1. Match the following:
List – I (Authors)
- A. L. Basham
- Donald E. Smith
- Rudolph & Rudolph
- W. H. Morris Jones
List – II (Books)
a) India as a Secular State
b) The Wonder That Was India
c) Government and Politics of India
d) In Pursuit of Lakshmi
Choose the Correct Codes:
(A) b a d c
(B) a b c d
(C) d b a c
(D) d c b a
Correct Answer: (A) b a d c
Explanation:
- A. L. Basham → The Wonder That Was India (1 → b)
- Donald E. Smith → India as a Secular State (2 → a)
- Rudolph & Rudolph → In Pursuit of Lakshmi (3 → d)
- W. H. Morris Jones → Government and Politics of India (4 → c)
Thus, the correct sequence is b a d c.
2. The 15th Finance Commission recommended a health grant architecture focusing on:
(A) Health cess consolidation into GST
(B) States’ debt takeover by Centre
(C) Universal health premium
(D) Urban/rural health infrastructure and primary health care strengthening
Correct Answer: (D) Urban/rural health infrastructure and primary health care strengthening
Explanation:
The 15th Finance Commission focused on strengthening urban and rural health infrastructure along with primary health care as part of its recommended health grant architecture.
3. The Chola navy was known for its expedition against:
(A) Cambodia and Laos
(B) Vietnam
(C) Indonesia and Sri Lanka
(D) Maldives
Correct Answer: (C) Indonesia and Sri Lanka
Explanation
The Chola navy is renowned for its powerful overseas naval expeditions, primarily targeting Sri Lanka and the Srivijaya Kingdom, which covered parts of present-day Indonesia.
4. The PM Gati Shakti – National Logistics Policy targets:
(A) Achieving net-zero carbon emissions in urban transport
(B) Integrating road, rail, port, and airport infrastructure for faster goods movement
(C) Promoting bullet train corridors
(D) Increasing domestic shipbuilding industry
Correct Answer: (B) Integrating road, rail, port, and airport infrastructure for faster goods movement
Explanation
The PM Gati Shakti – National Logistics Policy aims to create an integrated, technology-driven framework by connecting road, rail, port, and airport infrastructure to ensure faster and more efficient logistics movement.
5. What differentiates India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) from the NAPCC?
(A) It targets only renewable energy
(B) It provides sector-specific deep decarbonization roadmaps
(C) It replaces all earlier missions
(D) It excludes forestry
Correct Answer: (B) It provides sector-specific deep decarbonization roadmaps
Explanation
India’s LT-LEDS stands out for offering sector-specific long-term decarbonization pathways, unlike the NAPCC, which focuses on broad mission-based climate initiatives.
6. Mustard Gas is:
(A) Uranium hexafluoride
(B) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane
(C) 2,2′-dichlorodiethylsulfide
(D) Diethylsulphoxide
Correct Answer: (C) 2,2′-dichlorodiethylsulfide
Explanation
Mustard Gas is a highly toxic chemical warfare agent, chemically known as 2,2′-dichlorodiethylsulfide.
7. Read the following statements and choose the correct alternative in respect of settlement geography of the world
Statement-1: In humid tropical regions, rural settlements often take the form of compact villages.
Statement-2: Isolated farmsteads are more common in the densely populated rice-growing regions of Asia.
Statement-3: Physical barriers like mountains and deserts can lead to clustered settlements in limited habitable pockets.
Statement-4: Settlement morphology is linked to agricultural systems and land ownership patterns.
(A) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, and Statement 4 is incorrect
(B) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect
(C) Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 1 is incorrect
(D) Statement 3 is correct, and Statements 1, 2 and 4 are incorrect
Correct Answer: (B) Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct, and Statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation
Statement-1 is correct: Humid tropical regions often have compact settlements.
Statement-2 is incorrect: Rice-growing areas in Asia typically have clustered settlements, not isolated farmsteads.
Statement-3 is correct: Mountains/deserts create restricted pockets, encouraging clustering.
Statement-4 is correct: Settlement patterns depend heavily on agricultural systems and land ownership structures.
8. The basic foundation of global economic governance in the post-Second World War was laid by various institutional frameworks. Which of the following combinations is correct?
a) IMF, World Bank, GATT
b) IMF, World Bank, Asian Development Bank
c) World Bank, GATT, BRICS
d) Asian Development Bank, IMF, IBRD
Options:
(A) a and b
(B) a, b and c
(C) c, a and d
(D) d, a, b and d
Correct Answer: (A) a and b
Explanation
After WWII, IMF, World Bank, and GATT formed the core of global economic governance. Although the Asian Development Bank came later (1966), combination (b) is included as per the given answer key.
9. With respect to inflation in the Indian context, consider the following statements:
- Retail inflation, measured by CPI, is the primary metric used by the RBI for monetary policy.
- Core inflation includes volatile components like food and fuel.
- Supply-side factors such as monsoons and crude oil prices influence inflation in India.
- Headline inflation includes all components, including food and energy.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Statement-1: Correct — RBI targets CPI-based inflation.
Statement-2: Incorrect — Core inflation excludes food and fuel.
Statement-3: Correct — Supply shocks strongly influence India’s inflation.
Statement-4: Correct — Headline inflation includes all items, including volatile ones.
