MPSC State Services Main Examination 2023- General Studies Paper 2 [Solved]

1. The elements of the basic structure of Constitution as declared by the Supreme Court in Minerva Mills case are
A. Limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
B. Judicial review
C. Harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
D. Separation of powers
(1) Only A, B, C
(2) Only B, C, D
(3) Only A, B, D
(4) Only A, C, D

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Supreme Court in the landmark Minerva Mills case laid down several key elements as part of the basic structure of the Constitution. These included the limited power of Parliament to amend the Constitution, the principle of judicial review, and the harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

2. Consider the following statements about Constituent Assembly.
A. Constituent Assembly ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May, 1949.
B. Constituent Assembly adopted the National Flag on July 22, 1947.
C. Constituent Assembly adopted the National Anthem on January 24, 1950.
D. Constituent Assembly elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India on January 24, 1949.
Select the incorrect statement from the above :
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Only D

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The question asks to identify the incorrect statement regarding the Constituent Assembly. Statements A, B, and C are historically accurate. The Constituent Assembly did ratify India’s membership of the Commonwealth in May 1949, adopt the National Flag on July 22, 1947, and adopt the National Anthem on January 24, 1950. However, statement D is incorrect because Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first President of India on January 24, 1950, not 1949.

3. The ‘Aspirational Districts Programme’ was launched in the year ______ by the Government of India.
(1) 2014
(2) 2018
(3) 2021
(4) 2022

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The ‘Aspirational Districts Programme’ was an initiative launched by the Government of India in 2018. The program aims to transform underdeveloped districts through targeted interventions in health, education, agriculture, and infrastructure.

4. Which one of the following statements about ‘Right to Property’ is false ?
(1) By omitting Article 19(1)(f) and 31 of Indian Constitution by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 the Right to Property has been deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights.
(2) Provision in Article 31(1) has, by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, been transposed to a newly formed Article 300 A.
(3) Article 300 A is in Chapter-III of Part – XXI of the Constitution.
(4) The Right to Property is now considered to be not only a Constitutional or Statutory Right but also a Human Right.

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978 and placed under Article 300A as a legal right. Article 300A is located in Part XII, not Part XXI, making statement (3) false.

5. Directive Principles of State Policy are included in Part 4 of the Indian Constitution from Article number _______
(1) 52 to 62
(2) 36 to 51
(3) 79 to 88
(4) 101 to 114

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are contained in Part IV of the Constitution, spanning Articles 36 to 51. These principles guide the State in policy-making to ensure social and economic justice.

6. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy mentioned in Indian Constitution are correctly matched with their Articles ?
a. Article 42 – Right to human condition of work and maternity relief.
b. Article 43 – To develop cottage industries.
c. Article 40 – To separate the Judiciary from the Executive.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, c

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Article 42 provides for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief, and Article 43 promotes cottage industries. However, Article 40 relates to village panchayats, while the separation of judiciary from executive is covered under Article 50. Thus, only a and b are correctly matched.

7. Consider the following statements regarding functions of the Zonal Councils.
A. To promote co-operation and co-ordination between States, Union Territories and the Centre.
B. To help in arresting the growth of acute state consciousness, regionalism, linguism and particularistic trends.
C. Inquiring into and advising upon disputes relating to water of interstate rivers which may have arisen between States.
(1) Statements A, B are correct
(2) Statements A, C are correct
(3) Statements A, B and C are correct
(4) Only statement A is correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Zonal Councils aim to promote cooperation and coordination among States, Union Territories, and the Centre (A), and to curb regionalism, linguism, and particularistic trends (B). Water disputes (C) are handled by tribunals, not Zonal Councils, making only A and B correct.

8. Which of the following words have been mentioned in the list of Fundamental Duties of citizens in the Indian Constitution ?
a. National Anthem
b. National Animal
c. Unity
d. Federal structure
e. Scientific temper
f. Heritage buildings
(1) a, b, c, d, e, f
(2) a, c, d, e
(3) c, d, e
(4) a, c, e

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Fundamental Duties under Article 51A include respect for the National Anthem, promotion of unity, and development of scientific temper. Terms like National Animal, Federal structure, and Heritage buildings are not explicitly mentioned.

9. Consider the following statements.
A. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) set up in 1966 recommended the constitution of a two-tier machinery of a Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in the States.
B. M. C. Chagla was the Chairman of the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) set up in 1966.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and B
(4) Neither A nor B

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The 1966 ARC recommended the creation of Lokpal and Lokayuktas (A). However, M. C. Chagla was not the chairman; it was Morarji Desai, later succeeded by K. Hanumanthaiya. So, only statement A is correct.

10. Which of the following statements are incorrect about Vice-President of India ?
a. He must be qualified for election to House of People.
b. He may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of members of Council of States and House of the People.
c. He is eligible for re-election any number of times.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, c

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Statement a is incorrect because the Vice-President must be qualified for election to the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha. Statement b is incorrect as removal requires a resolution by Rajya Sabha and agreement by Lok Sabha, not just a majority vote. Statement c is correct; the Vice-President is eligible for re-election any number of times.

11. Consider the following statements.
A. 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes in Lok Sabha.
B. 47 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha.
C. In Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, there are no reserved seats for Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha.
D. In Maharashtra, there is no change in the number of seats reserved for SC and ST in Lok Sabha before and after the Delimitation in 2008.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) All of the above
(4) A and B only

Answer: (1)

Explanation: This question is about the reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha. Statement A is correct; 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes. Statement B is correct; 47 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes. Statement C is correct; states like Uttar Pradesh and Bihar do not have reserved seats for Scheduled Tribes. Statement D is incorrect because the number of reserved seats in Maharashtra changed after the 2008 Delimitation. Therefore, statements A, B, and C are correct.

12. Select the correct statement/s.
A. The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India embodies three lists, viz, the Union list, the State list and the Concurrent list.
B. According to Article 249, the residuary powers of Legislation have been left with the Union.
C. The largest number of changes in three lists of Seventh Schedule were made by 7th and 42nd Constitutional Amendments.
(1) Statements A and C are correct
(2) Statements A, B and C are correct
(3) Statement A is correct
(4) Statement C is correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the Seventh Schedule contains the Union, State, and Concurrent lists. Statement C is correct; the 7th and 42nd Constitutional Amendments brought major changes to these lists. Statement B is incorrect because Article 248, not Article 249, deals with residuary powers, which are vested in the Union. Therefore, statements A and C are correct.

13. Select the correct statement/s.
A. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the Objectives Resolution drafted and moved by Pandit Nehru and adopted by Constituent Assembly.
B. N. A. Palkhiwala, Constitutional expert called the Preamble as the ‘Identity Card of the Constitution’.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and B
(4) None of these

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the Preamble is based on the Objectives Resolution moved by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru. Statement B is also correct; N. A. Palkhiwala referred to the Preamble as the ‘Identity Card of the Constitution’. Therefore, both statements are correct.

14. Which one of the following statements about ‘Lok Adalat’ is not correct ?
(1) Under the Act of 1987, the award (decision) made by the Lok Adalat is decree of a Civil Court and is final and binding on all parties.
(2) There is no court fee payable when a matter is filed in a Lok Adalat. If a matter pending in the Court of law is referred to the Lok Adalat and is settled subsequently, the Court fee paid in the Court is not refunded back to the parties.
(3) Lok Adalat shall have no jurisdiction in respect of matters relating to an offence not compoundable under any law.
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Statement (2) is incorrect because when a case is referred to Lok Adalat and settled, the court fee paid is refunded. Statement (1) is correct; the award is final and binding. Statement (3) is correct; Lok Adalat has no jurisdiction over non-compoundable offences. Therefore, statement (2) is not correct.

15. Select the correct statement/s.
A. The nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President.
B. The elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States do not participate in the impeachment of the President.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and B
(4) None of these

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; nominated members of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President. Statement B is also correct; elected members of State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in the impeachment process. Therefore, both statements are correct.

16. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the NITI Aayog ?
A. The aim of NITI Aayog is to achieve sustainable development goals and to enhance Co-operative Federalism in the country.
B. The Prime Minister of India is the Ex-officio Chairperson of the NITI Aayog.
C. There are 8 full time members in the NITI Aayog.
(1) Only B and C
(2) Only B
(3) Only A
(4) Only A and B

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; NITI Aayog aims to achieve sustainable development goals and promote Co-operative Federalism. Statement B is correct; the Prime Minister is the Ex-officio Chairperson. Statement C is incorrect; the number of full-time members is not fixed at eight. Therefore, statements A and B are correct.

17. ‘India is republic’ means
a. Government by the people and for the people.
b. State has a elected President at the head of State.
c. All offices including the office of the President are open to all citizens.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) b, c

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The term ‘republic’ means a government by the people, an elected head of state, and equal access to public offices. All three statements a, b, and c reflect the republican character of India. Therefore, all are correct.

18. The features of Parliamentary Government in India are
a. Presence of nominal and real executive.
b. Collective responsibility of the executive to the legislature.
c. Leadership of the Prime Minister.
d. Dissolution of lower house.
e. Majority party rule.
(1) Only a, b, c, d
(2) Only b, c, d, e
(3) Only a, b
(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Parliamentary Government in India includes the nominal and real executive (a), collective responsibility to the legislature (b), Prime Minister’s leadership (c), dissolution of Lok Sabha (d), and majority party rule (e). Therefore, all features are correct.

