UPSC Civil Services Prelims 1998 Solved Question Paper

Q1. Some time back, the Government of India, decided to delicense ‘white goods’ industry. ‘White goods’ include
(a) stainless steel and aluminium utensils
(b) milk and milk products
(c) items purchased for conspicuous consumption
(d) soaps, detergents and other mass consumption goods

Answer: (c) items purchased for conspicuous consumption

Explanation:
The term ‘white goods’ refers to consumer durables such as refrigerators, washing machines, air conditioners, and similar products that are often associated with conspicuous consumption. These are typically large electrical appliances used in households and are considered non-essential luxury items. The Government of India’s decision to delicense this sector was aimed at liberalizing industrial policy, encouraging private investment, and boosting production in the consumer goods segment.

Q2. Examine the following three statements:
I. Processed meat is a perishable food.
II. All perishable foods are packed in sealed tins.
III. Sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) Sealed tins always contain perishable food
(b) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins
(c) Processed meat is always packed in sealed tins
(d) Non-perishable foods are never packed in sealed tins

Answer: (b) Processed meat is sometimes not packed in sealed tins

Explanation:
From the given statements, we know that processed meat is perishable, and sealed tins sometimes do not contain processed meat, which implies that processed meat is not always packed in sealed tins. This makes option (b) the only logically valid inference. The other options either overgeneralize or contradict the provided statements. The key reasoning lies in the word “sometimes”, which allows for exceptions and supports the conclusion that processed meat may or may not be packed in sealed tins.

Q3. What is the correct sequence of the following Indian states in descending order of their length of surface roads per 100 km² of their area?
I. Haryana
II. Maharashtra
III. Punjab
IV. Tamil Nadu
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) IV, II, III, I
(b) IV, III, I, II
(c) III, IV, I, II
(d) III, IV, II, I

Answer: (a) IV, II, III, I

Explanation:
The question ranks states by road density, measured as surface road length per 100 km². Tamil Nadu leads due to its extensive road network and smaller area, followed by Maharashtra, which has a large area but significant infrastructure. Punjab and Haryana, though smaller, have relatively lesser road density compared to Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra. The correct descending order reflects infrastructure spread relative to area.

Q4. The four railway junctions shown by numerals 1, 2, 3, 4 on the rough outline map of Gujarat are respectively
(a) Palanpur, Mahesana, Ahmedabad and Vadodara
(b) Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh
(c) Palanpur, Kanda, Bhuj and Okla
(d) Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Bhavnagar and Broach

Answer: (b) Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot and Junagarh

Explanation:
The map-based question identifies key railway junctions in Gujarat. The correct sequence—Mahesana, Surendranagar, Rajkot, Junagarh—follows a westward progression across central and Saurashtra regions. These junctions are strategically important for passenger and freight movement in western India.

Q5. The damage to the Spektr Module of the Russian Space Station Mir was due to
(a) collision with a Soyuz cargo ship
(b) faulty material design of the Spektr Module
(c) explosion inside the space station
(d) collision with an asteroid

Answer: (a) collision with a Soyuz cargo ship

Explanation:
The Spektr Module of Mir, Russia’s space station, was damaged in 1997 due to a collision with a Progress (Soyuz) cargo ship during a docking test. This incident highlighted the risks of manual docking and led to loss of pressure and power in the module. It was a major setback in Mir’s operational history.

Q6. The meeting of G-15 countries held in Malaysia in 1997 was attended by
(a) 14 member countries
(b) 15 member countries
(c) 16 member countries
(d) 17 member countries

Answer: (c) 16 member countries

Explanation:
Though named G-15, the group had 16 member countries by 1997 due to expansion. The G-15 is a forum of developing nations from Asia, Africa, and Latin America, focused on cooperation in trade, investment, and technology. The Malaysia summit reflected growing participation beyond the original count.

Q7. Olympics 2000 is to be held in
(a) Johannesberg
(b) Capetown
(c) Rome
(d) Sydney

Answer: (d) Sydney

Explanation:
The 2000 Summer Olympics were hosted by Sydney, Australia, marking a major international sporting event. Sydney was chosen over cities like Beijing and Manchester, and the games were praised for their organization, infrastructure, and global participation.

Q8. The educated middle class in India
(a) opposed the revolt of 1857
(b) supported the revolt of 1857
(c) remained neutral to the revolt of 1857
(d) fought against native rulers

Answer: (c) remained neutral to the revolt of 1857

Explanation:
During the 1857 revolt, the educated middle class, influenced by Western education and reformist ideas, largely remained neutral. They were skeptical of the feudal and religious motivations behind the uprising and preferred constitutional methods for reform. Their stance reflected a disconnect from the masses and a cautious approach to rebellion.

Q9. Which one of the following regions of the world supplies the maximum of our imported commodities (in terms of rupee value)?
(a) Africa
(b) America
(c) Asia and Oceania
(d) Europe

Answer: (d) Europe

Explanation:
In 1998, Europe was the largest supplier of India’s imports by rupee value, driven by purchases of machinery, chemicals, and industrial goods. Countries like Germany, UK, and France were major trade partners. This reflects India’s dependence on European technology and capital goods.