10. A Committee was constituted to formulate fundamental duties after the Emergency in 1976. It was headed by:
(A) VC Shukla
(B) DK Barooah
(C) Sardar Swaran Singh
(D) Sanjeeva Reddy
Correct Answer: (C) Sardar Swaran Singh
Explanation
The Swaran Singh Committee (1976) proposed the inclusion of Fundamental Duties, which were added through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act.
11. Wave-like character of an electron is proved by:
(A) The ionization of an atom
(B) The flow of electrons in a metal wire
(C) The deflection of an electron beam by electrical plates
(D) The diffraction pattern of electrons scattered from a crystalline solid
Correct Answer: (D) The diffraction pattern of electrons scattered from a crystalline solid
Explanation
The wave nature of electrons is conclusively demonstrated by the diffraction pattern produced when electrons interact with a crystalline solid. Diffraction is a phenomenon exclusive to waves, providing direct evidence of the electron’s wave-like properties as proposed by de Broglie.
12. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the code given below:
List – I (Nationalist Women)
a) Sarojini Naidu
b) Usha Mehta
c) Aruna Asaf Ali
d) Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan
List – II (Their Activities)
- A leader of the underground movement
- Joined Azad Hind Fauz
- Led the Salt Satyagraha in Dharsana
- Operated Secret Radio during Quit India Movement
Code:
a b c d
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Correct Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
- Sarojini Naidu → Led the Salt Satyagraha in Dharsana (3)
- Usha Mehta → Operated Secret Radio during Quit India (4)
- Aruna Asaf Ali → A leader of the underground movement (1)
- Dr. Lakshmi Swaminathan → Joined Azad Hind Fauz (2)
Thus, the correct sequence is 3, 4, 1, 2.
13. The 2025 Cambodia–Thailand border conflict was primarily triggered by:
(A) Disputes on oil and gas resources in the Gulf of Thailand
(B) Historical disputes over Preah Vihear Temple and the surrounding territory
(C) Disputes on Mekong River water-sharing
(D) Trade war
Correct Answer: (B) Historical disputes over Preah Vihear Temple and the surrounding territory
Explanation
The 2025 Cambodia–Thailand border conflict arose mainly due to long-standing territorial disputes surrounding the Preah Vihear Temple, a UNESCO site located near the contentious border region.
14. The term “seamless web” with reference to the interconnectedness of different parts of the Indian Constitution was used by:
(A) Granville Austin
(B) K.C. Wheare
(C) Donald Smith
(D) A.V. Dicey
Correct Answer: (A) Granville Austin
Explanation
Granville Austin coined the term “seamless web” to describe how various provisions of the Indian Constitution are deeply interconnected and mutually reinforcing.
15. Which of the following combinations are correct regarding social welfare policies and the years they were introduced?
(a) PM POSHAN : 2021
(b) Right to Education : 2009
(c) Ayushman Bharat : 2018
(d) PM Awaas Yojana : 2015
Options:
(A) a, b, c and d
(B) c, d, a and b
(C) b, c, d and a
(D) d, a, c and b
Correct Answer: (A) a, b, c and d
Explanation
All policy–year combinations are correct:
- PM POSHAN – 2021
- Right to Education Act – 2009
- Ayushman Bharat – 2018
- PM Awaas Yojana – 2015
16. With reference to the challenges of urbanization in India, consider the following statements:
- Rapid urbanization strains existing infrastructure like housing, sanitation, water, and transport.
- Growth of informal settlements (slums) is caused by unplanned urbanization and unaffordable housing.
- Urban areas typically have higher unemployment than rural areas.
- Smart Cities Mission promotes sustainable and inclusive cities using smart solutions.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct: Urbanization strains infrastructure, leads to slums, and the Smart Cities Mission focuses on sustainable, technology-driven development.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Urban unemployment is lower compared to rural underemployment, though urban job challenges do exist.
17. Who was the founder of the Lingayat sect?
(A) Appar
(B) Basava
(C) Bijjala
(D) Abhinava
Correct Answer: (B) Basava
Explanation
Basava (Basavanna) founded the Lingayat sect, emphasizing devotion, equality, and social reform.
18. Tarkunde Report is related to:
(A) Electoral Reforms
(B) Centre–State Relations
(C) Economic Reforms
(D) Educational Reforms
Correct Answer: (A) Electoral Reforms
Explanation
The Tarkunde Committee (1974) proposed major electoral reforms, including recommendations on improving democratic processes.
19. The CAMPA funds are prioritized for activities that involve:
(A) Mining clearance proposals
(B) Community-managed wind farms
(C) Compensatory afforestation and eco-restoration
(D) River-interlinking project evaluations
Correct Answer: (C) Compensatory afforestation and eco-restoration
Explanation
CAMPA funds are primarily dedicated to compensatory afforestation, forest regeneration, and ecological restoration activities.
20. The Dyarchical system of government was introduced by:
(A) Government of India Act, 1909
(B) Government of India Resolution, 1918
(C) Government of India Act, 1919
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Correct Answer: (C) Government of India Act, 1919
Explanation
The Government of India Act, 1919 introduced Dyarchy, a dual system of governance in provincial administration.
21. Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar:
(A) Glucose
(B) Maltose
(C) Sucrose
(D) Fructose
Correct Answer: Sucrose
Explanation:
Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar because its glycosidic bond involves the reducing groups of both glucose and fructose, preventing it from acting as a reducing agent.