19. Match the pairs.
‘A’ (Parts of the Constitution) ‘B’ (Subject)
A. Part – XX i. Emergency Provisions
B. Part – XVIII ii. Amendment of the Constitution
C. Part – XV iii. Elections
D. Part – XI iv. Relations between Union and State
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Part XX deals with Amendment of the Constitution (A-ii), Part XVIII with Emergency Provisions (B-i), Part XV with Elections (C-iii), and Part XI with Union-State Relations (D-iv). Therefore, the correct match is A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv.

20. In India, the first time use of electronic voting machines occurred in the general elections in Kerala in
(1) May 1982
(2) June 1989
(3) September 1998
(4) February 2000

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The first use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) in India was in May 1982, during a bye-election in Kerala. This marked the beginning of electronic voting in the country.

21. The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President comprises of
(1) All the members of the Lok Sabha
(2) Members of State Legislative Assemblies
(3) All the members of the Rajya Sabha
(4) Both 1 and 3

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The electoral college for electing the Vice-President of India includes all members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, both elected and nominated. State Legislative Assemblies do not participate in this election.

22. Which of the following Cabinet Committees are chaired by the Prime Minister ?
A. Political Affairs Committee
B. Economic Affairs Committee
C. Parliamentary Affairs Committee
D. Appointments Committee
(1) Only A, B, C
(2) Only A, B, D
(3) Only C, D
(4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Prime Minister chairs the Political Affairs Committee, Economic Affairs Committee, and Appointments Committee. The Parliamentary Affairs Committee is usually chaired by the Home Minister, not the Prime Minister.

23. Select the correct statements.
A. Article 76 of the Indian Constitution is about the appointment of Attorney General.
B. Attorney General has a right of audience in all Courts in the territory of India.
C. Under Article 88, Attorney General has right to speak but not to vote in either House of Parliament.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Article 76 deals with the appointment of the Attorney General. He has the right of audience in all courts in India. Under Article 88, he has the right to speak in Parliament but cannot vote.

24. What is the minimum age prescribed by the Constitution of India for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court ?
(1) 25 years
(2) 30 years
(3) 35 years
(4) No minimum age is prescribed

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Constitution of India lays down qualifications for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge, such as experience and citizenship, but it does not specify any minimum age.

25. Consider the following statements.
A. Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the basic structure of the Constitution. This was ruled by the Supreme Court in Golak Nath case (1967).
B. An Amendment bill to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
C. If an Amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character, the Amendment also requires to be ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India.
D. The President can return the Constitutional Amendment bill once for reconsideration of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only A
(2) Only C
(3) A, B and D
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statement A is incorrect; the basic structure doctrine was laid down in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). Statement B is incorrect; a constitutional amendment bill can be introduced in either House. Statement C is incorrect; ratification is required by half of the states, not all. Statement D is incorrect; the President must give assent and cannot return the bill.

26. Arrange the following High Courts in the increasing order of their establishment.
A. Kerala
B. Delhi
C. Guwahati
D. Patna
(1) C, D, B, A
(2) C, B, A, D
(3) C, D, A, B
(4) D, C, A, B

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The correct order of establishment is: Patna (1916), Guwahati (1948), Kerala (1956), and Delhi (1966). Hence, the increasing order is D, C, A, B.

27. Which of the following languages are part of Schedule 8 of the Indian Constitution ?
a. Manipuri
b. Nepali
c. English
d. Sindhi
e. Urdu
(1) a, b, c, d, e
(2) a, b, d
(3) a, b, d, e
(4) b, c, e

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Manipuri, Nepali, Sindhi, and Urdu are listed in the Eighth Schedule. English is not included. Therefore, options a, b, d, e are correct.

28. Which of the following statements are correct about Governor ?
a. He/she has no diplomatic powers.
b. He/she has no military powers.
c. He/she has no power to appoint Judges of the State High Court.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, c

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Governor does not possess diplomatic or military powers, which are vested in the President. The appointment of High Court Judges is also done by the President, though the Governor is consulted.

29. The Fundamental Duties enshrined in Article 51A now are in consonance with __________ of the Universal Declaration of Human Right.
(1) Article 29(1)
(2) Article 28(1)
(3) Article 30(1)
(4) Article 27(1)

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Article 29(1) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights states that everyone has duties to the community, aligning with the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution.

30. Andaman and Nicobar Islands come under territorial jurisdiction of which High Court ?
(1) Delhi
(2) Kerala
(3) Madras
(4) Calcutta

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Calcutta High Court has jurisdiction over the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, with a circuit bench at Port Blair to handle cases from the union territory.

31. Which of the following statements about Delhi are correct ?
a. Delhi has been mentioned in the list of Union Territories in Schedule I of the Indian Constitution.
b. Delhi has its own Legislative Assembly.
c. Legislative Assembly of Delhi has no power to make laws with regard to Public order, Police and Land.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, c

Answer: (1)

Explanation: All the statements about Delhi are correct. It is listed as a Union Territory in Schedule I of the Constitution. Delhi has a Legislative Assembly, but it cannot legislate on Public order, Police, and Land, which are under the central government’s jurisdiction.

32. By notification dated 27 January 2014, which religion was notified as another minority community ?
(1) Sikh
(2) Buddhist
(3) Zoroastrian (Parsi)
(4) Jain

Answer: (4)

Explanation: On 27 January 2014, the Jain community was officially recognized as a national minority by the Government of India, joining other notified minorities like Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, and Parsis.

33. Select the correct statement/s about Constituent Assembly.
A. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the Scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
B. Seats allocated to each British Province were to be divided among the four principal communities – Muslim, Sikh, Dalits and General, in proportion to their population.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Both A and B
(4) None of these

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the Constituent Assembly was formed in November 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan. Statement B is incorrect; seats were divided among three communities—Muslim, Sikh, and General, not four. Dalits were not separately categorized.

34. Which of the following statements related to Fundamental Duties in the Indian Constitution is incorrect ?
(1) The concept of Fundamental Duties is inspired by the Constitution of Russia (Former Soviet Union).
(2) It was included in Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.
(3) Another duty was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002.
(4) All the Eleven Fundamental Duties are listed in Article 51-A of the Constitution.

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statement (4) is incorrect because initially only ten Fundamental Duties were listed in Article 51A. The eleventh duty, concerning education for children, was added later by the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.

35. Which of the following statements about territory of India in original Constitution (Schedule I) are correct ?
a. In the original Constitution of India, States were divided into three Parts i.e. A, B, C.
b. Fourth Part included two territories under it.
c. Jammu and Kashmir was included under Part D.
(1) a, b, c
(2) a, b
(3) a, c
(4) b, c

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Statement a is correct; the original Constitution divided states into Part A, B, and C. Statement b is correct; Part D included Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Statement c is incorrect; Jammu and Kashmir was a Part B state, not under Part D.

36. Match the pairs.
‘A’ (Electoral Reform) ‘B’ (Year)
A. Restriction imposed upon exit polls i. 2018
B. Allocation of time on electronic media ii. 2009
C. Online enrolment in the electoral roll iii. 2003
D. Introduction of electoral bonds iv. 2013
(1) i ii iv iii
(2) ii iii iv i
(3) ii i iii iv
(4) iv iii ii i

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The correct matches are:
A – ii (2009): Restrictions on exit polls were strengthened.
B – iii (2003): Electronic media time allocation was formalized.
C – iv (2013): Online voter enrolment gained momentum.
D – i (2018): Electoral bonds were introduced.

37. Identify the correct and incorrect statement/s from the following statement/s in the context of modern social media.
A. Autonomy is not a feature of modern social media.
B. There is no barrier of time and place for social media.
C. Modern social media has created a virtual world.
D. Modern social media is universal in nature.
(1) A is incorrect and B, C, D are correct
(2) A, B are correct and C, D are incorrect
(3) C, D are correct and A, B are incorrect
(4) A, D are incorrect and B, C are correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Statement A is incorrect; autonomy is a key feature of social media. Statements B, C, and D are correct; social media transcends time and space, creates a virtual world, and has a universal reach.

38. Match the pairs about composition of Press Council of India.
‘A’ (Member) ‘B’ (No.)
A. Members of Rajya Sabha i. 06
B. Members of Lok Sabha ii. 07
C. Working Journalist iii. 02
D. Editor of Newspaper iv. 03
(1) i ii iv iii
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) i iii ii iv
(4) iii iv ii i

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The correct matches are:
A – iii (2): Rajya Sabha members
B – iv (3): Lok Sabha members
C – ii (7): Working Journalists
D – i (6): Editors of Newspapers

39. Which of the following persons were nominated in Press Council of India on 16 March 2018 ?
A. Dr. Vinay Sahastrabuddhe
B. Swapna Das Gupta
C. Mrs. Minakshi Lekhi
D. Dr. Mohan Yadav
(1) Only A, B, C
(2) Only B, C, D
(3) Only A, B, D
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Explanation: On 16 March 2018, Dr. Vinay Sahastrabuddhe, Swapna Das Gupta, and Mrs. Minakshi Lekhi were nominated to the Press Council of India. Dr. Mohan Yadav was not among them.

40. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) The Press Council of India was first constituted on 4th July 1966.
(2) The First Chairman of Press Council of India was Justice J. R. Mudholkar.
(3) The First Press Commission was established in 1954.
(4) The Press Council Act was enacted in 1966.

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statement (4) is incorrect; the Press Council Act was enacted in 1965, not 1966. Statements (1), (2), and (3) are historically accurate.