Q10. The currency of the proposed European Monetary Union will be
(a) Dollar
(b) Euro
(c) Guilder
(d) Mark

Answer: (b) Euro

Explanation:
The Euro was introduced as the common currency of the European Monetary Union (EMU) in 1999, replacing national currencies like the Mark, Franc, and Guilder. It aimed to integrate European economies, facilitate trade, and ensure monetary stability across member states.

Q11. Which one of the following was the venue for the preliminary talks between the Sri Lankan Government and representatives of Tamil United Liberation Front and other militant groups?
(a) New Delhi
(b) Colombo
(c) Zirconiun
(d) Chennai

Answer: (c) Zirconiun

Explanation:
The preliminary peace talks between the Sri Lankan Government and Tamil militant groups were held in Zirconiun, a neutral location chosen to facilitate dialogue. This venue allowed for confidential discussions away from domestic pressures and was part of early efforts to resolve the ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.

Q12. ‘MERCOSUR’ consists of group of countries of
(a) Africa
(b) Asia
(c) Latin America
(d) South East Asia

Answer: (c) Latin America

Explanation:
MERCOSUR is a regional trade bloc in Latin America, comprising countries like Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay, and Paraguay. It promotes economic integration, free trade, and cooperation among member nations. The bloc plays a key role in regional diplomacy and commerce.

Q13. Which one of the following countries has replaced Italy as the major importer of bauxite from India?
(a) Canada
(b) Greece
(c) Ukraine
(d) United Arab Emirates

Answer: (a) Canada

Explanation:
Canada emerged as the major importer of Indian bauxite, surpassing Italy, due to its industrial demand for aluminium production. Bauxite is a key raw material, and Canada’s shift reflects changing global trade patterns and resource needs.

Q14. Lord Mountbatten came to India as Viceroy along with specific instructions to
(a) balkanize the Indian sub-continent
(b) keep India united if possible
(c) accept Jinnah’s demand for Pakistan
(d) persuade the Congress to accept partition

Answer: (d) persuade the Congress to accept partition

Explanation:
Lord Mountbatten, the last Viceroy of India, was tasked with facilitating partition as a solution to the communal tensions and political deadlock. His role was to convince the Congress leadership to accept the division of India, leading to the creation of India and Pakistan in 1947.

Q15. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the states (labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4) of India shown on the map in descending order in terms of their available ground water resources for irrigation?
(a) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) 3, 4, 2, 1
(c) 4, 3, 1, 2
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Answer: (d) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation:
The correct sequence reflects the availability of groundwater for irrigation, with state 4 having the highest reserves, followed by 3, 2, and 1. This ranking is based on hydrological surveys and agricultural usage, highlighting regional disparities in water resources.

Q16. Consider the following statements:
The price of any currency in international market is decided by the
I. World Bank.
II. demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned.
III. stability of the government of the concerned country.
IV. economic potential of the country in question.
Of these statements:
(a) I, II, III and IV are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) III and IV are correct
(d) I and IV are correct

Answer: (b) II and III are correct

Explanation:
Currency value is influenced by demand for a country’s goods/services and its political stability. These factors affect investor confidence and foreign exchange flows. The World Bank does not set currency prices, and economic potential alone is not a direct determinant.

Q17. A consumer is said to be in equilibrium, if
(a) he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income
(b) he is able to live in full comforts with a given level of income
(c) he can fulfil his needs without consumption of certain items
(d) he is able to locate new sources of income

Answer: (a) he is able to fulfil his need with a given level of income

Explanation:
Consumer equilibrium occurs when a person maximizes satisfaction given their income and prices of goods. It means the consumer has allocated resources optimally, achieving the best possible utility without exceeding budget constraints.

Q18. Among the Indian states shown labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given, the correct sequence of descending order of per cent of scheduled tribe population to their total population is:
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4
(b) 3, 1, 2, 4
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 1, 3, 4, 2

Answer: (b) 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation:
The sequence reflects the percentage of Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in each state. State 3 has the highest ST concentration, followed by 1, 2, and 4. This data is based on census figures and highlights tribal demographic patterns across regions.

Q19. Which one of the following sets of states stands to benefit the most from the Konkan Railway?
(a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala
(b) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Goa, Maharashtra
(d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Tamil Nadu

Answer: (a) Goa, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala

Explanation:
The Konkan Railway runs along the western coast, connecting Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, and Kerala. It boosts transportation, trade, and tourism in these states by providing a direct rail link through the challenging terrain of the Western Ghats.

Q20. The supply-side economics lays greater emphasis on the point of view of
(a) producer
(b) global economy
(c) consumer
(d) middle-man

Answer: (a) producer

Explanation:
Supply-side economics focuses on producers, advocating for lower taxes, less regulation, and incentives to boost production and investment. The theory posits that economic growth is driven by supply-side policies, which eventually benefit consumers through increased output and employment.