22. Which of the following statements about World Cultural Realms are NOT correct?
- Occidental Realm : Includes Western Europe, North America, Australia, New Zealand, shares Greco-Roman heritage, Christianity and industrial development.
- Indic Realm : Centered in India, shaped by Hinduism, Buddhism, and related cultural traditions.
- Islamic Realm : Restricted solely to the Arabian Peninsula, excluding North Africa and Southeast Asia.
- Sino-Japanese Realm : Comprises China, Japan, Korea, and Vietnam; influenced by Confucianism, Buddhism, and Taoism.
- Sub-Saharan African Realm : Unified by Bantu linguistic roots and indigenous beliefs, with significant Islamic and Christian presence.
(A) 1 and 3 only
(B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 3 and 5
Correct Answer: 2 and 4 only
Explanation:
Statements 2 and 4 are marked incorrect as per the question’s solution key.
23. Which of the following statements about the CM-KISAN scheme of Odisha are NOT correct?
- Livelihood support under the scheme is provided exclusively to large landholding farmers.
- Input support is given to farmers for cultivation.
- Krishi Vidya Nidhi Yojana under CM-KISAN aims to promote agricultural education among farmers’ children.
- The scheme is designed to be progressive and inclusive in nature.
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Correct Answer: 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are NOT correct. The scheme is inclusive and does not provide livelihood support only to large farmers, nor does it provide input support for cultivation.
24. Arrange the following committees in a chronological order:
a) N.N. Vohra Committee
b) Rajindar Sachar Committee
c) D.S. Kothari Committee
d) Raja. J. Chelliah Committee
(A) a, b, c and d
(B) c, d, a and b
(C) b, a, c and d
(D) d, a, c and b
Correct Answer: d, a, c and b
Explanation:
Chronological order:
Raja. J. Chelliah Committee → N.N. Vohra Committee → D.S. Kothari Committee → Rajindar Sachar Committee
25. Which of the followings is not a dye:
(A) Alizarin
(B) Fluorescein
(C) Phenolphthalein
(D) Anthranilic acid
Correct Answer: Phenolphthalein
Explanation:
Phenolphthalein is not a dye; it is primarily used as an acid-base indicator.
26. Consider the following statements regarding the Odisha Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (IDCO):
- IDCO was established as a statutory corporation by the Government of Odisha in 1981.
- It serves as the nodal agency for providing industrial infrastructure and land for industrial and infrastructure projects across the state.
- The corporation’s objectives include the development of industrial estates, IT parks and other industrial complexes.
- IDCO’s functions do not include land acquisition or the creation of a land bank for major and mega projects.
- The corporation facilitates private-sector participation and provides project construction services.
Which of the statements given above is NOT correct?
(A) 2 only
(B) 4 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 3 and 5 only
Correct Answer: 4 only
Explanation:
Statement 4 is NOT correct because IDCO does undertake land acquisition and maintains a land bank for major projects.
27. Consider the following statements with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General:
a) The office of CAG has been modelled on the basis of Advocate General under the Government of India Act, 1919.
b) CAG is the impartial head of the audit and account system of India.
c) CAG can be removed by the President on the grounds of ‘proven misbehaviour’.
d) The term of office of CAG shall be six years from the date on which he assumes office.
(A) a and b
(B) a and c
(C) b and d
(D) a, b, c and d
Correct Answer: b and d
Explanation:
Statement b and d are correct.
CAG is the impartial head of India’s audit system and has a six-year tenure.
28. Under which Mughal Emperor was the office of Muhtasib (Censor of Public Morals) instituted in Odisha?
(A) Shahjahan
(B) Aurangzeb
(C) Jahangir
(D) Humayun
Correct Answer: Aurangzeb
Explanation:
The office of Muhtasib was introduced in Odisha during the reign of Aurangzeb.
29. Who was the first leader to move a resolution in the Central Legislative Assembly demanding the unification of all Odia speaking tracts into a separate province?
(A) Madhusudan Das
(B) Gopa Bandhu Das
(C) Hare Krushna Mahatab
(D) Nil Kantha Das
Correct Answer: Madhusudan Das
Explanation:
Madhusudan Das was the first to demand the unification of all Odia-speaking regions.
30. Consider the following statements:
- The Inter-State Council (ISC) was set up under Article 263 of the Constitution.
- Punchhi Commission recommended the establishment of the Inter-State Council.
- The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of the Inter-State Council.
- It discusses matters of common interests and suggests policies for better coordination.
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 1
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: 1, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
The ISC was created under Article 263, chaired by the Union Home Minister, and deals with inter-governmental coordination.
31. Which climate initiative specifically supports Himalayan glacial monitoring?
(A) ICAP
(B) National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
(C) State REDD+ Programme
(D) Bharat Clean Energy Mission
Answer: National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem
Explanation:
The National Mission on Sustaining the Himalayan Ecosystem (NMSHE) directly supports activities like Himalayan glacial monitoring, climate impact studies, and protection of the fragile mountain ecosystem.
32. Which of the following statements about the global industrial pattern is NOT correct?
- Japan, Germany, and the USA are leaders in automobile production.
- India and Bangladesh are major centres for textile and garment industries.
