Security Update.
100. The Government of India had constituted a committee under the Chairmanship of _____________ in 2013 to examine the loopholes in the implementation of Crop Insurance Scheme.
(1) Dr. V. P. Sharma
(2) Dr. P. K. Mishra
(3) Shri D. P. Gupta
(4) Shri P. J. Joseph
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
In 2013, the Government of India appointed a committee chaired by Dr. P. K. Mishra to examine loopholes in Crop Insurance Scheme implementation.
101. Which of the following statements about the policy of doubling of farmers income is correct ?
A. For doubling farmers income, decided to increase the cropping intensity.
B. The Governments Policy is to double the farmers income by the year 2029.
C. Increase in productivity of livestock.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only A and C
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The policy aimed at doubling farmers’ income involves a multi-pronged strategy. Key components of this strategy include increasing the cropping intensity, which means growing more crops on the same piece of land in a year, and focusing on allied activities by increasing the productivity of livestock. The target year for doubling the income was originally set for 2022, not 2029.
102. According to the “India State of Forest Report – 2021”, arrange the bamboo – bearing states area of the country in ascending order.
(1) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
(3) Odisha, Maharashtra, Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh
(4) Madhya Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Odisha, Maharashtra
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Based on the India State of Forest Report – 2021, the correct ascending order of bamboo-bearing states by area is Odisha, followed by Maharashtra, then Arunachal Pradesh, and finally Madhya Pradesh.
103. Which of the following factors are considered by Commission for Agricultural Cost and Prices (CACP) while recommending Minimum Support Prices ?
a. Total agricultural production.
b. Demand and supply situation of various crops.
c. Domestic and international prices.
d. Terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture sector.
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The Commission for Agricultural Cost and Prices (CACP) considers factors such as demand and supply situation, domestic and international prices, and terms of trade between agriculture and non-agriculture sectors while recommending Minimum Support Prices (MSP). Total agricultural production is not a direct criterion.
104. NABARD had served through _____________ regional offices in total _____________ districts in India in the year 2023.
(1) 31 and 753
(2) 28 and 763
(3) 31 and 763
(4) 28 and 753
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
In 2023, NABARD operated through 31 regional offices, serving a total of 753 districts across India, supporting rural development and agricultural finance.
105. The Doubling Farmers Income (DFI) Report – 2016, indicated that to double farmers income, over the period 2016 – 17 to 2022 – 23, which of the following things are needed ?
a. Overall agricultural sector growth by 2.5% during the period of 2016 – 17 to 2022 – 23.
b. Income growth at annual rate of 10.4% in the farming sector.
c. Annual growth rate in agricultural investment by 12.5%.
(1) Only statement (a) is correct
(2) Statements (a) and (b) are correct
(3) Statements (b) and (c) are correct
(4) Statements (a) and (c) are correct
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The Doubling Farmers’ Income Report – 2016 emphasized the need for 10.4% annual income growth in the farming sector and 12.5% annual growth in agricultural investment to achieve the goal by 2022–23.
106. Classify the following energy sources into renewable and non-renewable energy sources.
i. Coal
ii. Biomass
iii. Natural gas
iv. Wind
(1) i, iii are non-renewable, ii, iv are renewable
(2) All are renewable
(3) Only ii is renewable
(4) All are non-renewable
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Coal and natural gas are non-renewable energy sources as they are finite and deplete over time. Biomass and wind are renewable sources, naturally replenished and sustainable.
107. Wave power is produced by which of the following characteristics of wave ?
(1) Sideways displacement of the water waves
(2) Up and down motion of the water waves
(3) Temperature gradient developed in the water wave
(4) All of the above
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Wave power is generated from the up and down motion of ocean waves, which is converted into kinetic energy for electricity production. This vertical movement is the primary source of energy.
108. ‘VEDAS’ portal serves to
(1) Listen translation of vedas in 75 languages
(2) Disseminate the available satellite data
(3) Relate knowledge in old vedas with modern science
(4) Booking ticket for ‘space tour’ through ISRO
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The VEDAS portal (Visualisation of Earth observation Data and Archival System) developed by ISRO is used to disseminate satellite data for research and analysis in Earth sciences.
109. Fill in the blanks by choosing proper options.
i. Deuterium is _____________ of hydrogen.
ii. The water containing deuterium is said to be _____________ water.
iii. Deuterium containing water is used as a _____________ in atomic reactor.
iv. Deuterium containing water do not absorb _____________ .