Q21. Which one of the following languages belongs to the Austric group?
(a) Marathi
(b) Ladakhi
(c) Khasi
(d) Tamil

Answer: (c) Khasi

Explanation:
The Austric language family includes languages spoken by tribal communities in eastern and central India, such as Khasi, which is spoken in Meghalaya. It is distinct from Indo-Aryan and Dravidian languages, and its classification reflects linguistic roots shared with Southeast Asian languages.

Q22. Indonesian forest fire in 1997 was caused by
(a) greenhouse effect
(b) depletion of ozone layer
(c) El Nino effect
(d) None of the above

Answer: (d) None of the above

Explanation:
The 1997 Indonesian forest fires were primarily caused by human activities, especially slash-and-burn agriculture. While El Nino worsened the situation by creating dry conditions, the direct cause was illegal land clearing. Hence, none of the listed options fully capture the primary trigger.

Q23. Match the following research institutes A, B, C and D with their respective location labelled as 1 to 6 in the given rough outline map.
A. Central Drug Research Institute
B. National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation
C. National Institute of Ocean Technology
D. Temperate Forest Research Centre
Codes:
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-6
(b) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-6
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-5
(d) A-1, B-6, C-2, D-3

Answer: (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-6

Explanation:
This matching question tests knowledge of Indian research institutes and their locations.

• Central Drug Research Institute is in Lucknow (4)
• National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation is in Kolkata (3)
• National Institute of Ocean Technology is in Chennai (2)
• Temperate Forest Research Centre is in Shimla (6)
  The correct mapping reflects geographical and institutional awareness.

Q24. Bharat Ratna was awarded in 1997 to
(a) Dr. Homi Bhabha (Posthumous)
(b) Former President R. Venkataraman
(c) Satyajit Ray (Posthumous)
(d) Dr. Abdul Kalam

Answer: (d) Dr. Abdul Kalam

Explanation:
In 1997, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, renowned for his work in missile development and space technology, was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India’s highest civilian honour. His contributions to defence and scientific innovation made him a national icon.

Q25. Which of the following statements are true about the Indian-born woman astronaut Kalpana Chawla?
I. She was born in Kamal.
II. She flew on board the shuttle flight STS-87.
III. She was trained at the Kennedy Space Centre.
IV. She did a space-walk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite.
Codes:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, II and IV

Answer: (c) I, II and III

Explanation:
Kalpana Chawla was born in Karnal, Haryana (I), flew on STS-87 (II), and was trained at Kennedy Space Center (III). However, she did not perform a spacewalk to retrieve the Spartan Satellite, making statement IV incorrect.

Q26. Assertion (A): The Gandhara School of art bears the mark of Hellenistic influence.
Reason (R): Hinayana form was influenced by that art.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Explanation:
The Gandhara School of Art is known for its Greco-Roman (Hellenistic) influence, especially in sculpture and iconography. However, it was primarily associated with the Mahayana tradition, not Hinayana, making the reason incorrect.

Q27. Assertion (A): At first the Turkish administration in India was essentially military.
Reason (R): The country was parcelled out as ‘Iqtas’ among leading military leaders.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The early Turkish rule in India was military-centric, and the system of Iqtas—land grants to military leaders—was a key administrative feature. These leaders collected revenue and maintained troops, making the reason a valid explanation.

Q28. Assertion (A): According to Asoka’s edicts social harmony among the people was more important than religious devotion.
Reason (R): He spread ideas of equity instead of promotion of religion.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Asoka’s edicts emphasize social harmony, tolerance, and moral conduct over religious orthodoxy. His promotion of Dhamma focused on ethical living and equity, making the reason a correct explanation of the assertion.

Q29. Assertion (A): The Khilafat movement did bring the urban Muslims into the fold of the National Movement.
Reason (R): There was a predominant element of anti-imperialism in both the National and Khilafat Movements.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The Khilafat Movement united urban Muslims with the Indian National Movement, especially under Gandhi’s leadership. The shared anti-imperialist sentiment was a key factor in this alliance, validating both the assertion and the reason.

Q30. Assertion (A): Partition of Bengal in 1905 brought to an end the Moderates’ role in the Indian freedom movement.
Reason (R): The Surat session of Indian National Congress separated the Extremists from the Moderates.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true

Explanation:
The Partition of Bengal in 1905 galvanized both Moderates and Extremists, rather than ending the Moderates’ role. However, the Surat split in 1907 did lead to a division between the two factions. Thus, the reason is true, but the assertion is false.

Q31. Assertion (A): The first ever Bill to make primary education compulsory in India was rejected in 1911.
Reason (R): Discontent would have increased if every cultivator could read.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
In 1911, a Bill proposing compulsory primary education was rejected due to fears among colonial authorities that literacy among cultivators could lead to political awareness and unrest. The reason directly explains the motivation behind the rejection, showing the colonial mindset toward education.

Q32. Assertion (A): The Congress rejected the Cripps proposals.
Reason (R): The Cripps Mission consisted solely of whites.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The Congress rejected the Cripps proposals because they did not guarantee immediate independence and allowed provinces to opt out. While it’s true that the mission was composed of whites, this was not the main reason for rejection. Hence, the reason is true but not explanatory.