- South Korea and Taiwan are known for shipbuilding and heavy machinery.
- Canada and Australia are primarily known for heavy industry rather than resource-based industries.
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 and 1 only
(D) 4 only
Answer: 4 only
Explanation:
Statement 4 is incorrect. Canada and Australia are primarily known for resource-based industries (mining, minerals, energy), not heavy industry. Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct descriptions of global industrial specialization.
33. Which of the following was the first major administrative measure taken by the Congress Ministry formed in Odisha under Hare Krushna Mahatab on 23 April 1946?
(A) Abolition of Zamindari Settlements
(B) Release of political prisoners
(C) Repeal of salt laws in Coastal Odisha
(D) Introduction of compulsory primary education
Answer: Abolition of Zamindari Settlements
Explanation:
The Congress Ministry’s first major administrative action in Odisha in 1946 involved initiating the Abolition of Zamindari Settlements.
34. Which of the following best defines the concept of Pareto Optimality?
(A) A situation where everyone is equally well-off
(B) A situation where no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off
(C) A situation where total wealth is maximized
(D) A situation where the government redistributes resources equally
Answer: B
Explanation:
Pareto Optimality occurs when no individual can be made better off without making someone else worse off—a key efficiency criterion in economics.
35. Consider the following statements:
a) Under Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution, a Supreme Court Judge can be impeached.
b) The ground for impeachment pertains to “incapacity and proven misbehaviour.”
c) A minimum of 100 MPs are required to initiate the impeachment motion in the Lok Sabha.
d) The President can pardon the Judge.
Which of the above statements are INCORRECT?
(A) a and b
(B) b only
(C) c and d
(D) a, c and d
Answer: a, c and d
Explanation:
- (b) is correct — removal grounds are “proven misbehaviour or incapacity.”
- (a) is incorrect because Article 124(4) provides the procedure, not “impeachment” terminology.
- (c) is incorrect — minimum 100 Lok Sabha members OR 50 Rajya Sabha members can move the motion.
- (d) is incorrect — removal is a constitutional process; President cannot pardon a judge being removed.
36. Consider the following statements regarding the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs):
- The 2030 Agenda (2015) comprises 17 SDGs and 169 targets.
- SDG 1 targets ending poverty using indicators like the national poverty line.
- “Leave no one behind” is central to the SDGs and supports disaggregated data.
- Sustainable Consumption and Production (SCP) is addressed under SDG 14.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
Answer: 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
Statement 4 is incorrect because SCP is SDG 12, not SDG 14 (Life Below Water).
37. Section 4 of the RTI Act states that the obligations of public authorities to maintain records and publish information must be carried out within ______ days from enactment of the Act.
(A) 120
(B) 30
(C) 110
(D) 10
Answer: 120
Explanation:
Section 4 mandates public authorities to publish and maintain records within 120 days of enactment.
38. Consider the following statements about Ramsar sites in India:
- A Ramsar site is declared based on ecological and biodiversity importance.
- Chilika Lake was the first Indian site to be added.
- As of 2023, India has more than 75 Ramsar sites.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All statements are correct — Ramsar sites are designated for ecological importance, Chilika Lake was among the earliest Indian entries, and India has 75+ sites as of 2023.
39. The writ of Mandamus is issued:
(A) To release a person from illegal detention
(B) To transfer a case from a lower court to a higher court
(C) To compel a public official to perform a public duty
(D) To question the legality of a person holding public office
Answer: C
Explanation:
Mandamus directs a public official or authority to perform a public duty required by law.
40. Consider the following statements about Samudrayaan Mission:
- It will enhance India’s nuclear submarine capability.
- It aims to develop a self-propelled manned submersible.
- It aims to explore deep oceans up to 6000 meters.
- It aims to boost marine tourism.
Select the correct answer:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4 only
(D) 4 only
Answer: 2 and 3
Explanation:
The Samudrayaan Mission focuses on deep-sea scientific exploration:
- Correct: Self-propelled manned submersible (Matsya 6000)
- Correct: Exploration up to 6000 m
- Incorrect: It is not related to nuclear submarine development or tourism.
41. Which of the following statements regarding India’s aquaculture policies is/are correct?
- The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) aims to enhance fish production and boost exports.
- The Coastal Aquaculture Authority regulates aquaculture activities in brackish water and coastal areas.
- The National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) is responsible for promoting modern aquaculture practices.
- The FAO’s Code of Conduct for Responsible Fisheries is legally binding in India.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1 and 4 only (C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. PMMSY aims to enhance fish production and exports (1). The Coastal Aquaculture Authority regulates brackish water aquaculture (2). NFDB promotes modern aquaculture practices (3). Statement 4 is incorrect because the FAO Code is voluntary, not legally binding.
42. What is the time limit provided for making a complaint under the POSH Act, 2013?
(A) 14 days (B) One month (C) Two months (D) Three months
Answer: Three months
Explanation: A complaint must be filed within three months from the date of the last incident.
43. Consider the following statements about endemic species in India:
- Endemic species are restricted to a specific geographical location.
- The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Western Ghats.
- Endemic species always fall under the IUCN Critically Endangered category.
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1 and 2 only
Explanation: Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect; endemicity does not imply Critically Endangered status.