41. State the component parties in the formation of Janata Party.
A. Syndicate Congress, Jansangh, Bharatiya Lokdal
B. Syndicate Congress, Jansangh, Bharatiya Lokdal, Samajwadi Party
C. Syndicate Congress, Jansangh, Janata Dal(s), Bharatiya Lokdal
D. Loktantrik Dal, Jansangh, Janata Dal(s), Bharatiya Lokdal
(1) Only A is correct
(2) B and C are correct
(3) Only D is correct
(4) A, C and D are correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Janata Party was formed by the merger of several opposition groups including the Syndicate Congress (Congress-O), Jansangh, and Bharatiya Lokdal. Other parties mentioned in the options were either not part of the original merger or did not exist at that time.

42. Which of the following electoral reforms have been made after 1996 ?
A. Voting through postal ballot
B. Free supply of electoral roll
C. Holiday to employees on the polling day
D. Prohibition of arms
E. Facility to opt to vote through proxy
(1) Only C, D, E
(2) Only A, B, C, D
(3) Only C, D, B
(4) Only A, B, E

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Electoral reforms after 1996 include postal ballot voting, free supply of electoral rolls to recognized parties, and the proxy voting facility for service voters. Holiday on polling day and prohibition of arms were already in practice before 1996.

43. Select the incorrect statement about VVPAT.
(1) The law for using VVPATs was amended in 2013.
(2) VVPAT were first used in bye-election to the Noksen Legislative Assembly Constituency in 2013.
(3) EVMs with VVPAT ensure the accuracy and transparency of the voting system.
(4) VVPAT were used in 10 selected Parliamentary Constituencies in the country in 2014 Lok Sabha election.

Answer: (4)

Explanation: VVPATs were first used in Noksen, Nagaland in 2013 after the law was amended. They enhance accuracy and transparency in voting. However, in the 2014 Lok Sabha elections, VVPATs were used in 8 constituencies, not 10.

44. Select the incorrect statement.
A. Tarkunde Committee was appointed in 1974.
B. Tarkunde Committee submitted its report on 1975.
C. Tarkunde Committee was a official committee of Parliament.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) None of these

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The Tarkunde Committee was appointed in 1974 and submitted its report in 1975. It was not an official parliamentary committee but was formed by Jayaprakash Narayan under Citizens for Democracy, making statement C incorrect.

45. Arrange the following Chief Election Commissioners of the Central Election Commission of India according to their tenure.
(1) T. S. Krishnamurthy – S. Y. Qureshi – N. Gopalaswami – M. S. Gill
(2) S. Y. Qureshi – N. Gopalaswami – M. S. Gill – T. S. Krishnamurthy
(3) N. Gopalaswami – T. S. Krishnamurthy – S. Y. Qureshi – M. S. Gill
(4) M. S. Gill – T. S. Krishnamurthy – N. Gopalaswami – S. Y. Qureshi

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The correct chronological order is:
M. S. Gill (1996–2001) → T. S. Krishnamurthy (2004–2005) → N. Gopalaswami (2006–2009) → S. Y. Qureshi (2010–2012).

46. Select the correct statements about Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan.
A. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan has been launched in 2001 – 2002.
B. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan aims to provide useful and relevant elementary education.
C. Slogan of Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan is ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only A, C
(3) Only B, C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA) was launched in 2001–2002 to provide elementary education to all children. The slogan ‘Beti Bachao – Beti Padhao’ belongs to a separate campaign, not SSA.

47. The resources of E-pathshala are available in ______ languages.
A. Marathi
B. Malayalam
C. Telugu
D. Hindi
E. English
F. Urdu
(1) Only A, B, E
(2) Only A, D, E
(3) Only B, C, D
(4) Only D, E, F

Answer: (4)

Explanation: E-pathshala provides educational resources in Hindi, English, and Urdu. While it may support other languages, the correct combination among the given options is D, E, F.

48. What are the challenges before Higher Education in India ?
A. Mushrooming of low quality institutes.
B. Less focus on vocational courses.
C. Slow sanction and under-utilization of funds.
D. Use of information technology in education.
(1) Only B, C, D
(2) Only A, C, D
(3) Only A, B, C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Challenges include low-quality institutes, lack of vocational focus, and funding delays. Use of information technology is generally seen as a solution, not a challenge.

49. Identify the correct and incorrect statement/s from the following regarding the purpose of educational technology.
A. To reduce the cost of education.
B. To make the learning process meaningful.
C. To use new or old techniques without bias.
D. To increase the speed of education process.
(1) B, C, D are correct and A is incorrect
(2) B, D are correct and A, C are incorrect
(3) A, B, D are correct and C is incorrect
(4) A, B, C and D are correct

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Educational technology aims to make learning meaningful (B) and efficient (D). Reducing cost (A) is not always achievable, and using techniques without bias (C) is not a defined goal.

50. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) SWAYAM is the National MOOC’s Portal being developed by Govt. of India.
(2) Seven National Co-ordinators have been appointed under SWAYAM.
(3) NPTEL online certification courses are different from SWAYAM courses.
(4) NPTEL is the official SWAYAM National Co-ordinator for engineering.

Answer: (3)

Explanation: NPTEL courses are offered through SWAYAM, making them part of the platform, not separate. Statements (1), (2), and (4) are correct. Statement (3) is incorrect.

51. Select the correct statements.
A. The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions was established on 11 December, 2006.
B. Justice Narendra Kumar Jain was Chairman of National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions.
C. Dr. Shahid Akhtar and Dr. Jaspal Singh were members of National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only A, C
(3) Only B, C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The National Commission for Minority Educational Institutions was established by an Act in 2004 and began functioning in 2005, making statement A incorrect. Justice Narendra Kumar Jain served as its Chairman and Dr. Shahid Akhtar and Dr. Jaspal Singh were its members, making statements B and C correct.

52. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to the social components in the formation of the political party in India ?
A. The Indian Republican Party is formed with the social consciousness.
B. Bahujan Samaj Party is formed with the social consciousness.
C. India has negligible number of political parties based on social ideology.
D. Social equality, justice, fraternity values are followed by the political parties.
(1) A, C and D
(2) A, B, C and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B and C

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Both the Indian Republican Party and the Bahujan Samaj Party were formed with strong social consciousness. While statement C claims India has a negligible number of such parties, it is considered correct in the context of the question. Statement D reflects the values that many political parties claim to uphold. Hence, all statements are considered correct.

53. Arrange the winning seats in descending order according to the Election year by the Indian Communist Party (Marxist) in the Lok Sabha elections from 1989 to 2004.
(1) 1989 – 1991 – 1999 – 2004
(2) 1991 – 1989 – 2004 – 1999
(3) 2004 – 1991 – 1989 – 1999
(4) 1999 – 2004 – 1991 – 1989

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The Communist Party of India (Marxist) won the most seats in 2004, followed by 1991, then 1989, and the least in 1999. Thus, the correct descending order is 2004 – 1991 – 1989 – 1999.

54. Select the correct statements from the following.
A. Pandit Nehru led the Indian National Congress to consecutive majorities in the General Election of 1952, 1957, 1962.
B. The first serious challenge to the dominance of the Congress came in 1967 when a united opposition party won control over several States in Hindi Belt.
C. Indira Gandhi raised slogan Garibi Hatao to develop closer ties with U.S.A.
(1) Only B, C
(2) Only A, C
(3) Only A, B
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Pandit Nehru led the Congress to victories in 1952, 1957, and 1962. In 1967, a united opposition challenged Congress dominance in several states. Indira Gandhi’s ‘Garibi Hatao’ was a domestic slogan, not aimed at ties with the U.S.A., making statement C incorrect.

55. Select the incorrect statement from the following about Samajwadi Congress Party.
(1) Samajwadi Congress won 1 seat in 1980 Lok Sabha Election.
(2) Samajwadi Congress won 3 seats in 1984 Lok Sabha Election.
(3) Samajwadi Congress won 47 seats in Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Election, 1980
(4) Samajwadi Congress won 54 seats in Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Election, 1985

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Samajwadi Congress Party won 1 seat in 1980 Lok Sabha, 47 seats in 1980 Maharashtra Assembly, and 54 seats in 1985 Assembly elections. The claim of 3 seats in 1984 Lok Sabha is incorrect.

56. What are the restrictions on the exercise of the freedom of speech and expression ?
A. Religious thought
B. Decency or morality
C. Defamation
D. Contempt of Court
E. Political leadership
(1) Only B, C, D
(2) Only A, C, D
(3) Only A, D, E
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Article 19(2) of the Constitution allows restrictions on freedom of speech for reasons like decency or morality, defamation, and contempt of court. Religious thought and political leadership are not constitutional grounds for restriction.

57. Match the pairs.
‘A’ (Scheme) ‘B’ (Year)
A. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan i. September, 2015
B. National Institutional Ranking Framework ii. October, 2015
C. Uchchatar Avishkar Yojana iii. November, 2014
D. IMPRINT iv. November, 2015
(1) iii i ii iv
(2) iii ii i iv
(3) i ii iii iv
(4) i iv iii ii

Answer: (1)

Explanation:
Unnat Bharat Abhiyan – November 2014 (iii)
NIRF – September 2015 (i)
Uchchatar Avishkar Yojana – October 2015 (ii)
IMPRINT – November 2015 (iv)
Correct match: A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

58. Select the incorrect statement about Ahilyabai Holkar Free ST Travel Scheme.
A. Ahilyabai Holkar Free ST Travel Scheme was started on 1996 – 97.
B. The beneficiary of above Scheme is girl student of Std. V to XII.
C. The 50% attendance in school is necessary for above Scheme.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) None of these

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The scheme was started in 1996–97 for girl students from Std. V to XII. However, the attendance requirement is higher than 50%, making statement C incorrect.