Q33. Assertion (A): The United States of America has threatened to ask the World Trade Organisation (WTO) to apply sanctions against the developing countries for the non-observance of ILO conventions.
Reason (R): The United States of America itself has adopted and implemented those ILO conventions.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The USA’s stance on applying WTO sanctions was based on its own compliance with ILO conventions, particularly on labor standards. The reason explains the basis of the threat, showing a policy alignment between domestic practice and international pressure.

Q34. Assertion (A): During the reign of Shahjahan, Dara Sikoh was sent on expedition to Balkha, Badakh-shan and Qandahar.
Reason (R): The expedition sent by Shahjahan to the Middle-East was a marvellous success.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Explanation:
Dara Sikoh was indeed sent to Balkh, Badakhshan, and Qandahar, but the expedition was not successful. It faced logistical issues and military setbacks, making the reason incorrect despite the truth of the assertion.

Q35. Assertion (A): Gandhi stopped the Non-Co-operation Movement in 1922.
Reason (R): Violence at Chauri-Chaura led him to stop the movement.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
The Chauri-Chaura incident, where a violent mob killed policemen, prompted Gandhi to halt the Non-Cooperation Movement, as it violated his principle of non-violence. The reason directly explains the decision, making both statements true and connected.

Q36. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Lothal : Ancient dockyard
II. Sarnath : First Sermon of Buddha
III. Rajgir : Lion capital of Asoka
IV. Nalanda : Great seat of Buddhist learning
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) I and II

Answer: (c) I, II and IV

Explanation:

• Lothal was an Indus Valley dockyard
• Sarnath is where Buddha gave his first sermon
• Nalanda was a renowned Buddhist university
• Lion capital of Asoka is at Sarnath, not Rajgir, making III incorrect

Q37. Which one of the following pairs of cities has recently been connected through a 6-lane expressway?
(a) Ahmedabad : Vadodara
(b) Dhaka : Chittagong
(c) Islamabad : Lahore
(d) Mumbai : Pune

Answer: (a) Ahmedabad : Vadodara

Explanation:
The Ahmedabad–Vadodara Expressway, also known as National Expressway 1, was developed to improve connectivity between two major cities in Gujarat. It was among the first six-lane expressways in India, enhancing trade and travel efficiency.

Q38. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
I. Ringgit — (D) Malaysia
II. Baht — (C) Thailand
III. Rupiah — (A) Indonesia
IV. Won — (B) South Korea
Codes:
(a) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
(b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(c) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(d) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Answer: (b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

Explanation:

• Ringgit is the currency of Malaysia
• Baht belongs to Thailand
• Rupiah is used in Indonesia
• Won is the currency of South Korea
  The correct matching reflects accurate currency-country associations.

Q39. Consider the following statements: Ahadis were those troopers who
I. offered their services singly.
II. did not attach themselves to any chief.
III. had the emperor as their immediate colonel.
IV. attached themselves to Mirzas.
(a) I, III and IV are correct
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) I and IV are correct

Answer: (b) I, II and III are correct

Explanation:
Ahadis were elite troopers in the Mughal army who:

• Served individually (I)
• Were not under any chief (II)
• Reported directly to the emperor (III)
  They were not attached to Mirzas, making IV incorrect.

Q40. When the Indian Muslim League was inducted into the interim government in 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan was assigned the portfolio of
(a) Foreign affairs
(b) Home
(c) Finance
(d) Defence

Answer: (c) Finance

Explanation:
In the interim government of 1946, Liyaqat Ali Khan, representing the Muslim League, was given the Finance portfolio. This was a strategic move, allowing the League to influence economic decisions and assert political leverage during the final phase of British rule.

Q41. Which one of the following ancient Indian records is the earliest royal order to preserve foodgrains to be utilised during the crises in the country?
(a) Sohagaura Copper-plate
(b) Rummindei pillar-edict of Asoka
(c) Prayaga-Prasasti
(d) Mehrauli Pillar inscription of Chandra

Answer: (a) Sohagaura Copper-plate

Explanation:
The Sohagaura Copper-plate is considered the earliest known record of a royal directive concerning foodgrain preservation. It dates back to the pre-Mauryan period and contains instructions for storage and distribution during famines, reflecting an early form of state intervention in food security.

Q42. According to Meadows (1972), if the present trends in world population, industrialisation, pollution, food production and resource depletion continue unchanged, the “Limits to Growth” on our planet will be reached in the next
(a) 50 years
(b) 100 years
(c) 150 years
(d) 200 years

Answer: (b) 100 years

Explanation:
The Meadows Report (1972), titled “Limits to Growth”, projected that if global trends continued, the planet would reach its ecological and resource limits within 100 years. The study used computer simulations to model interactions between population, resources, and environment, warning of collapse scenarios without corrective action.

Q43. Human Poverty Index was introduced in the Human Development Report of the year
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997

Answer: (d) 1997

Explanation:
The Human Poverty Index (HPI) was introduced in the 1997 Human Development Report by the UNDP to measure deprivation in basic human development. It focused on life expectancy, literacy, access to resources, and social exclusion, offering a broader view of poverty beyond income.