44. The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) is mentioned in which part of the Constitution?
(A) Part VII (B) Part XIII (C) Part XIV (D) Part IX
Answer: Part XIV
Explanation: UPSC provisions are in Part XIV of the Constitution.
45. Consider the following statements regarding delimitation in India:
- Delimitation redraws constituency boundaries based on population change.
- The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President, and its orders cannot be challenged in court.
- Ensures equal population representation (“one person, one vote”).
- Current delimitation is based on the 2001 Census; next after first census post-2026.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) All of the above
Answer: 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation: Statement 4 is incorrect; seat allocation is frozen till after the first census post-2026, but no new delimitation is ongoing based on 2001.
46. Which British Governor-General annexed Odisha?
(A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis (C) Lord Wellesley (D) Lord Dalhousie
Answer: Lord Wellesley
Explanation: Odisha was annexed in 1803 under Lord Wellesley.
47. Mismatched Nobel Prize 2024 pair:
(A) Peace – Narges Mohammadi
(B) Literature – Han Kang
(C) Economics – Acemoglu, Johnson & Robinson
(D) Physics – Hopfield & Hinton
Answer: Literature – Han Kang
Explanation: Han Kang did not win the 2024 Nobel Prize in Literature.
48. First Black man to win Oscar for Best Costume Design (97th Oscars):
(A) Paul Tazewell (B) Olivier Persin (C) Emilia Pérez (D) Sean Baker
Answer: Paul Tazewell
Explanation: Paul Tazewell made history as the first Black man to win this award.
49. Chronological order of composition:
a) Brihadaranyaka Upanishad
b) Manusmriti
c) Arthashastra
d) Milinda Panha
(A) a-b-c-d (B) b-c-a-d (C) c-a-b-d (D) d-a-c-b
Answer: a-b-c-d
Explanation: Correct timeline → Upanishads → Manusmriti → Arthashastra → Milinda Panha.
50. Statements on India’s NDCs:
- Reduce emissions intensity by 45% by 2030.
- Achieve 50% installed electric capacity from non-fossil fuels by 2030.
- Updated NDC linked to Panchamrit (COP26).
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 1, 2 and 3
Explanation: All statements are correct.
51. India’s new Deputy NSA (August 2025):
(A) Rajinder Khanna (B) T. V. Ravichandran (C) Anish Dayal Singh (D) Pankaj Kumar Singh
Answer: Pankaj Kumar Singh
Explanation: Pankaj Kumar Singh appointed Deputy NSA.
52. Match the UN days:
a) 3 March → 1. World Wildlife Day
b) 7 April → 2. World Health Day
c) 3 May → 3. World Press Freedom Day
d) 20 June → 4. World Refugee Day
Answer: a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
53. Theme of the 38th National Games:
(A) Fit India (B) Sustainable Olympics (C) Green Games (D) Eco-Sports Initiative
Answer: Green Games
54. Match Colonial Policies with Impact on Odisha:
a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
Explanation: Permanent Settlement → peasant distress; Maratha defeat → reorganization; Bengali imposition → Odia movement; Slavery Abolition → Ellenborough; Simon Commission → petition for separate province.
55. Match Indian Rivers:
(a) Chambal → Banas (3)
(b) Cauvery → Noyyal (2)
(c) Krishna → Bhima (1)
(d) Godavari → Manjra (4)
Answer: 3, 2, 1, 4
56. Match Odisha Rivers:
(a) Mahanadi → Ong (3)
(b) Brahmani → Sankha (1)
(c) Baitarani → Deo (4)
(d) Subarnarekha → Raru (2)
Answer: 3, 1, 4, 2
57. First to issue gold coins in India:
(A) Kushans (B) Sakas (C) Parthians (D) Indo-Greeks
Answer: Indo-Greeks
58. DoSJE signed MoU with:
(A) Defence Ministry (B) NHRC (C) NALSA (D) CVC
Answer: NALSA
59. Match Schemes with Year:
a-2 (Ayushman Bharat – 2018)
b-3 (NSDM – 2015)
c-1 (MGNREGS – 2006)
d-4 (PMJDY – 2014)
Answer: a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
60. Match Rajput Rulers:
a-2 (Rana Sanga – Khanwa)
b-1 (Maharana Pratap – Haldighati)
c-3 (Rao Chandra Sen – Against Akbar)
d-4 (Raja Man Singh – Odisha conquest)
Answer: a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
61. Consider the following statements regarding the structural transformation of the Indian economy:
- India’s economic growth since the 1990s has been primarily led by the services sector, with a relatively smaller contribution from manufacturing.
- The “Make in India” initiative aims to increase the manufacturing sector’s share in GDP to 25% and create 100 million additional jobs by 2022.
- Despite rapid economic growth, the share of the agricultural sector in India’s GDP has consistently declined, while its share in employment remains significant.
- The phenomenon of “premature deindustrialization” in India refers to the services sector growing rapidly without a strong manufacturing base.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
Answer: 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation: Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is factually imprecise as the targets of “Make in India” were not fully achieved by 2022.
62. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that the law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all courts within the territory of India?
(A) Article 131
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 144
(D) Article 145
Answer: Article 141
Explanation: Article 141 mandates that law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts in India.
63. Which of the following statements about G-20 is NOT correct?
(A) The G20 was established in 1999.
(B) USA hosted the first G20 Summit of leaders in 2008.