59. The National Knowledge Commission (2009) have focussed on key areas of knowledge paradigm are
A. Access to knowledge
B. Knowledge creation
C. Knowledge application
D. Knowledge extension
(1) Only A, B, D
(2) Only A, C, D
(3) Only A, B, C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The National Knowledge Commission focused on Access to knowledge, Knowledge creation, and Knowledge application. Knowledge extension was not among its defined pillars.

60. Select the correct statements about Eklavya Model Residential Schools.
A. This Scheme was started in 1998.
B. First School was started in 2000 in Maharashtra.
C. It has been functioning as institutions of excellence for tribal students.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) scheme was launched in 1998, with the first school in Maharashtra in 2000. These schools aim to provide quality education to tribal students, making all statements correct.

61. Select the incorrect statement/s from the following.
A. Orders issued by the delimitation commission can be challenged in any court.
B. Article 323 B empowers the appropriate legislation (Parliament or State Legislature) to establish a tribunal for adjudication of election disputes.
(1) Statement A is incorrect
(2) Statement B is incorrect
(3) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) None of these

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Orders of the Delimitation Commission are final and cannot be challenged in any court, making statement A incorrect. Article 323B empowers the legislature to establish tribunals for matters including election disputes, so statement B is correct.

62. Select the incorrect statement from the following.
(1) State Election Commission deals with elections to the Panchayats and Municipalities in the State.
(2) 61st Amendment Act 1988 has reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years.
(3) The Election Commission first effectively put to use the model code of conduct in 1991.
(4) In L. Chandrakumar Vs Union of India (1997), Clause 3 (d) of Article 332 B was declared as unconstitutional.

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statements (1), (2), and (3) are correct. The State Election Commission handles local body elections, the 61st Amendment reduced the voting age, and the Model Code of Conduct was enforced effectively in 1991. Statement (4) is incorrect because the L. Chandrakumar case dealt with Articles 323A and 323B, not Article 332B, which doesn’t exist.

63. Which of the following are the advantages of Electronic Voting Machines ?
A. Reduces cost of printing
B. Reduces quantity of paper
C. Counting process faster than traditional method
D. Reduces dependency on machines
E. Enhances voting percentage
(1) Only A, B, C, E
(2) Only B, D, E
(3) Only C, B, A
(4) Only A, B, C

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) help reduce printing costs (A), minimize paper usage (B), and speed up the counting process (C). They increase dependency on machines, not reduce it (D), and do not directly enhance voting percentage (E).

64. Which of the following statements is/are true about pressure groups in India ?
A. Pressure groups is formed by people with common interests.
B. Pressure group is non-political organization.
C. The members of the pressure group are not completely aligned from politics.
D. The scope of the pressure group is unlimited.
(1) A and B are correct
(2) A, B and C are correct
(3) A, B, C and D are correct
(4) None of these

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Pressure groups are formed by people with common interests (A), are generally non-political organizations (B), and their members may have political affiliations (C). Their scope is limited to specific issues, making statement D incorrect.

65. Consider the following statements about Women’s Reservation.
A. UPA – I Government introduced the bill to reserve seats for women in Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies in May 2008.
B. After its reintroduction, the Women’s Reservation Bill was passed by Rajya Sabha on March 9, 2010.
C. The bill was never voted in the Lok Sabha.
D. The main aim of this bill was to reserve 50 percent seats in Lok Sabha and all State Legislative Assemblies for women.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A and D
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Statements A, B, and C are correct. The UPA-I government introduced the bill in 2008, it was passed by the Rajya Sabha in 2010, and it was never voted in the Lok Sabha. Statement D is incorrect because the bill proposed 33% reservation, not 50%.

66. Select the correct statements.
A. Independent Labour Party won 13 seats in Legislative Assembly Election, 1937 of Mumbai (Bombay) Province.
B. Scheduled Caste Federation was established in 1940 by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar.
C. Scheduled Caste Federation won 6 seats in Lok Sabha Election, 1957.
(1) Only A, B
(2) Only B, C
(3) Only A, C
(4) All of these

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the Independent Labour Party won 13 seats in 1937. Statement C is correct; the Scheduled Caste Federation won 6 seats in 1957. Statement B is incorrect; the Federation was founded in 1942, not 1940.

67. Which of the following political parties were formed in 1997 ?
A. Zoram Nationalist Party
B. Rashtriya Janata Dal
C. Biju Janata Dal
D. Assam Gan Parishad
E. Lok Janshakti Party
(1) Only A, D, E
(2) Only B, C, E
(3) Only C, D, E
(4) Only A, B, C

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Zoram Nationalist Party, Rashtriya Janata Dal, and Biju Janata Dal were all formed in 1997. Assam Gan Parishad was formed in 1985, and Lok Janshakti Party in 2000.

68. Identify the following incorrect pairs about the Election Reform Committee of India and its year of establishment.
A. Santhanam Committee – 1964
B. Wanchoo Committee – 1971
C. Dinesh Goswami Committee – 1990
D. Tarkunde Committee – 1973
(1) A and D
(2) B and C
(3) B and D
(4) A and C

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Santhanam Committee was set up in 1962, not 1964. The Tarkunde Committee was formed in 1974, not 1973. The other pairs are correctly matched.

69. Which political party increased vote share percentage in last Maharashtra Assembly Election, 2019 as compared to Assembly Election, 2014 ?
(1) Bharatiya Janata Party
(2) Nationalist Congress Party
(3) Shivsena
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: In the 2019 Maharashtra Assembly elections, none of the listed parties—BJP, NCP, or Shivsena—showed a clear increase in vote share compared to 2014. Hence, the correct answer is None of the above.

70. Select the correct statements about Communist Party of India.
A. Communist Party of India was established on 26 December 1925.
B. In 1957, the CPI leader Achutha Menon became Chief Minister of Kerala.
C. EMS Namboodiripad and B. T. Randive was leaders of CPI.
(1) Only A and B
(2) Only B and C
(3) Only A and C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the CPI was founded on 26 December 1925. Statement C is correct; EMS Namboodiripad and B. T. Randive were prominent CPI leaders. Statement B is incorrect; Achutha Menon became Chief Minister in 1969, not 1957.

71. State the wrong statements with regard to the powers and functions of the District Collector.
(1) He acts as a district census officer
(2) He acts as the returning officer for the election to Parliamentary Constituency
(3) He acts as a chief of disaster management during crisis.
(4) He is responsible for ensuring the civil supply of essential and non-essential commodities

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The District Collector performs several key roles including acting as the district census officer (1), returning officer for parliamentary elections (2), and chief of disaster management during emergencies (3). However, the Collector is responsible for ensuring the supply of essential commodities, not non-essential commodities, making statement (4) incorrect.

72. Match the pairs with scholars and they used the terms for New Public Management.
Name of the scholar – Terms used
a. Christopher Hood – e. Managerialism
b. Lan and Rosenbloom – f. New Public Management
c. Osborne and Gaebler – g. Entrepreneurial Government or Reinventing Government
d. Christopher Pollitt – h. Market based approach to Public Administration
(1) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e
(2) a-g, b-f, c-h, d-e
(3) a-h, b-e, c-g, d-f
(4) a-e, b-f, c-h, d-g

Answer: (1)

Explanation: In the context of New Public Management, the correct associations are:
Christopher Hood – New Public Management (a-f)
Lan and Rosenbloom – Market-based approach (b-h)
Osborne and Gaebler – Entrepreneurial Government (c-g)
Christopher Pollitt – Managerialism (d-e)

73. Which of the following statements are correct about the behavioural approach ?
a. It is concerned with the scientific study of human behaviour.
b. It was started by Chester Bernard and later developed by Herbert Simon.
c. Its literature is mostly descriptive, not prescriptive
d. It stresses on informal relations and communication patterns
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d) statements are correct
(2) (a), (b) and (d) statements are correct
(3) (a), (c) and (d) statements are correct
(4) (a) and (b) statements are correct

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The behavioural approach focuses on the scientific study of human behaviour (a), emphasizes descriptive analysis over prescriptive norms (c), and highlights the role of informal relations and communication (d). While Herbert Simon is a key figure, it was not started by Chester Barnard, making statement (b) incorrect.

74. Which one of the following statement/s is/are incorrect ?
A. In 1793 reorganisation of public services was made by Lord Cornwallis.
B. In 1806 Haileybury College was established in Kolkata by Lord Wellesley to give pre-service training to junior officers.
C. In 1853, the East India Company accepted the most distinctive feature of the covenanted civil service in India.
D. The nomenclature ‘Indian Civil Service’ was given statutory recognition by the Act of 1861.
(1) A, B and C
(2) B Only
(3) C and D
(4) None of the above

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Statement B is incorrect because Haileybury College was established in England, not Kolkata. Statements A, C, and D are historically accurate regarding the evolution of the Indian Civil Service.

75. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Indian Institute of Public Administration’ are true ?
A. It was setup in New Delhi in 1954 on the recommendation of Paul H. Appleby.
B. It is fully governmental body.
C. It organised refresher courses only for the officers of central government.
D. It also organised short-term courses for university teachers in ‘Public Administration’.
(1) All of the above
(2) A and D
(3) B and C
(4) A, B and D

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) was established in 1954 on the recommendation of Paul H. Appleby (A) and conducts short-term courses for university teachers (D). It is an autonomous body, not fully governmental (B), and trains officers from both central and state governments, not just central (C).

76. Which of the following is not the objective of Yashada ?
(1) To promote modern management science as a major instrument for development of economic and social activities of the State Government
(2) To foster, assist and support individuals, organisations and institution in the use of management science
(3) To provide consultancy services in development and public administration
(4) To serve as the apex institute for the collection of information regarding human resources

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Yashada focuses on training, consultancy, and promoting management science for development. It is not an apex institute for collecting human resource information, making statement (4) incorrect.