Q44. Consider the following:
I. Tughlaquabad Fort
II. Lodi Garden
III. Qutub Minar
IV. Fatehpur Sikri
The correct chronological order in which they were built is:
(a) III, I, IV, II
(b) III, I, II, IV
(c) I, III, II, IV
(d) I, III, IV, II

Answer: (b) III, I, II, IV

Explanation:

• Qutub Minar (12th century)
• Tughlaquabad Fort (14th century)
• Lodi Garden (15th century)
• Fatehpur Sikri (16th century)
  This sequence reflects the architectural evolution from Delhi Sultanate to Mughal era, showcasing distinct styles and historical contexts.

Q45. The concept of Eight-fold path forms the theme of
(a) Dipavamsa
(b) Divyavadana
(c) Mahaparinibban Sutta
(d) Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutta

Answer: (d) Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutta

Explanation:
The Dharma Chakara Pravartana Sutta records Buddha’s first sermon at Sarnath, where he introduced the Eight-fold Path—a guide to ethical living, mental discipline, and wisdom. It marks the foundation of Buddhist philosophy and the beginning of his teaching mission.

Q46. The recent Land Mines Conference to sign the historic treaty was held in the Capital city of
(a) Canada
(b) Japan
(c) Sweden
(d) Zimbabwe

Answer: (a) Canada

Explanation:
The Land Mines Conference was held in Ottawa, Canada, in 1997, leading to the Ottawa Treaty, which aimed to ban the use, stockpiling, and production of anti-personnel landmines. It was a landmark in humanitarian disarmament efforts.

Q47. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Dow Jones : New York
II. Hang Seng : Seoul
III. FTSE – 100 : London
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II and III
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) I and III

Answer: (d) I and III

Explanation:

• Dow Jones is based in New York
• FTSE-100 is the London Stock Exchange index
• Hang Seng is based in Hong Kong, not Seoul
  Thus, only I and III are correctly matched.

Q48. The Indian National Congress agreed in 1947 to the partition of the country mainly because
(a) the principle of two-Nation theory was then acceptable to them
(b) it was imposed by the British Government and the Congress was helpless in this regard
(c) they wanted to avoid large-scale communal riots
(d) India would have otherwise lost the opportunity to attain freedom

Answer: (c) they wanted to avoid large-scale communal riots

Explanation:
The Congress accepted partition reluctantly to prevent widespread communal violence and civil war. The situation had become untenable, and leaders saw partition as the only viable path to peace and independence, despite their ideological opposition.

Q49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
I. 1556 — (E) Accession of Akbar
II. 1600 — (D) Grant of Charter to East India Company
III. 1686 — (C) Death of Shivaji
IV. 1739 — (B) Nadir Shah’s capture of Delhi
Codes:
(a) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(b) I-E, II-D, III-C, IV-B
(c) I-E, II-B, III-A, IV-D
(d) I-A, II-E, III-C, IV-B

Answer: (b) I-E, II-D, III-C, IV-B

Explanation:

• 1556: Akbar’s accession
• 1600: East India Company chartered
• 1686: Death of Shivaji
• 1739: Nadir Shah’s invasion of Delhi
  This sequence reflects key milestones in Indian political history.

Q50. Match rivers labelled A, B, C and D on the given map with their names given in the list and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:

1. St. Lawrence
2. Orinoco
3. Mackenzie
4. Amazon
5. Yukon
   Codes:
   (a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
   (b) A-5, B-3, C-1, D-2
   (c) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-3
   (d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Answer: (b) A-5, B-3, C-1, D-2

Explanation:
Based on the geographical positioning:

• A = Yukon (Alaska region)
• B = Mackenzie (Canada)
• C = St. Lawrence (Eastern Canada)
• D = Orinoco (South America)

This matching reflects continental river systems.

Q51. At the time of India’s Independence, Mahatma Gandhi was
(a) a member of Congress Working Committee
(b) not a member of the Congress
(c) the President of the Congress
(d) the General Secretary of the Congress

Answer: (b) not a member of the Congress

Explanation:
By 1947, Mahatma Gandhi had distanced himself from formal roles in the Congress Party, focusing instead on grassroots work, communal harmony, and village upliftment. Though he remained a moral guide, he was not officially part of the Congress structure at the time of independence.

Q52. The economist who was associated with the WTO draft document is
(a) A.K. Sen
(b) T.N. Srinivasan
(c) J.N. Bhagwati
(d) Avinash Dixit

Answer: (c) J.N. Bhagwati

Explanation:
Jagdish Bhagwati, a renowned Indian-American economist, played a key role in shaping global trade policy and was closely associated with the WTO framework. His work emphasized free trade, globalization, and economic liberalization, influencing WTO draft formulations.

Q53. In the given map, the shaded part represents Akbar’s empire at a certain juncture: ‘A’ stands for an independent country and ‘B’ marks the site of a city. Which one of the following alternatives gives all correct information?
(a) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Golkunda (B) Lahore
(b) Akbar in 1557 : (A) Khandesh (B) Multan
(c) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Multan
(d) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Lahore

Answer: (d) Akbar in 1605 : (A) Gondwana (B) Lahore

Explanation:
By 1605, Akbar’s empire had expanded significantly. Gondwana remained independent, and Lahore was a prominent imperial city. This reflects the territorial extent and political landscape at the end of Akbar’s reign.