(C) The presidency of the G20 rotates every year among member countries.
(D) Chile is a member of G20.
Answer: Chile is a member of G20.
Explanation: Chile is not a member of the G20. The G20 has 19 countries + EU + AU.
64. The foundational ideology of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association was inspired by:
(A) Italian nationalist movement and the works of Mazzini
(B) Leninist Communism and the Russian Revolution
(C) American War of Independence and George Washington
(D) Irish freedom struggle and Sinn Fein Movement
Answer: Irish freedom struggle and Sinn Fein Movement
Explanation: HSRA drew ideological inspiration primarily from the Irish freedom movement.
65. Which of the following fundamental rights is available only to Indian citizens and not to foreigners?
(A) Right to Equality before Law (Article 14)
(B) Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
(C) Protection against conviction for offences (Article 20)
(D) Right to Life and Personal Liberty (Article 21)
Answer: Freedom of Speech and Expression (Article 19)
Explanation: Article 19 rights apply only to citizens.
66. Match List – I (Geological Structure) with List – II (Economic Importance):
(a) Siwalik Hills
(b) Deccan Traps
(c) Singhbhum Craton
(d) Chhota Nagpur Plateau
- Coal, Mica, and Uranium Resources
- Black cotton soils, Sugarcane agriculture
- Fossil-rich sedimentary deposits
- Rich in Iron ore deposits
Codes:
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 2 1
Answer: 3 2 4 1
Explanation:
(a) Siwalik Hills → Fossil-rich deposits (3)
(b) Deccan Traps → Black soils & sugarcane (2)
(c) Singhbhum Craton → Iron ore (4)
(d) Chhota Nagpur Plateau → Coal, Mica, Uranium (1)
67. As per the Global Hunger Index 2023, India ranks at which position globally?
(A) 105
(B) 107
(C) 111
(D) 115
Answer: 111
Explanation: India ranked 111 in GHI 2023.
68. Consider the following statements regarding ecological pyramids:
- In a parasitic food chain, the pyramid of numbers is always upright.
- Pyramids of biomass are always inverted in marine ecosystems.
- Pyramids of energy are never inverted.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect; pyramids of numbers in parasitic chains are usually inverted.
Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
69. Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:
- He is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
- He has the right to participate in proceedings of Parliament but without voting rights.
- He must have qualifications equivalent to that of a Supreme Court judge.
- His remuneration is fixed by the Parliament under Article 148.
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Statement 4 is incorrect; remuneration is decided by the President, not Parliament.
70. Which of the following statements about the Chenab Rail Bridge is correct?
- It is a cable-stayed bridge.
- The Chenab Rail Bridge is taller than the Eiffel Tower.
- It is part of the Golden Quadrilateral Railway Project.
- It is the world’s highest railway arch bridge.
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 3 only
(C) 1 only
(D) 2 and 4
Answer: 2 and 4
Explanation:
• It is an arch bridge, not cable-stayed → Statement 1 incorrect.
• It is taller than Eiffel Tower → Correct.
• It belongs to USBRL project, not Golden Quadrilateral → Statement 3 incorrect.
• It is the world’s highest railway arch bridge → Correct.
71. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched regarding Schedules of the Indian Constitution?
(A) 6th Schedule – Languages recognized by the Constitution
(B) 7th Schedule – Division of powers between Union and States
(C) 8th Schedule – Land Reforms and Ceiling on Landholdings
(D) 9th Schedule – Tribal Areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram
Answer: 7th Schedule – Division of powers between Union and States
Explanation: The 7th Schedule contains the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists detailing the distribution of legislative powers.
72. Which category under the IUCN classification is not directly recognized in the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972?
(A) Critically Endangered
(B) Vulnerable
(C) Endemic
(D) Extinct in the Wild
Answer: Endemic
Explanation: “Endemic” refers to restricted geographical distribution and is not a threat-status category recognized in the Wildlife Protection Act.
73. Acetylsalicylic acid is known as:
(A) Oil of wintergreen
(B) Aspirin
(C) Ibuprofen
(D) Paracetamol
Answer: Aspirin
Explanation: Acetylsalicylic acid is the chemical name of Aspirin.
74. Match List–I with List–II:
List–I (Name)
a) Madhusudan Das
b) Buxi Jagabandhu
c) Fakir Mohan Senapati
d) Krushna Chandra Gajapati
List–II (Activity)
- Leader of Khurda Rebellion
- Founder of Utkal Sammilani
- Pioneer of Modern Odia literature
- Played key role in Odisha’s separate province formation
Codes:
(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
(B) a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
(C) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
(D) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
Answer: a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
Explanation:
• Madhusudan Das → Founder of Utkal Sammilani
• Buxi Jagabandhu → Khurda Rebellion leader
• Fakir Mohan Senapati → Modern Odia literature pioneer
• Krushna Chandra Gajapati → Led Odisha province formation
75. What does NISAR stand for?
(A) NASA-ISRO Space and Aeronautics Research
(B) NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
(C) National Indian Space and Aeronautics Radar
(D) NASA International Satellite for Advanced Research
Answer: NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar
Explanation: NISAR is a joint Earth-observation mission between NASA and ISRO.
76. Consider the contributions and challenges of the Services Sector in India:
- The Services sector is the largest contributor to India’s GDP.
- Its share in total employment is significantly lower than that of agriculture.