77. Which of the following is not a technique for policy evaluation ?
(1) Collection of data
(2) Questions and debates
(3) Budgetary process
(4) Committee hearings and investigations

Answer: (1)

Explanation: While data collection is essential for evaluation, it is a methodological tool, not a technique like questions and debates, budgetary analysis, or committee investigations, which are formal mechanisms used in policy evaluation.

78. E-government system include
a. Lower costs, efficiency and quality of services
b. More effective linkages between citizens and government
c. Deliberate coordination
d. Facilitated transparency and accountability
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (b)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (2)

Explanation: E-government systems aim to deliver efficient, cost-effective services (a), improve citizen-government linkages (b), and enhance transparency and accountability (d). Deliberate coordination (c) is not a direct feature of e-governance.

79. Which of the following Committee recommended major changes in the in-service training programme which is now being imparted as mid-career training programme ?
(1) Kiran Aggarwal Committee
(2) Y. K. Alagh Committee
(3) R. V. V. Ayyar Committee
(4) Surindranath Committee

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Y. K. Alagh Committee recommended reforms that led to the introduction of mid-career training programmes for civil servants, enhancing their skills at different stages of service.

80. Match the following :
List – I – List – II
a. Seed Park – i. Mumbai
b. Milk Project – ii. Palghar
c. Livestock Breeding Training Centre – iii. Jalana
d. Aarey Milk Colony – iv. Dapchari
(1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Answer: (3)

Explanation:
Seed Park – Jalana (a-iii)
Milk Project – Dapchari (b-iv)
Livestock Breeding Training Centre – Palghar (c-ii)
Aarey Milk Colony – Mumbai (d-i)
Correct match: a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i.

81. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(1) Foundational courses and refresher courses organised by the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration, Mussoorie are the example of pre-entry training for Indian Administrative Services.
(2) The training of the Income Tax Officers or Traffic Police Inspector’s are example of skills training.
(3) Background type of training programme aims at mental development of the trainee, its objective is not to provide any particular skills as such.
(4) None of the above

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The foundational and refresher courses conducted by LBSNAA are examples of post-entry training, not pre-entry training. Pre-entry training occurs before joining the service. Statements (2) and (3) correctly describe skills training and background training, respectively.

82. Consider the following statements :
A. M.S. Swaminathan is known as the father of ‘the Green Revolution’ in India.
B. Nirpakh Tutej is known as the father of ‘Blue Revolution’ in India.
C. Sam Pitroda is known as the father of ‘Golden Revolution’ in India.
D. Hiralal Chaudhari and Dr. Arun Krishnan are known as the father of ‘Yellow Revolution’ in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) A, B and D
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Explanation: M.S. Swaminathan is rightly known as the father of the Green Revolution in India. The other associations are incorrect: Blue Revolution is linked to Hiralal Chaudhari, Golden Revolution to Nirpakh Tutej, and Yellow Revolution to Sam Pitroda, not the names mentioned in B, C, and D.

83. What are the barriers to Good Governance ?
A. Apathy of people
B. Attitudinal problem of the civil servants
C. Lack of accountability
D. Low levels of awareness of the rights and duties of citizens
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B, C and D
(4) B and D

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Key barriers to Good Governance include the attitudinal issues of civil servants (B), lack of accountability (C), and low public awareness of rights and duties (D). While public apathy (A) may contribute, the most structural and administrative barriers are B, C, and D.

84. Which one of the following brings out a quarterly journal known as ‘The Administrator’ ?
(1) Lal Bahadur Shastri Academy of Administration
(2) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy
(3) YASHADA
(4) Indian Institute of Public Administration

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The quarterly journal ‘The Administrator’ is published by the Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of Administration (LBSNAA), which is the premier training institute for Indian Administrative Services.

85. Which one of the following statements about ‘White Revolution’ is false ?
(1) It ended the imports of milk solids in India and India started exporting milk powder to many foreign countries.
(2) Dairy industries and infrastructures modernised and expanded
(3) Dairy needs are met locally
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: All statements about the White Revolution are true. It led to self-sufficiency in milk production, modernization of dairy infrastructure, and export of milk products. Hence, there is no false statement, making option (4) correct.

86. The process of making the excellent public policy is as follows.
a. Forward looking and visionary
b. Innovative and flexible
c. Evidence based and experiential lessons
d. Systematic evaluation and continuous review.
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Effective public policy must be forward-looking (a), innovative and adaptable (b), based on evidence and experience (c), and subject to continuous evaluation and review (d). All four elements are essential for excellence in policy-making.

87. Which of the following are elements of Weber’s model of Bureaucracy ?
a. Hierarchical structure
b. Division of work
c. Written rules for execution of works
d. Social level in people planning
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(2) (b) and (d)
(3) (a) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Weber’s model of bureaucracy includes a hierarchical structure (a), division of labor (b), and written rules (c). It emphasizes impersonality and rationality, not social planning, making (d) incorrect.

88. Which of the following statements are true about Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) ?
A. It is a staff agency.
B. It is an extra-constitutional body.
C. It has a few attached and subordinate offices under it.
D. It came into existence in January 1950 by replacing the Secretary to the Governor General.
(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B and C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The PMO is a staff agency (A) and an extra-constitutional body (B). It does not have attached or subordinate offices like a ministry (C), and it did not originate in 1950 by replacing the Governor General’s Secretary (D). So, only A and B are correct.

89. Consider the following pairs.
a. Llewellyn Smith Committee – 1920
b. Wheeler Committee – 1919
c. Maxwell Committee – 1930
d. Tottenham Committee – 1945
Which of the pairs given above are correct related to secretariat system during British period ?
(1) a and d
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, c and d
(4) a, b, c and d

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Llewellyn Smith Committee (1920) and Tottenham Committee (1945) are correctly matched with their years and relevance to the secretariat system. The years for Wheeler and Maxwell Committees are inaccurately matched, making only a and d correct.

90. The loyalties of All India Services employee are divided between the
(1) Union Public Service Commission and Union Govt.
(2) Union and Chief Secretary
(3) Union and States
(4) Parliament and Union

Answer: (3)

Explanation: All India Services officers are recruited by the Union but serve in State cadres, creating a dual control system. Their loyalties are divided between the Union and the States, reflecting their role in both central and state governance.

91. Consider the following statements about ‘National Policy for Children’ :
A. The New National Policy (2013) for children recognises every person below the age of sixteen years as a child.
B. The New National Policy (2013) for children lays down the guiding principle that the mental, emotional, cognitive, social and the cultural development of the child are to be addressed in totality.
(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct
(2) Statement ‘B’ is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are false

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The National Policy for Children (2013) defines a child as any person below the age of eighteen years, making statement A incorrect. Statement B is correct as the policy emphasizes a holistic approach to child development, covering mental, emotional, cognitive, social, and cultural aspects.

92. Consider the following statements :
A. Originally the civil service classified as covenanted and un-covenanted service.
B. The Indian covenanted service got designated as the Indian Civil Service (ICS).
C. Aitchison Commission recommended in its report that the two-tier classification of civil services into covenanted and un-covenanted should be replaced by a three-tier classification viz. imperial, provincial and subordinate.
(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are false
(2) Statement ‘B’ is correct, ‘A’ and ‘C’ are false
(3) Statement ‘C’ is correct, ‘A’ and ‘B’ are false
(4) All statements are correct

Answer: (4)

Explanation: All statements are historically accurate. The civil service was initially divided into covenanted and un-covenanted services (A). The covenanted service later became known as the Indian Civil Service (ICS) (B). The Aitchison Commission recommended a three-tier classification: imperial, provincial, and subordinate services (C).

93. Which one of the following statements is false ?
(1) The Macaulay Committee report provided the philosophy and base for Indian Civil Service (ICS).
(2) On the basis of Macaulay Committee report the first competitive examination for Indian Civil Service (ICS) was held on 16th July 1855 in England.
(3) The Indian Service of Engineers, the Indian Veterinary service and the Indian Medical Service were constituted in 1899.
(4) None of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Statement (3) is false. The Indian Medical Service and other technical services were constituted in different years, not all in 1899. Statements (1) and (2) are correct; the Macaulay Committee laid the foundation for the ICS and the first competitive exam was held in 1855.

94. Which of the following factors are responsible for the decline of the District Collector’s prestige and authority in the post-independence period ?
A. Change in the ends and objectives of Govt.
B. Emergence of Panchayat Raj
C. Emergence of Coalition Government
D. Separation of judiciary from the executive
E. Increasing political consciousness among people
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) A, B, D and E
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The decline in the District Collector’s authority is due to the shift in government objectives (A), the rise of Panchayat Raj institutions (B), the separation of judiciary from executive functions (D), and greater political awareness among citizens (E). The emergence of coalition governments (C) is less directly related.

95. Civil Service Day is celebrated in India on ________.
(1) 21 June
(2) 10 March
(3) 10 April
(4) 21 April

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Civil Service Day is celebrated on 21 April to commemorate Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel’s address to civil service probationers in 1947, where he called them the steel frame of India.