(1) isotone light accelerator proton
(2) isobar dirty coolant electron
(3) isomer polluted insulator meson
(4) isotope heavy moderator neutron
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Deuterium is an isotope of hydrogen. Water containing deuterium is called heavy water, used as a moderator in atomic reactors. It does not absorb neutrons, making it ideal for sustaining nuclear reactions.
110. How are low and short lived radioactive wastes disposed ?
(1) By placing it in repository built in shallow grounds
(2) Buried under sea
(3) Sent to outer space
(4) Left out in streams or rivers
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Low and short-lived radioactive wastes are safely disposed of by placing them in repositories built in shallow grounds, allowing the radiation to decay over time in a controlled environment.
111. Fill in the blanks by choosing proper options.
i. In 1979, in _____________ first atomic reactor accident took place.
ii. In 1986, in _____________ Chernobyl atomic reactor accident took place.
iii. In 2011, in _____________ Fukushima atomic reactor accident took place.
iv. For radiation protection India established _____________ .
(1) France India China ISRO
(2) England Holland Germany U.N.C.C
(3) America Russia Japan A.E.R.B.
(4) Canada Poland Australia I.M.D.
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The first atomic reactor accident occurred in 1979 in America at Three Mile Island. The Chernobyl disaster happened in 1986 in Russia. The Fukushima accident took place in 2011 in Japan. For radiation protection, India established the Atomic Energy Regulatory Board (A.E.R.B.).
112. Expected benefits of implementation of GAGAN are
a. Global seamless navigation for all phases of flight including arrival, departure, oceanic and en-route
b. Navigation and safety enhancement in railways, roadways, ships
c. Space weather studies
d. Natural resource and land management
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect ?
(1) Only a
(2) Only a, b and c
(3) Only a
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
GAGAN is designed to enhance aviation navigation, not for space weather studies, railways, or natural resource management. Therefore, statements a, b, and c are incorrect.
113. The Indian nuclear power program stage – 3 aims at using _____________ as fuel for electric power generation on a commercial scale.
(1) Thorium
(2) Uranium
(3) Plutonium
(4) Heavy water
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India’s stage 3 nuclear program aims to use Thorium as fuel for commercial electricity generation, leveraging India’s abundant thorium reserves.
114. Gamma knife therapy is
(1) Stereotactic radio therapy
(2) Surgery using a radioactive knife
(3) Combination of radio therapy and surgery
(4) Combination of chemotherapy and surgery
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Gamma Knife therapy is a form of stereotactic radio therapy, using focused gamma rays to treat brain conditions without surgical incisions.
115. The objective/s of PM-Suryaghar Yojana is/are
a. to provide 300 free units of electricity to one crore households in the country
b. to install roof top solar systems on one crore households
c. to install smart electric meters in one crore households
d. to provide free electricity to all the households in the country.
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and b
(4) Only a
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The PM-Suryaghar Yojana aims to install rooftop solar systems and provide 300 free units of electricity to one crore households. It does not include smart meters or universal free electricity.
116. Arrange the sources of electricity used in the India in descending order. (percentage)
a. Windmill
b. Nuclear energy
c. Hydro electric
d. Thermal energy
(1) d c b a
(2) a b d c
(3) d a b c
(4) c d a b
Answer: Question Cancelled
Explanation:
The correct descending order is Thermal, Hydro, Windmill, and Nuclear. None of the options match this sequence, so the question was cancelled.
117. Solar GBI stands for
(1) Generation Based Incentive
(2) Global Business Identifier
(3) Gain By Inventory
(4) Global Business Initiative
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Solar GBI stands for Generation Based Incentive, a scheme that rewards solar producers based on the amount of electricity they generate.
118. Match the pairs.
a. GSAT – 24 i. Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System
b. EOS – 07 ii. Indo – Russian Stellar and Atmospheric Satellite Mission
c. NavIC iii. Communication Satellite
d. YOUTHSAT iv. Earth Observation Satellite
(1) iii iv i ii
(2) ii i iv iii
(3) iii i iv ii
(4) iii iv ii i
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
GSAT-24 is a Communication Satellite, EOS-07 is an Earth Observation Satellite, NavIC is the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System, and YOUTHSAT is an Indo-Russian Stellar and Atmospheric Mission.
119. i. Antriksh Corporation
ii. New Space India Limited
iii. Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-Space)
Choose the correct function of all above companies.