- Growth in services has often been called “jobless growth.”
- Digitalization has strengthened India’s global service position, but benefits are uneven.
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) All of the above
Answer: 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation:
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Services sector employment is lower than agriculture but not “significantly lower” in the sense implied.
• All other statements are correct.
77. Assertion (A): In central and southern Odisha, the Proterozoic era is represented by the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt containing khondalite, charnockite, migmatite, anorthosite, and alkaline rocks.
Reason (R): These rocks are linked to the mineralisation of bauxite, manganese, graphite, and gemstones.
(A) Both A and R are true, and R explains A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A
(C) A is true, but R is false
(D) A is false, but R is true
Answer: Both A and R are true, and R correctly explains A.
Explanation: The mineral deposits result directly from the geological composition of the Eastern Ghats Granulite Belt.
78. Match List–I with List–II:
List–I (Leader)
a) M. C. Raja
b) Jagjivan Ram
c) B. R. Ambedkar
d) Mahatma Gandhi
List–II (Organisation)
- All India Depressed Classes League
- All India Depressed Classes Congress
- All India Depressed Classes Association
- All India Harijan Sangh
Codes:
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Answer: 3 1 2 4
Explanation:
• M. C. Raja → All India Depressed Classes Association
• Jagjivan Ram → All India Depressed Classes League
• B. R. Ambedkar → All India Depressed Classes Congress
• Mahatma Gandhi → All India Harijan Sangh
79. The Ganjam Plates of Madhav Raja II of the Sailodbhava dynasty provide information about:
(A) Genealogy and territorial extent of Sailodbhava rulers
(B) Maritime trade with Southeast Asia
(C) Construction of the Mukteshwara temple
(D) Diplomatic relations with the Gupta Empire
Answer: Genealogy and territorial extent of the Sailodbhava rulers
Explanation: These copper plates mainly document lineage and territorial administration.
80. Which of the following statements about the Asia Cup cricket tournament is NOT correct?
- Asia Cup is played among Asian nations.
- It is organised by the Asian Cricket Council.
- First held in 1984.
- First Asia Cup was played in Colombo, Sri Lanka.
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 1
(D) 4 only
Answer: 4 only
Explanation: The first Asia Cup (1984) was held in Sharjah, UAE, not Colombo.
81. Match List – I (Sub-divisions of Himalayas) with List – II (Characteristics) and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List – I (Sub-divisions of Himalayas)
(a) Trans-Himalaya
(b) Greater Himalaya
(c) Lesser Himalaya
(d) Siwaliks
List – II (Characteristics)
- Known for hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie
- Composed of unconsolidated sediments forming foothills
- Includes Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar range
- Contains Mount Everest and Kanchenjunga
Codes:
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 3 4 1 2
Answer: 3 4 1 2
Explanation:
Trans-Himalaya → (3) Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar ranges
Greater Himalaya → (4) Houses Mount Everest & Kanchenjunga
Lesser Himalaya → (1) Hill stations like Shimla, Mussoorie
Siwaliks → (2) Unconsolidated sediments forming foothills
82. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the Rajya Sabha?
- It is a permanent body and cannot be dissolved.
- One-third of its members retire every two years.
- The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
- It can be dissolved by the President during National Emergency.
Options:
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house (1), one-third members retire every two years (2), and the Vice President is its ex-officio Chairperson (3). Statement 4 is incorrect—Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved even during an emergency.
83. Who fought the Battle of Talikota?
(A) Harihara I
(B) Devaraya II
(C) Krishna Deva Raya
(D) Rama Raya
Answer: Rama Raya
Explanation:
The Battle of Talikota (1565) was led by Rama Raya of the Vijayanagara Empire against the Deccan Sultanate alliance.
84. The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) functions under:
(A) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs
(C) Cabinet Secretariat
(D) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
Answer: Ministry of Home Affairs
Explanation:
NDMA functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs, though the Prime Minister is its ex-officio Chairperson.
85. India’s first OECM (Other Effective Area-based Conservation Measure) recognition was awarded for which reason?
(A) Ex-situ conservation of orchids
(B) Sacred groves with endemic fauna
(C) Biodiversity management in community forests
(D) Coral reef mapping
Answer: Biodiversity management in community forests
Explanation:
India’s first OECM was awarded to the Aravalli Biodiversity Park, recognized for its community-driven biodiversity conservation and restoration model.
86. Who commissioned the construction of the rock-cut Jain Monasteries on Udayagiri Hills?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandra Gupta Maurya
(C) Kharavela
(D) Bindusara
Answer: Kharavela
Explanation:
The Udayagiri–Khandagiri Jain caves were primarily commissioned by King Kharavela of Kalinga.
87. Which of the following statements about Tropical Evergreen Forests in India are NOT correct?
- They are confined only to the Eastern Ghats of India.
- The trees shed their leaves simultaneously during the dry summer season.
- They are found in regions receiving rainfall above 200 cm.
- Ebony, mahogany, and rosewood are common species.
(A) 3 and 4 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Answer: 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect. Evergreen forests are mainly in the Western Ghats and NE India (not confined to Eastern Ghats), and the trees do not shed leaves simultaneously.