96. Match the pairs :
Article – Provision
A. 243 ZE – I. Constitution of municipalities
B. 243 ZD – II. Elections to the municipalities
C. 243 Q – III. Committee for district planning
D. 243 ZA – IV. Committee for metropolitan planning
(1) I IV II III
(2) IV III II I
(3) IV III I II
(4) I II III IV

Answer: (3)

Explanation:
243 ZE – Committee for metropolitan planning (A-IV)
243 ZD – Committee for district planning (B-III)
243 Q – Constitution of municipalities (C-I)
243 ZA – Elections to the municipalities (D-II)
Correct match: A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

97. Which one of the following is not identified as objective of the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Area (PESA) Act ?
(1) To provide self-governance
(2) To preserve traditional rights
(3) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(4) To make gram sabha a nucleus of all activities

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The PESA Act aims to empower tribal communities through self-governance (1), preserve traditional rights (2), and make the Gram Sabha central to decision-making (4). It does not seek to create autonomous regions, which is a feature of the Sixth Schedule, making statement (3) incorrect.

98. Consider the following statements about the features of 74th Amendment Act of 1992.
A. The Act lays down that four-fifths of the members of a ‘District Planning Committee’ should be elected by the elected members of the district panchayat and municipalities in the district from amongst themselves.
B. The Act lays down that three-fourth of the members of a ‘Metropolitan Planning Committee’ should be elected by the elected members of the municipalities and chairpersons of the panchayats in the metropolitan area from amongst themselves.
(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct
(2) Statement ‘B’ is correct
(3) Both the statements are false
(4) Both the statements are correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the District Planning Committee must have four-fifths elected members from panchayats and municipalities. Statement B is incorrect; the Metropolitan Planning Committee requires two-thirds elected members, not three-fourths.

99. Which of the following schemes/programmes are related to Urban development ?
A. Smart Cities
B. Swachh Bharat Mission
C. AMRUT Mission
D. HRIDAY
(1) Only A
(2) A and B
(3) A, B and C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: All listed schemes are directly related to urban development. The Smart Cities Mission focuses on creating sustainable and citizen-friendly urban spaces. The Swachh Bharat Mission improves urban sanitation and cleanliness. The AMRUT Mission enhances infrastructure in cities, and HRIDAY aims to preserve and revitalize heritage cities. Therefore, all of the above are urban development programmes.

100. Match the pairs correctly.
A. S.K. Dhar Commission – I. December 1953
B. Fazal Ali Commission – II. June 1948
C. J.V.P. Committee – III. December 1948
(1) A – II, B – I, C – III
(2) A – III, B – II, C – I
(3) A – III, B – I, C – II
(4) A – I, B – II, C – III

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The S.K. Dhar Commission was formed in June 1948 to examine linguistic reorganization (A – II). The Fazal Ali Commission, also known as the States Reorganisation Commission, was constituted in December 1953 (B – I). The J.V.P. Committee, comprising Nehru, Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya, was set up in December 1948 to study linguistic provinces (C – III). Hence, the correct match is A – II, B – I, C – III.

101. With reference to Maharashtra, consider the following statements about municipal corporation.
A. The Chairman or the Deputy Chairman of any Committee may be removed from the office if he fails to convene two consecutive meetings of the Committee.
B. The Chairman or the Deputy Chairman so removed shall be eligible for re-election as Chairman or Deputy Chairman of such committee during remainder term of his office.
(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct
(2) Statement ‘B’ is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are false

Answer: (1)

Explanation: In the context of Maharashtra municipal corporations, a Chairman or Deputy Chairman can be removed if they fail to convene two consecutive meetings of the committee (A). However, once removed, they are not eligible for re-election during the remainder of the term (B). Therefore, only statement A is correct.

102. ‘Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act’ in India was passed in which of the following year ?
(1) 2003
(2) 1991
(3) 2009
(4) 2014

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in 2003 to promote fiscal discipline, reduce fiscal deficit, and improve macroeconomic management in India. It set targets for revenue deficit and borrowing limits for the government.

103. Which one of the following is not a discretionary power of the Governor ?
(1) Recommendation for the imposition of the President’s rule in the State
(2) To promulgate ordinances
(3) Reservation of a bill for the consideration of the President
(4) Seeking information from the Chief Minister with regard to the administrative and legislative matters of the State

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Governor’s discretionary powers include recommending President’s rule (1), reserving bills for Presidential consideration (3), and seeking information from the Chief Minister (4). However, the power to promulgate ordinances (2) must be exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers, making it non-discretionary.

104. Match the pairs :
Article – Provision
A. 163 – I. Duties of Chief Minister
B. 164 – II. Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor
C. 166 – III. Other provisions as to Ministers
D. 167 – IV. Conduct of business of the State Government
(1) I II III IV
(2) II III IV I
(3) III IV I II
(4) I IV II III

Answer: (2)

Explanation:
Article 163 – Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor (A-II)
Article 164 – Other provisions as to Ministers (B-III)
Article 166 – Conduct of business of the State Government (C-IV)
Article 167 – Duties of Chief Minister (D-I)
Correct match: A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

105. Consider the following statements about ‘Advocate General’.
A. The Advocate General and his office defends and protect the interest of the State Government and gives valuable legal guidance to the State Government in formulation of its policy and its execution.
B. The Advocate General can not defend the accused person in criminal prosecution without the permission of the State Government.
(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct
(2) Statement ‘B’ is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are false

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The Advocate General is the chief legal advisor to the State Government and provides legal guidance in policy formulation and execution (A). He cannot defend an accused in criminal cases without prior permission from the State Government to avoid conflict of interest (B). Therefore, both statements are correct.

106. Consider the following statements :
A. The office of a Chief Secretary had its origin in the Central Government during the British rule. It was created in 1787 by Warren Hastings.
B. The Chief Secretary acts as the principal advisor to the Chief Minister and Governor of State.
C. The Chief Secretary is the senior-most cadre post in the State Administration, ranking 21st on the Indian order of precedence.
D. The post of the Chief Secretary is equivalent to Vice Chief of the Army Staff/Commanders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(1) A only
(2) A, B and C
(3) D only
(4) C and D

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Statement D is correct; the Chief Secretary’s post is considered equivalent in rank to the Vice Chief of Army Staff. Statement A is incorrect; the office originated in 1799, not 1787. Statement B is incorrect; the Chief Secretary advises the Chief Minister, not the Governor. Statement C is incorrect; the Chief Secretary ranks 23rd, not 21st, in the Indian order of precedence.

107. Which one of the following criteria is not recommended by the ‘Sarkaria Commission’ about the appointment of Governor
(1) He should be eminent in some walk of life
(2) He should be a person from outside the State
(3) He should not be an active politician
(4) Appointment of Governor should be entrusted to a Committee comprising the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chief Minister of the State concerned

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Governor should be eminent, from outside the state, and not an active politician. However, it did not recommend a committee for appointment involving the Prime Minister, Home Minister, Speaker, and Chief Minister. Therefore, statement 4 is not a recommended criterion.

108. Which one of the following statements is false ?
(1) The Constitution does not empower the President to exercise any function in his discretion.
(2) The Chief Minister cannot be compelled to give advice under Article – 164 (1) to the Governor in respect of a person, for becoming a Minister, who is charged for serious or heinous offences or offences relating to corruption.
(3) The Governor may appoint a person to be the Chief Minister on his own estimation that such person is likely to command a majority in the State Assembly. Such act, itself, would not establish a malafide on the part of the Governor.
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: All statements are constitutionally valid. The President acts only on advice, with no discretionary powers (1). The Chief Minister’s advice under Article 164(1) is not enforceable in cases involving serious charges (2). The Governor’s discretion in appointing a Chief Minister is recognized, and such action is not inherently malafide (3). Therefore, none of the statements are false.

109. Which one of the following statements about Second Administrative Reforms Commission is correct ?
(1) The Commission has recommended repeal of the Official Secrets Act, 1923.
(2) The Commission has recommended repeal of the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), 1958.
(3) The Commission has recommended abolition of schemes under which MPs and MLAs are allocated funds for their local area development.
(4) All of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), chaired by Veerappa Moily, proposed several major reforms. It recommended the repeal of the Official Secrets Act, 1923, suggesting its replacement with a chapter in the National Security Act. It also advised repealing the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA), 1958, and merging its provisions into the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act. Additionally, the commission recommended abolishing MPLADS and MLALADS schemes, which allocate funds to MPs and MLAs for local development. Therefore, all statements are correct.

110. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ?
A. The Governor has no power to return a non-money bill with a message for reconsideration of the whole bill.
B. In the states of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Karnataka, it is the special responsibility of the Governor to see that a Minister is placed in charge of tribal welfare.
C. In Assam, the Governor is given certain special powers with respect to the administration of the tribal areas as provided in the sixth schedule.
D. The Governor may reserve the bill for the consideration of the President, where the bill endangers the position of the High Court.
(1) A and B
(2) B, C and D
(3) C and D
(4) Only C

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statement A is incorrect; the Governor does have the power to return a non-money bill to the legislature for reconsideration. Statement B is incorrect because the responsibility to appoint a Minister for tribal welfare applies to states like Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha, not Maharashtra and Karnataka. Statement C is correct; the Governor of Assam has special powers under the Sixth Schedule for tribal area administration. Statement D is also correct; the Governor must reserve a bill for the President’s consideration if it endangers the position of the High Court. However, the answer key marks Only C as correct, suggesting a possible error in the key, since both C and D are constitutionally valid.

111. Consider the following statements about ‘Lokpal’ (Ombudsman).
A. New Zealand is the first Commonwealth country to adopt Ombudsman.
B. In India, the term of office for Lokpal and members is 5 years or till the age of 65 years.
C. The judicial member of the Lokpal is either a former Judge of the Supreme Court or a former Chief Justice of a High Court.
(1) Only B
(2) B and C
(3) A and C
(4) All of the above

Answer: (3)

Explanation: New Zealand was the first Commonwealth country to adopt the Ombudsman system (A). In India, a judicial member of the Lokpal must be either a former Supreme Court Judge or a former Chief Justice of a High Court (C). However, the term of office for Lokpal and its members is 5 years or until the age of 70, making statement B incorrect.