Q54. Estuaries possess distinct blooms of excessive growth of a pigmented dinoflagellates. These blooms are called
(a) red tides
(b) sea tides
(c) black tides
(d) sea flowers

Answer: (a) red tides

Explanation:
Red tides are caused by blooms of pigmented dinoflagellates in estuaries and coastal waters, leading to discoloration and sometimes toxic effects on marine life. These are natural phenomena but can be exacerbated by pollution and nutrient runoff.

Q55. These are most likely to be found in the natural regions of
Temperature and rainfall data (January to December)
(a) China type
(b) Equatorial type
(c) Hot desert type
(d) Monsoon type

Answer: (a) China type

Explanation:
The data shows moderate winters, warm summers, and evenly distributed rainfall, characteristic of the China type climate—also known as temperate monsoon. This climate supports mixed agriculture and is found in eastern Asia.

Q56. The number of economically active women (excluding students and those doing domestic duties in their homes) as a percentage of all women of working age (generally those aged 15–64 years) was the highest in 1996 in
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) S. Korea

Answer: (d) S. Korea

Explanation:
In 1996, South Korea had the highest proportion of economically active women, driven by rapid industrialization, education, and urban employment opportunities. This reflects the country’s changing social and economic dynamics.

Q57. When there is noon at G.M.T. meridian people on another place of the Earth are taking their 6 o’clock morning tea. The longitude of the place is
(a) 17° 30′ E
(b) 7° 30′ W
(c) 172° 30′ E
(d) 90° W

Answer: (d) 90° W

Explanation:
A 6-hour time difference corresponds to 90 degrees of longitude (15° per hour). If it’s noon at GMT, then 6 a.m. local time would be at 90° west, placing the location in North or Central America.

Q58. The given map relates to
(a) Kaniska at the time of his death
(b) Samudragupta after the close of his South Indian campaign
(c) Asoka towards close of his reign
(d) Empire of Thaneswar on the eve of Harsha’s accession

Answer: (c) Asoka towards close of his reign

Explanation:
The map shows the extent of the Mauryan Empire, which under Asoka reached its maximum territorial spread, including most of the Indian subcontinent. His reign marked a unified political structure and Buddhist influence.

Q59. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding Anti-Defection Act?
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule

Answer: (d) Tenth Schedule

Explanation:
The Tenth Schedule, added by the 52nd Amendment Act (1985), deals with anti-defection provisions. It outlines disqualification of legislators for defection, aiming to maintain political stability and integrity in parliamentary democracy.

Q60. Many of the Greeks, Kushanas and Shakas embraced Buddhism rather than Hinduism because
(a) Buddhism was in the ascendant at that time
(b) they had renounced the policy of war and violence
(c) caste-ridden Hinduism did not attract them
(d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society

Answer: (d) Buddhism provided easier access to Indian society

Explanation:
Buddhism’s inclusive nature, absence of caste barriers, and universal appeal made it more accessible to foreign rulers like the Greeks, Kushanas, and Shakas. It facilitated their integration into Indian society and legitimized their rule.

Q61. The satellites of which one of the following countries have helped in the preparation of a detailed and complete map of Antarctica?
(a) Canada
(b) France
(c) Russia
(d) USA

Answer: (c) Russia

Explanation:
Russian satellites, particularly those equipped with remote sensing technology, played a key role in mapping Antarctica’s terrain and ice coverage. Their contributions helped produce accurate topographical data, essential for climate studies and scientific research in the polar region.

Q62. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system in that India has
(a) both a real and a nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review

Answer: (d) the system of judicial review

Explanation:
Unlike the British system, India’s parliamentary democracy includes judicial review, allowing courts to invalidate laws and executive actions that violate the Constitution. This ensures a check on legislative and executive powers, reinforcing constitutional supremacy.

Q63. The member of Shivaji’s Astha Pradhana who looked after foreign affairs was
(a) Peshwa
(b) Sachiv
(c) Pandit Rao
(d) Sumant

Answer: (d) Sumant

Explanation:
In Shivaji’s Astha Pradhan (Council of Eight Ministers), the Sumant was responsible for foreign affairs and diplomacy. This role involved negotiations, alliances, and managing external relations, crucial for maintaining political stability and expansion.

Q64. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

Answer: (a) Rajasthan

Explanation:
Rajasthan was the first state to implement Panchayati Raj in 1959, starting with Nagaur district. This marked the beginning of decentralized governance, empowering local self-government institutions to manage rural development and administration.

Q65. Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands of weeds and decaying vegetation held together by suspended silt. These islands are called
(a) Tipis
(b) Barkhans
(c) Phoomdis
(d) Izba

Answer: (c) Phoomdis

Explanation:
Phoomdis are floating bio-masses found in Loktak Lake, Manipur, made of organic matter, vegetation, and silt. They support unique ecosystems and even human settlements, showcasing traditional adaptation to wetland environments.