88. What is the Surya Heliophysics Foundation Model?
(A) A planetary rover
(B) An AI model to forecast solar activity
(C) An Earth observation satellite
(D) A spacecraft
Answer: An AI model to forecast solar activity
Explanation:
The Surya Heliophysics Foundation Model is an AI-based predictive model for forecasting solar activity and space-weather events.
89. Arrange the religious institutions established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in chronological order:
(a) Unitarian Committee
(b) Vedanta College
(c) Atmiya Sabha
(d) Brahmo Samaj
(A) d, a, b, c
(B) c, a, b, d
(C) b, d, c, a
(D) a, c, b, d
Answer: c, a, b, d
Explanation:
Chronology:
Atmiya Sabha (1815) → Unitarian Committee (1821) → Vedanta College (1825) → Brahmo Samaj (1828)
90. Consider the following statements concerning India’s Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):
- India’s MPI uses health, education, and standard of living as dimensions.
- It is published by NITI Aayog using NFHS data.
- The Global MPI is released jointly by UNDP and OPHI.
- India’s MPI includes indicators such as nutrition, school attendance, clean cooking fuel, etc.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All of the above
Answer: All of the above
Explanation:
All statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct, aligning with both national and global MPI frameworks.
91. The “One Health” approach in public policy refers to:
(A) Integrating traditional and modern health systems
(B) Linking human, animal and environmental health to prevent pandemics
(C) Making public and private hospitals work jointly
(D) Telemedicine expansion to rural areas
Answer: Linking human, animal and environmental health to prevent pandemics
Explanation:
The One Health approach recognizes the interconnectedness of human, animal, and environmental health, and is crucial for preventing zoonotic diseases and pandemics.
92. Which of the following statements about the Odisha Integrated Irrigation Project for Climate Resilient Agriculture (OIIPCRA) is NOT correct?
- OIIPCRA is jointly funded by the Government of Odisha and the World Bank.
- The project aims to improve irrigation infrastructure and promote climate-resilient farming practices in selected districts.
- It primarily focuses on large-scale dam construction to increase irrigation potential in coastal Odisha.
- The project supports farmer training, capacity building and the introduction of climate-smart agricultural technologies.
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 4 only
Answer: 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect. OIIPCRA focuses on improving existing small and medium irrigation systems and promoting climate-resilient agriculture, not on constructing large dams.
93. Who is the author of the book “Baidehisha Bilasa”?
(A) Hari Charan Deva
(B) Sisu Sankar Das
(C) Upendra Bhanja
(D) Harihar Kabi
Answer: Upendra Bhanja
Explanation:
Baidehisha Bilasa is a renowned Odia literary work authored by Upendra Bhanja.
94. Which of the following statements about Biosphere Reserves in India are NOT correct?
- Great Nicobar is one of the designated biosphere reserves.
- Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is spread over Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
- There are no biosphere reserves in the Himalayan region.
- Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 3 and 4 only
Answer: 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 3 is incorrect. Several biosphere reserves lie in the Himalayan region, such as Nanda Devi, Khangchendzonga, and Cold Desert. Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
95. The Mission Karmayogi launched by the Government of India is aimed at:
(A) Skill development for unemployed youth
(B) Capacity building and competency development of civil servants
(C) Leadership training for Panchayati Raj officials
(D) Military training for disaster response
Answer: Capacity building and competency development of civil servants
Explanation:
Mission Karmayogi is a national program focused on reforming civil services capacity building using a competency-based framework.
96. In India, the ‘Threatened Species Recovery Programme’ under NBAP targets species that are:
(A) Locally extinct but globally common
(B) Keystone species across agro-ecological zones
(C) Species with narrow geographic range and declining population
(D) Genetically engineered but endangered
Answer: Species with narrow geographic range and declining population
Explanation:
The programme prioritizes species with restricted distribution and rapidly declining populations, making them highly vulnerable.
97. Which Mughal Emperor appointed the first separate Subahdar of Odisha, and in which year did Odisha become a separate Subah?
(A) Akbar, 1593
(B) Aurangzeb, 1658
(C) Shahjahan, 1628
(D) Jahangir, 1607
Answer: Akbar, 1593
Explanation:
Emperor Akbar created the Odisha Subah and appointed the first Subahdar in 1593.
98. Match these summits to their host cities:
List – I (Organizations)
a) G7 (2025)
b) NATO (2025)
c) SCO (2024)
d) G20 Summit (2025)
List – II (Locations)
- Kananaskis
- The Hague
- Islamabad
- Johannesburg
Codes:
(A) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
(B) a-2 b-3 c-4 d-1
(C) a-1 b-3 c-4 d-2
(D) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4
Answer: a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
Explanation:
G7 (2025) → Kananaskis
NATO (2025) → The Hague
SCO (2024) → Islamabad
G20 Summit (2025) → Johannesburg
99. The El Niño phenomenon is associated with:
(A) Weakening of monsoon in India
(B) Strengthening of monsoon in India
(C) No effect on the monsoon in India
(D) Only winter rains in India
Answer: Weakening of monsoon in India
Explanation:
El Niño disrupts the Walker circulation, leading to weakened monsoon winds and reduced rainfall in India.
100. Which country did India defeat in both men’s and women’s Kho Kho World Cup 2025 finals?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
Answer: Nepal
Explanation:
India defeated Nepal in both the men’s and women’s finals of the Kho Kho World Cup 2025.