112. Which one of the following committees is not related to the Day-to-Day Business of the House ?
(1) Committee of Privileges
(2) Business Advisory Committee
(3) Committee on Private Member’s Bills and Resolutions
(4) Rules Committee

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Committee of Privileges deals with breaches of privilege and is not involved in daily scheduling or management of House business. The Business Advisory Committee, Committee on Private Member’s Bills and Resolutions, and Rules Committee are all concerned with the day-to-day functioning of the legislature.

113. Economic Survey in India is published by
(1) Reserve Bank of India
(2) NITI Aayog
(3) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(4) P.M.O.

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The Economic Survey is prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs and presented by the Ministry of Finance. It provides a review of the economic performance of the country and is released before the Union Budget.

114. If the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman are on the leave together, then who exercises the powers and duties of the Chairman of the Panchayat Samiti until the Chairman or as the case may be, the Deputy Chairman of the Samiti resumes duty ? (With reference to Maharashtra)
(1) The Chairman of the Subjects Committee chosen by the Chief Executive Officer by drawing lots
(2) The Chairman of the Subject Committee chosen by the Collector by drawing lots
(3) The Chairman of the Subject Committee chosen by the Divisional Commissioner by drawing lots
(4) Any senior member of Panchayat Samiti appointed by the Collector

Answer: (1)

Explanation: In Maharashtra, when both the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of a Panchayat Samiti are on leave, the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) selects one of the Subject Committee Chairpersons by drawing lots to temporarily perform the duties.

115. Members of the State Assembly can focus the attention of the government on matters of urgent public importance through
(1) Point of order
(2) Adjournment motion
(3) No-confidence motion
(4) Censure motion

Answer: (2)

Explanation: An Adjournment motion is used to interrupt normal business and discuss a matter of urgent public importance. It is a powerful tool for drawing government attention. Other options like point of order, no-confidence, and censure motions serve different procedural or political purposes.

116. Consider the following statements :
A. Gram Sabha is originally defined under Article 243 (b) of the Constitution.
B. Gram Sabha is a permanent body and its members are not elected.
C. Gram Sabha is mainly constituted by all the people who are more than 18 years of age even though their names may not be enrolled in the voter list.
D. Gram Sabha is the legislative body operating at the village level.
(1) A, B and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) All of the above

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Article 243(b) defines the Gram Sabha (A). It is a permanent body consisting of registered voters, and its members are not elected (B). It functions as a legislative body at the village level (D). Statement C is incorrect because membership requires enrollment in the voter list, not just being over 18.

117. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Water Management and Sanitation Committee’ of Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra.
A. The Committee may invite several representative of support organisations in the district as special invitees for the purpose of assisting or advising the committee in discharge of its duties and functions.
B. The Committee shall have and exercise, in relation to the subject of water conservation, preservation, utilisation, drinking water supply and sanitation, all the powers which the subjects committee has and exercises in relation to the subjects allocated to it.
(1) Statement ‘A’ is correct
(2) Statement ‘B’ is correct
(3) Both the statements are correct
(4) Both the statements are false

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Statement B is correct; the Water Management and Sanitation Committee of a Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra has full powers over its allocated subjects, similar to other subject committees. Statement A is incorrect as inviting support organization representatives is not a formal provision under the committee’s defined powers.

118. The budget goes through the following 6 stages in the Parliament. Arrange in proper order.

Presentation of budget
Scrutiny by Departmental Committees
General discussion
Passing of Appropriation Bill
Voting on Demands for grants
Passing of Finance Bill
(1) 2 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 4 – 6
(2) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(3) 1 – 3 – 2 – 5 – 4 – 6
(4) 2 – 1 – 5 – 4 – 3 – 6

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The correct sequence for the Union Budget process is:

Presentation of budget
General discussion
Scrutiny by Departmental Committees
Voting on Demands for grants
Passing of Appropriation Bill
Passing of Finance Bill

119. Consider the following statements :
A. There are 4 types of Municipal Corporations in Maharashtra i.e. class – A, B, C and D.
B. Nagpur, Pune, Thane, Nasik, Pimpri-Chinchwad are the example of A class Municipal Corporations.
C. Recently Government of Maharashtra has upgraded Jalna Nagar Parishad to Municipal Corporation.
(1) Only A
(2) Only A, B and C
(3) Only B and C
(4) Only A and C

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; Maharashtra classifies Municipal Corporations into A, B, C, and D. Statement C is correct; Jalna Nagar Parishad was recently upgraded to a Municipal Corporation. Statement B is incorrect as the classification of cities like Pune or Thane may vary and is not uniformly listed as A class.

120. Consider the following statements regarding Maharashtra Lokayukta Bill – 2022.
A. It was introduced in the Legislative Assembly in December, 2022.
B. It repeals the Maharashtra Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayukta Act, 1972.
C. The Chairperson and Members of Lokayukta will be appointed by the Governor on the recommendations of a selection committee.
D. The selection committee consists of 3 persons i.e. Chief Minister, Speaker of Legislative Assembly and Opposition Leader of the Legislative Assembly.
(1) Only C
(2) Only A, B and D
(3) Only B, C and D
(4) Only A and C

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Statement A is correct; the Maharashtra Lokayukta Bill – 2022 was introduced in December 2022. Statement C is correct; appointments are made by the Governor based on recommendations of a selection committee. Statement B is incorrect; the original act was passed in 1971, not 1972. Statement D is incorrect; the selection committee includes more than three members, such as the Chief Justice or nominee, and leaders from both houses.

Answer: (3)

Answer: (1)

113. Economic Survey in India is published by
(1) Reserve Bank of India
(2) NITI Aayog
(3) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(4) P.M.O.

Answer: (3)

Answer: (1)

Answer: (2)

118. The budget goes through the following 6 stages in the Parliament. Arrange in proper order.

Presentation of budget
Scrutiny by Departmental Committees
General discussion
Passing of Appropriation Bill
Voting on Demands for grants
Passing of Finance Bill
(1) 2 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 4 – 6
(2) 1 – 2 – 3 – 4 – 5 – 6
(3) 1 – 3 – 2 – 5 – 4 – 6
(4) 2 – 1 – 5 – 4 – 3 – 6

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The correct sequence for the Union Budget process is:

Presentation of budget
General discussion
Scrutiny by Departmental Committees
Voting on Demands for grants
Passing of Appropriation Bill
Passing of Finance Bill

Answer: (4)

121. As per Section _________ of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989, the court trying a case under this Act shall provide to a victim, his dependent, or witnesses; complete protection to secure the ends of justice, travelling and maintenance expenses during investigation, inquiry and trial.
(1) 12 (i)
(2) 14B (2)
(3) 17 (b)
(4) 15A (6)

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, Section 15A(6) ensures that the court provides complete protection, along with travelling and maintenance expenses, to the victim, dependents, or witnesses during the investigation, inquiry, and trial.

122. According to _________ of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989, “Exclusive Special Courts” means the exclusive special courts established under Sub-Section (1) of Section 14 exclusively to try the offences under this Act.
(1) Section 2(1) (bd)
(2) Section 2(1) (bg)
(3) Section 2(1) (be)
(4) Section 2(1) (bf)

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The term “Exclusive Special Courts” is defined in Section 2(1)(bd) of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989. These courts are established under Section 14(1) to exclusively try offences under this Act.

123. As per Section 7(1) of Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act 2007, the State Government shall constitute one or more _________ for each sub-division for the purpose of adjudicating and deciding upon the order for maintenance under Section 5.
(1) Special bench of High Court
(2) Special Court
(3) Exclusive Special Court
(4) Tribunal

Answer: (4)

Explanation: According to Section 7(1) of the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007, the State Government must establish one or more Tribunals in each sub-division to adjudicate and decide on maintenance applications filed under Section 5.

124. Punishment for refusing to admit any person to any hospital on grounds of untouchability is punishable with maximum _________ of imprisonment and maximum _________ rupees of fine, as per the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955.
(1) six months, five hundred
(2) four months, four hundred
(3) one year, one thousand
(4) two years, two thousand

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Under the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, refusal to admit a person to a hospital on grounds of untouchability is punishable with imprisonment up to six months and a fine up to five hundred rupees.

125. According to _________ of the Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955, “Scheduled Castes” has the meaning assigned to it in Clause (24) of Article 366 of the Constitution.
(1) Section 2 (dc)
(2) Section 2 (db)
(3) Section 2 (da)
(4) Section 2 (dd)

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Section 2(db) of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 defines “Scheduled Castes” as per Clause (24) of Article 366 of the Constitution of India, ensuring consistency in legal interpretation.

126. According to _________ of Right to Information Act 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a prescribed period and shall not be eligible for reappointment.
(1) Section 13(2)
(2) Section 13(4)
(3) Section 13(1)
(4) Section 13(3)

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Section 13(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005 states that the Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a prescribed term and shall not be eligible for reappointment, ensuring independence and rotation in office.

127. Which of the following Section of Information Technology Act 2000 deals with establishment of ‘Cyber Appellate Tribunal’ ?
(1) Section 47
(2) Section 25
(3) Section 22
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Cyber Appellate Tribunal is established under Section 48 of the Information Technology Act, 2000. Since Section 48 is not listed among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

128. As per Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 Act, ‘Child’ means a male or female child of the age of
(1) 6 to 14 years
(2) 7 to 14 years
(3) 8 to 16 years
(4) 6 to 18 years

Answer: (1)

Explanation: The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 defines a ‘Child’ as any male or female between the ages of 6 to 14 years, making them eligible for free and compulsory education under the Act.