(1) ISRO’s commercial application provider
(2) NASA’s commercial application provider
(3) Russia’s commercial company
(4) Australia’s commercial company
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Antriksh, NSIL, and IN-SPACe are part of ISRO’s commercial ecosystem, promoting and authorizing space applications and services.
120. Which of the following were objectives of Chandrayaan – 3 mission ?
a. To demonstrate safe and soft landing on Lunar surface
b. To develop technology for future Aditya mission
c. To conduct in-situ scientific experiments
d. To explore possibilities of moon-tourism.
(1) a and c
(2) a, b and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, c and d
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Chandrayaan-3 aimed to demonstrate a soft landing on the Moon and conduct in-situ experiments. It was not linked to the Aditya mission or moon tourism.
121. H.M.D. stands for
(1) Head Made Display
(2) Head Mounted Display
(3) Head Masked Display
(4) Head Mounted Detection
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
The acronym H.M.D. stands for Head-Mounted Display. It is a display device worn on the head or helmet, placing a small screen in front of one or both eyes. HMDs are widely used in virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR) applications.
122. _____________ is a method used to predict future numerical value of a variable in machine learning.
(1) Classification
(2) Regression
(3) Clustering
(4) Association
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
In machine learning, Regression is used to predict continuous numerical values. It models relationships between variables to forecast future outcomes based on historical data.
123. Which of the following system is designed to prevent unauthorised access to or from a private network and it can be implemented as hardware or software or combination of both ?
(1) Firewall
(2) Antivirus
(3) Malware
(4) Cookies
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A Firewall is a security system that monitors and controls network traffic, preventing unauthorized access. It can be implemented as hardware, software, or both, protecting private networks.
124. _____________ is an algorithm used by Google search engine to rank web pages in their search engine results.
(1) Pagerank
(2) HITS
(3) Boolean spread
(4) Vector spread
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
PageRank is an algorithm developed by Google to rank web pages. It evaluates the quantity and quality of links to determine a page’s importance in search results.
125. Which device is commonly used to connect multiple networks and direct data traffic ?
(1) Switch
(2) Router
(3) Modem
(4) Hub
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
A Router connects multiple networks and directs data traffic between them. It ensures that data packets reach their correct destination across networks like the internet.
126. Which protocol is commonly used for IoT device communication ?
(1) MQTT
(2) HTTP
(3) FTP
(4) SMTP
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
MQTT (Message Queuing Telemetry Transport) is a lightweight protocol ideal for IoT communication. It supports low-bandwidth, remote, and resource-constrained environments.
127. Which subset of AI focuses on the ability of machines to learn from data ?
(1) Data Science
(2) Data Mining
(3) Machine Learning
(4) Natural Language Processing
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Machine Learning is a subset of Artificial Intelligence (AI) that enables machines to learn from data and improve performance without explicit programming.
128. Which of the following web browser is not available as free downloads ?
(1) Mozilla Firefox
(2) Google Chrome
(3) Opera
(4) Microsoft Internet Explorer
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
Microsoft Internet Explorer was bundled with Windows OS and not offered as a standalone free download like Firefox, Chrome, or Opera. It has been replaced by Microsoft Edge.
129. The support given by the social network site to group communication and information sharing are as follows,
A. Add/remove information to/from site
B. Only view information from site
C. Invite or accept new members
D. Post information
(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) C and D
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Social network sites support group interaction by allowing users to add/remove information, view content, invite or accept members, and post updates, enabling collaborative communication.
130. Which type of memory can be electrically erased and reprogrammed and used in USB flash drives and SSD ?
(1) SRAM
(2) DRAM
(3) Flash memory
(4) ROM
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Flash memory is non-volatile, can be electrically erased and reprogrammed, and is widely used in USB drives and SSDs for efficient data storage and retrieval.
131. Match Column A with appropriate pair in Column B.
Column A
i. Turner syndrome
ii. Klinefelter syndrome
iii. Downs syndrome
iv. Cri-du chat syndrome
Column B
a. Chromosome in males 1 extra X
b. Alteration of development in females
c. Deletion of P arm of chromosome 5
d. Trisomy 21
(1) i-b ii-a iii-d iv-c
(2) i-a ii-b iii-c iv-d
(3) i-a ii-c iii-d iv-b
(4) i-d ii-c iii-b iv-a
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Turner syndrome affects females due to the absence of one X chromosome, leading to alteration of development in females. Klinefelter syndrome occurs in males with one extra X chromosome. Downs syndrome is caused by Trisomy 21, and Cri-du-chat syndrome results from a deletion of the P arm of chromosome 5.