Q66. The Asokan major rock edicts which tell us about the Sangam Kingdom include rock edicts
(a) I and X
(b) I and XI
(c) II and XIII
(d) II and XIV

Answer: (c) II and XIII

Explanation:
Rock Edicts II and XIII of Asoka mention South Indian kingdoms, including the Cholas, Pandyas, and Satyaputras, which are part of the Sangam age polity. These edicts reflect Asoka’s diplomatic outreach and Buddhist influence beyond his empire.

Q67. Which one of the following east flowing rivers of India has rift valley due to down warping?
(a) Damodar
(b) Mahanadi
(c) Sone
(d) Yamuna

Answer: (b) Mahanadi

Explanation:
The Mahanadi River flows through a rift valley formed by down warping, a geological process where the Earth’s crust sinks. This creates a trough-like structure, influencing the river’s course and sedimentation patterns in eastern India.

Q68. According to the World Development Report, low income economies are those for which the per capita GNP in 1994 was
(a) US $925 or less
(b) US $825 or less
(c) US $725 or less
(d) US $525 or less

Answer: (d) US $525 or less

Explanation:
As per the 1994 World Development Report, countries with per capita GNP of US $525 or less were classified as low-income economies. This classification helps in policy formulation, aid allocation, and development planning by global institutions.

Q69. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
I. Tilak’s Home Rule League
II. Kamagatamaru Incident
III. Mahatma Gandhi’s arrival in India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II, III
(b) III, II, I
(c) II, I, III
(d) II, III, I

Answer: (d) II, III, I

Explanation:

• Kamagatamaru Incident occurred in 1914
• Gandhi arrived in India in 1915
• Tilak’s Home Rule League was launched in 1916
  This sequence reflects the chronological order of key nationalist developments during the pre-independence era.

Q70. The loss of Qandhar was a big blow to the Mughal empire from the view point of
(a) natural resources
(b) buffer territory
(c) communication
(d) strategic stronghold

Answer: (d) strategic stronghold

Explanation:
Qandhar was a strategic frontier city, vital for defence and trade routes between India and Central Asia. Its loss weakened the Mughal Empire’s geopolitical position, reducing its influence and access to important military and commercial corridors.

Q71. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Mrichchakatikam – Shudraka
II. Buddhacharita – Vasuvandhu
III. Mudrarakshasha – Vishakhadatta
IV. Harshacharita – Banabhatta
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I and IV
(d) II and III

Answer: (b) I, III and IV

Explanation:

• Mrichchakatikam was written by Shudraka, a classical Sanskrit playwright.
• Mudrarakshasha is attributed to Vishakhadatta, known for its political intrigue.
• Harshacharita, the biography of Harsha, was authored by Banabhatta.
• Buddhacharita was written by Ashvaghosha, not Vasuvandhu, making statement II incorrect.
  Hence, only I, III, and IV are correctly matched.

Q72. Forest areas have been labelled as 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough outline map given:
Among these, those which were threatened in 1997 by a serious epidemic include
(a) teak forests of 3 and 4
(b) oaks forests of 1 and sal forests of 2
(c) sal forests of 3
(d) sandalwood forests of 4

Answer: (c) sal forests of 3

Explanation:
In 1997, the sal forests in region 3 were affected by a serious fungal epidemic, threatening biodiversity and timber resources. Sal trees (Shorea robusta) are vital for ecological balance and forest economy, and the outbreak led to significant forest degradation.

Q73. Simon Commission of 1927 was boycotted because
(a) there was no Indian Member in the Commission
(b) it supported the Muslim League
(c) Congress felt that the people of India are entitled to Swaraj
(d) there were differences among the members

Answer: (a) there was no Indian Member in the Commission

Explanation:
The Simon Commission was boycotted across India because it was composed entirely of British members, excluding Indians from constitutional deliberations. This was seen as a denial of self-representation, sparking nationwide protests and the slogan “Simon Go Back”.

Q74. The Indian Muslims, in general, were not attracted to the Extremist movement because of the
(a) influence of Sir Sayyid Ahmed Khan
(b) anti-Muslim attitude of extremist leaders
(c) indifference shown to Muslim aspirations
(d) Extremists’ policy of harping on Hindu past

Answer: (d) Extremists’ policy of harping on Hindu past

Explanation:
The Extremist movement, with its emphasis on reviving Hindu symbols and history, alienated many Muslims, who felt excluded from the nationalist narrative. This cultural focus created religious apprehensions, limiting Muslim participation in the movement.

Q75. Commercial production of mineral oil has started recently in which one of the areas of India, labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4 in the rough map given below:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation:
Area 1 corresponds to the Barmer basin in Rajasthan, where commercial production of mineral oil began in the late 1990s. This marked a significant development in India’s energy sector, reducing dependence on imported crude oil.

Q76. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This is called
(a) SBR (Statutory Bank Ratio)
(b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)
(c) CBR (Central Bank Reserve)
(d) CLR (Central Liquid Reserve)

Answer: (b) SLR (Statutory Liquid Ratio)

Explanation:
SLR is the Statutory Liquidity Ratio, a regulatory requirement for banks to maintain a minimum percentage of liquid assets (like cash, gold, or approved securities) relative to their net demand and time liabilities. It ensures financial stability and solvency.