129. As per Section 17 of the Prevention of Corruption Act 1988, person authorised to investigate in the metropolitan areas of Mumbai is the Police Officer not below the rank of __________ of Police.
(1) Assistant Commissioner
(2) Commissioner
(3) Inspector
(4) Superintendent

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Section 17 of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 specifies that in metropolitan areas like Mumbai, the investigation must be conducted by a Police Officer not below the rank of Assistant Commissioner, ensuring senior-level oversight.

130. Whoever convicted of an offence under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 subsequently commits an offence punishable under this Act, shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall be not less than __________ but which may extend to _________ and shall also be liable to fine.
(1) Six months, two years
(2) One year, three years
(3) Five years, ten years
(4) Three years, five years

Answer: (3)

Explanation: For repeat offenders under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, the punishment is not less than five years and may extend to ten years, along with a fine, reflecting the seriousness of recurring corruption offences.

131. The long title of Environmental Protection Act 1986 refers about
(1) Geneva Conference
(2) Stockholm Conference
(3) New Delhi Conference
(4) Beijing Conference

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The Environmental Protection Act, 1986 was enacted to implement decisions made at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, held in Stockholm in June 1972. The long title of the Act explicitly refers to this Stockholm Conference.

132. As per Section 30 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 for the purpose of providing speedy trial of offences arising out of violation of Human Rights, the State Government may, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, by notification specify for each district a _________ to be a Human Rights Court to try the said offences.
(1) Judicial Magistrate Court
(2) Civil Court
(3) Family Court
(4) Court of Session

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Under Section 30 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the State Government, with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Court, may designate a Court of Session in each district as a Human Rights Court to ensure speedy trial of offences related to human rights violations.

133. _________ of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 contained in Chapter III of the Act relate to prevention, control and abatement of environmental pollution.
(1) Sections 9 to 18
(2) Sections 8 to 16
(3) Sections 6 to 18
(4) Sections 7 to 17

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Chapter III of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with the prevention, control, and abatement of environmental pollution. This chapter includes provisions from Sections 7 to 17, covering various regulatory and enforcement mechanisms.

134. Which of the following Section of ‘The Rights of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act 2009’ deals with ‘duties of teachers’ ?
(1) Section 22
(2) Section 21
(3) Section 20
(4) None of the above

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The duties of teachers under the Right to Education Act, 2009 are specified in Section 24. Since Section 24 is not listed among the options, the correct answer is None of the above.

135. According to the Provisions of Right to Information Act 2005, “Competent Authority” means, the _________ in case of the House of the People.
(1) President
(2) Chief Justice of India
(3) Speaker
(4) Prime Minister

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Under the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is designated as the Competent Authority for the House of the People, responsible for framing rules to implement the Act within the institution.

136. As per Section 161(1) of Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966, the Collector shall prepare a _________ embodying a scheme of management of all unoccupied land in a village and all matters incidental thereto.
(1) Niti Patrak
(2) Audit Report
(3) Distribution list
(4) Nistar Patrak

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Section 161(1) of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 requires the Collector to prepare a Nistar Patrak, which is a document outlining the management scheme for unoccupied village land and related matters.

137. “Farm Building” means a structure erected on Land assessed or held for the purpose
a. for the storage of agricultural implements, manure or fodder
b. for the storage of agricultural produce
c. for sheltering cattles
d. for residence of members of the family, servants or tenants of the land holder
Choose the correct option.
(1) a, b and d are correct
(2) a, b and c are correct
(3) All are correct
(4) Only a is correct

Answer: (3)

Explanation: A Farm Building includes structures used for storing agricultural implements, manure, or fodder (a), agricultural produce (b), sheltering cattle (c), and residence for the landholder’s family, servants, or tenants (d). Therefore, all listed purposes are correct.

138. According to _________ of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966, no permission is required for change of use of land situated in area covered by Development Plan.
(1) Section 42 (A)
(2) Section 42 (B)
(3) Section 42 (C)
(4) Section 42 (D)

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Section 42(A) of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 states that no permission is required for change of land use if the land is located in an area covered by a Development Plan under the Maharashtra Regional and Town Planning Act.

139. As per Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966, “_________” means an indicative number in the land records wherein a portion of land of which the area and assessment are separately entered.
(1) Saza Number
(2) Tenancy Contract Number
(3) Survey Number
(4) Class Number

Answer: (1)

Explanation: A Saza Number is defined in the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 as an indicative number in the land records used to identify a portion of land with separately recorded area and assessment.

140. As per Section 255 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966, any appeal filed before any Revenue Officer shall be disposed off within a period of _________ from the date on which such appeal is filed.
(1) Six months
(2) One year
(3) 90 Days
(4) Two years

Answer: (2)

Explanation: Section 255 of the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966 mandates that any appeal filed before a Revenue Officer should be disposed of within one year, ensuring timely resolution of land-related disputes.

141. Under Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 abuse can be
(1) Physical, Sexual, Mental
(2) Physical, Economic, Sexual, Emotional
(3) Economic, Sexual and Verbal
(4) Physical, Sexual, Verbal, Emotional and Economic

Answer: (4)

Explanation: The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 defines domestic abuse to include physical, sexual, verbal, emotional, and economic abuse. This comprehensive definition ensures that various forms of harm and coercion within domestic relationships are legally recognized and addressed.

142. Public servant means a person holding public office under _________ of the Prevention of Corruption Act.
(1) Section 2 (m)
(2) Section 2 (k)
(3) Section 2 (c)
(4) Section 2 (e)

Answer: (3)

Explanation: The definition of public servant under the Prevention of Corruption Act is provided in Section 2(c). It includes a wide range of individuals such as government employees, judges, officers in public sector undertakings, and others performing public duties.

143. As per Section 4(1) of the Central Vigilance Commission Act 2003, the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the other Vigilance Commissioners shall be appointed by the President on recommendation of Committee chaired by the
(1) Chief Justice of India
(2) Law Minister
(3) Home Minister
(4) Prime Minister

Answer: (4)

Explanation: Section 4(1) of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003 states that the President appoints the Central Vigilance Commissioner and other Vigilance Commissioners based on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Prime Minister, which includes other senior officials.

144. Administrative tribunals are established as per following Articles of Constitution.
(1) Article 32
(2) Article 300
(3) Article 323-A
(4) Article 343-B

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Article 323-A of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for resolving disputes related to recruitment and service conditions of persons in public service under the Union or States.

145. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct in respect of Maharashtra Land Revenue Code 1966 ?
a. Occupants Rights are conditional.
b. No land revenue to be levied in certain cases of lands within sites of village.
c. ‘Sanad’ granted under Section 131 of this Act is forfeited by Government after a period of 5 years of land holding.
(1) Only a
(2) Only a and c
(3) Only a and b
(4) Only c

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Under the Maharashtra Land Revenue Code, 1966, Occupants’ rights are conditional (a), and land revenue is exempted in certain cases for lands within village sites (b). Statement (c) is incorrect; the Sanad granted under Section 131 is not automatically forfeited after five years.

146. Where a request has been rejected under Sub-Sec. (1), the Central Public Information Officer or State Public Information Officer, as the case may be, shall communicate to the person making request
a. the reasons for such rejection
b. the period within which an appeal against such rejection may be preferred
c. the particulars of the appellate authority
d. the names and addresses of the concerned authority
Choose the correct option.
(1) a, b and c are correct
(2) b, c and d are correct
(3) d and a are correct
(4) a, c and d are correct

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Under the Right to Information Act, when a request is rejected, the Public Information Officer must inform the applicant of the reasons for rejection (a), the time limit for appeal (b), and the details of the appellate authority (c). Statement (d) is not a mandatory requirement.

147. Prohibition of human trafficking has been provided under which Article of Constitution of India ?
(1) Article 21
(2) Article 22
(3) Article 23
(4) Article 24

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits human trafficking, forced labor, and begar. It is a Fundamental Right under Part III and is enforceable by law.

148. Whoever being a public servant but not being a member of SC/ST, will fully neglects his duties under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocity) Act shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than _________ which may be extended to one year.
(1) Six months
(2) Two months
(3) Three months
(4) Seven months

Answer: (1)

Explanation: Under the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, a public servant who is not a member of SC/ST and willfully neglects duties under the Act is punishable with imprisonment of not less than six months, which may extend to one year.

149. In India, the Public Interest Litigation is a product of the judicial activism role of the Supreme Court. It was introduced in the early 1980’s. _________ were pioneers of the concept of P.I.L.
(1) Justice Shukla and Justice Hidayatullah
(2) Justice Subramaniyam and Justice Markandey Katju
(3) Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P. N. Bhagawati
(4) Justice Iyengar and Justice Sujata Manohar

Answer: (3)

Explanation: Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer and Justice P. N. Bhagawati were the pioneers of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India. They expanded access to justice by relaxing the rule of locus standi, allowing socially conscious citizens to file petitions on behalf of disadvantaged groups.

150. _________ is said to be originator of principle of Rule of Law.
(1) Justice P. N. Bhagawati
(2) Sir Edward Coke
(3) Justice Holmes
(4) Sir Richards

Answer: (2)

Explanation: The principle of Rule of Law was championed by Sir Edward Coke, an English jurist who asserted that even the King is subject to the law. His ideas laid the foundation for constitutional governance and legal accountability.

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