132. CSIR-IIP Dehradun’s biojet fuel that has been formally approved for use on military aircraft has an ultra low _____________ content compared with conventional jet fuels.
(1) Methane
(2) Propane
(3) Carbon dioxide
(4) Sulphur
Answer: (4)
Explanation:
The biojet fuel developed by CSIR-IIP Dehradun has been approved for military use due to its ultra-low Sulphur content, making it significantly cleaner than conventional jet fuels and contributing to reduced emissions.
133. India and Thailand have enacted sui generis system for plant varieties protection known as _____________ .
(1) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act 2001 (PPVFR Act) and Plant Variety Protection Act 1999 (PVP Act)
(2) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Privilege Act 2001 (PPVFP Act) and Plant Variety Protection Act 1999 (PVP Act)
(3) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Privilege Act 2001 (PPVFP Act) and Plant Species Protection Act 1999 (PSP Act)
(4) Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act 2001 (PPVFR Act) and Plant Species Protection Act 1999 (PSP Act)
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India and Thailand have enacted sui generis systems for plant variety protection: India through the Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers’ Rights Act 2001 (PPVFR Act), and Thailand through the Plant Variety Protection Act 1999 (PVP Act). These laws safeguard the rights of breeders and farmers.
134. The DNA Technology (Use and Application) Regulation Bill 2019 has been formulated for
(1) Establishing identity of missing persons
(2) Identifying GM-crops
(3) Potential use of bioweapons
(4) Use of transgenic animals
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The DNA Technology Regulation Bill 2019 was formulated to aid in establishing identity of missing persons, victims, and unknown deceased individuals using DNA profiling for forensic and legal purposes.
135. The first legislation in India relating to patents was _____________ .
(1) Act VI of 1856 A.D.
(2) Act IX 1857 A.D.
(3) Act XV 1859 A.D.
(4) Act XVI 1883 A.D.
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
India’s first patent legislation was Act VI of 1856 A.D., modeled on the British Patent Law of 1852, marking the beginning of formal intellectual property protection in the country.
136. The primary target of pathogenic microbes attacking jute plant during retting is _____________ .
(1) Cellulose
(2) Legnin
(3) Pectin
(4) Resins
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
During retting, microbes break down Pectin, the substance that binds jute fibers together, allowing for the separation of usable fibers from the plant stalk.
137. A next generation protriotic bacteria found in fermented food from North-East India by a group of Scientists from Institute of Advance Study in Science and Technology (IASST) has been found to
(1) Alter eye color in drosophila
(2) Enhance pro-oxidant activity in Zebra-fish
(3) Improve physical activity in Caenorhabditis elegans
(4) Promotes cell wall synthesis in Spirullina
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
Scientists at IASST discovered a next-generation probiotic bacterium in fermented food from North-East India that was found to improve physical activity in Caenorhabditis elegans, a model organism used in biological research.
138. _____________ is an alcoholic beverage made by fermenting honey.
(1) Amazake
(2) Mead
(3) Boza
(4) Calpis
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Mead is an alcoholic beverage made by fermenting honey with water, and is considered one of the oldest known alcoholic drinks in human history.
139. In a gene therapy break through in 2024, DBT supported a first-in-human Lentiviral vector for severe _____________ .
(1) Aplastic crisis
(2) Pernicious anaemia
(3) Hemophilia A
(4) Sickle cell anaemia
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
In 2024, the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) supported a gene therapy breakthrough using a Lentiviral vector for treating Hemophilia A, marking a major advancement in genetic medicine.
140. A Patent consists of the following parts
(1) Grant, specifications and patent claims
(2) Protocol, grant and patent claims
(3) Grant, specifications and references
(4) Grant, process and specifications
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
A patent consists of three main parts: the Grant, which confers the legal right; the Specifications, which describe the invention in detail; and the Patent Claims, which define the scope of protection granted.
141. _____________ are used to draw molecular maps of Drosophila genome.
(1) pBR 322 plasmids
(2) Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YAC)
(3) Yeast Episomal Plasmids (YEP)
(4) pUC 19 plasmids
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Yeast Artificial Chromosomes (YACs) are specialized vectors capable of carrying large DNA fragments, making them ideal for constructing molecular maps of the Drosophila genome in genetic research.
142. A plant cell without cell wall is known as
(1) Cytoplasm
(2) Protoplast
(3) Prototype
(4) Cytotype
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
A protoplast is a plant cell without its cell wall, consisting only of the plasma membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus, and is used in various cellular and genetic studies.
143. Department of Biotechnology (DBT-GOI) has developed five protocol’s as guidance to applicants seeking approval for environmental release of Genetically Engineered plants. One of these protocols includes, _____________ .
(1) Pepsin digestibility assay
(2) Five day feeding study for Rodents
(3) Protein thermal lability assay
(4) Polysaccharide solubility assay
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) has included the Pepsin digestibility assay among its protocols to assess the allergenicity of proteins in Genetically Engineered plants before environmental release.
144. Which of the following bacteria was developed and patented by Ananada Chakrabarty ?
(1) Pseudomonas durogirosa
(2) Pseudomonas aeroginosa
(3) Ruminicoccus albus
(4) Prevotella ruminicola
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Dr. Ananda Chakrabarty developed a genetically modified strain of Pseudomonas aeroginosa capable of degrading crude oil, which became the first patented living organism in the United States.
145. Choose the correct origin (primary) country with fermented products.
a. German-Sour Cabbage-Sauerkraut
b. Korea-Fermented acid vegetable foods-kimchi
c. Indonesia-Soybean and rhizopus-tempeh
d. Russia-grain-kefir
e. Japan-cooked cereals/soybean-koji
(1) a, b, c
(2) c, d, b
(3) a, b, e
(4) c, d, e
Answer: Question Cancelled
Explanation:
Correct pairings include Germany–Sauerkraut, Korea–Kimchi, Indonesia–Tempeh, and Japan–Koji. Kefir, though associated with Russia, is made from milk, not grain. None of the options match all correct pairs, so the question was cancelled.
146. Which of the following statement/s is/are true about the Anti-Terrorism Squad (ATS) of Maharashtra ?
i. ATS works in coordination with the central agencies of IB and RAW.
ii. ATS of Maharashtra is also in touch with the Anti-Terrorism Departments of other States of India.
(1) Only i is true
(2) Only ii is true
(3) Both i and ii are true
(4) Both i and ii are not true
Answer: (3)
Explanation:
The ATS of Maharashtra works in coordination with central agencies like IB and RAW, and also maintains communication with anti-terrorism departments of other Indian states for effective counter-terrorism operations.
147. Observe the following statements.
A. Maharashtra Pollution Control Board was established in 1969.
B. The Water (P and CP) Act, 1974 this Central Act was adopted in Maharashtra in 1981.
C. There is Regional Office of Maharashtra Pollution Control Board at Kalyan.
(1) Statements A and B are correct
(2) Statements B and C are correct
(3) Statements A and C are correct
(4) Statements A, B and C are correct
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Statement A is incorrect; the Maharashtra Pollution Control Board was established in 1970. Statement B is correct; the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 was adopted in 1981. Statement C is correct; there is a Regional Office at Kalyan.
148. Arrange the district of Maharashtra in ascending orders with reference to their flood affected area.
a. Kolhapur
b. Beed
c. Bhandara
d. Gadchiroli
e. Chandrapur
f. Sangli
g. Yavatmal
(1) b, f, g, c, d, a, e
(2) a, f, e, d, g, b, c
(3) g, d, b, e, c, f, a
(4) b, c, e, f, a, g, d
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
The correct ascending order of flood-affected districts is: Beed, Sangli, Yavatmal, Bhandara, Gadchiroli, Kolhapur, and Chandrapur, based on area impacted.
149. Match the following pair of component agencies with early warning of disaster and choose the correct option from the below.
Disaster
A. Drought
B. Cyclone
C. Heat waves
D. Tsunami
Component Agencies
i. IMD
ii. Agriculture Department
iii. Health and Family Welfare Department
iv. INCOIS
(1) A-ii B-i C-iii D-iv
(2) A-i B-iii C-iv D-ii
(3) A-ii B-i C-iv D-iii
(4) A-i B-ii C-iv D-iii
Answer: (1)
Explanation:
Drought warnings are issued by the Agriculture Department, Cyclone and Heat wave alerts by IMD and Health Department respectively, and Tsunami warnings by INCOIS.
150. Which of the following is climatic factor causing landslide ?
(1) Earthquake
(2) Heavy rainfall
(3) Gravitational force
(4) Steep slope
Answer: (2)
Explanation:
Among the listed options, Heavy rainfall is the only climatic factor that causes landslides by saturating soil, reducing cohesion, and triggering slope failure.