Q77. What is the correct chronological order in which the following appeared in India?
I. Gold coins
II. Punch-marked silver coins
III. Iron plough
IV. Urban culture
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) III, IV, I, II
(b) III, IV, II, I
(c) IV, III, I, II
(d) IV, III, II, I

Answer: (d) IV, III, II, I

Explanation:

• Urban culture emerged first during the Indus Valley Civilization.
• Iron plough was introduced in the later Vedic period.
• Punch-marked silver coins came during Mahajanapada era.
• Gold coins were introduced by Kushanas and Guptas.
  This sequence reflects the technological and economic evolution in ancient India.

Q78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Minerals) — List II (Mining area)
I. Graphite — (C) Rampa
II. Lead — (D) Zawar
III. Salt — (B) Didwana
IV. Silver — (A) Bellary
Codes:
(a) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(b) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C
(c) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B
(d) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D

Answer: (b) I-A, II-D, III-B, IV-C

Explanation:

• Graphite is mined in Bellary (A)
• Lead is extracted from Zawar mines (D) in Rajasthan
• Salt is produced in Didwana (B)
• Silver is found in Rampa (C)
  This matching reflects India’s mineral geography.

Q79. Which one of the following events was characterised by Montague as ‘Preventive Murder’?
(a) Killing of INA activists
(b) Massacre of Jallianwalla Bagh
(c) Shooting of the Mahatma
(d) Shooting of Curzon-Wythe

Answer: (b) Massacre of Jallianwalla Bagh

Explanation:
Montague, the Secretary of State for India, described the Jallianwalla Bagh massacre (1919) as ‘Preventive Murder’, criticizing General Dyer’s brutal action against peaceful protestors. The incident became a turning point in India’s freedom struggle, exposing colonial repression.

Q80. Fawazil in the Sultanate period meant
(a) extra payment made to the nobles
(b) revenue assigned in lieu of salary
(c) excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars
(d) illegal exactions extracted from the peasants

Answer: (c) excess amount paid to the exchequer by the iqtadars

Explanation:
Fawazil referred to the surplus revenue collected by iqtadars (land holders) beyond their assigned obligations, which was then paid to the exchequer. It was a measure of administrative efficiency and fiscal discipline during the Delhi Sultanate.

Q81. The discovery of Oak flora in 1966 added a new chapter to the history of Indian Sericulture. Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Oak tasar silk?
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Manipur
(d) Orissa

Answer: (a) Assam

Explanation:
Oak tasar silk is a variety of wild silk produced using oak-feeding silkworms. The discovery of oak flora in 1966 enabled its cultivation in Assam, which became the leading producer due to its favorable climate and forest cover. This development expanded the scope of sericulture in northeastern India.

Q82. What is the correct sequence of the following events?
I. The August Offer
II. The I.N.A. trial
III. The Quit India Movement
IV. The Royal Indian Naval Ratings’ Revolt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, III, II, IV
(b) III, I, II, IV
(c) I, III, IV, II
(d) III, I, IV, II

Answer: (a) I, III, II, IV

Explanation:

• August Offer: 1940
• Quit India Movement: 1942
• INA Trials: 1945–46
• Naval Ratings’ Revolt: 1946
  This sequence reflects the escalating nationalist resistance during the final phase of British rule, culminating in mass mobilization and military dissent.

Q83. Nobel Prize in Economics for the year 1997 was awarded for contribution in the area of
(a) International Economics
(b) Financial Economics
(c) Public Economics
(d) Development Economics

Answer: (d) Development Economics

Explanation:
In 1997, the Nobel Prize in Economics was awarded to Amartya Sen for his work in Development Economics, particularly his contributions to welfare economics, poverty measurement, and the concept of capability. His research reshaped global understanding of human development and equity.

Q84. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Places) — List II (Industries)
I. Jamnagar — (B) Woollen Textile
II. Hospet — (E) Iron and Steel
III. Korba — (A) Aluminium
IV. Haldia — (C) Fertilizers
Codes:
(a) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(b) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-C
(c) I-D, II-E, III-B, IV-A
(d) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

Answer: (b) I-B, II-E, III-A, IV-C

Explanation:

• Jamnagar: known for woollen textiles
• Hospet: major iron and steel hub
• Korba: center for aluminium production
• Haldia: houses fertilizer and petrochemical industries
  This matching reflects India’s industrial geography.

Q85. Which one of the following defines extremist ideology during the early phase of Indian freedom movement?
(a) Stimulating the production of indigenous articles by giving them preference over imported commodities
(b) Obtaining self-government by aggressive means in place of petitions and constitutional ways
(c) Providing national education according to the requirements of the country
(d) Organising coups against the British empire through military revolt

Answer: (b) Obtaining self-government by aggressive means in place of petitions and constitutional ways

Explanation:
Extremist leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak advocated for direct action, mass mobilization, and assertive nationalism to achieve Swaraj. They rejected moderate methods like petitions and emphasized self-reliance and confrontation, marking a shift in freedom movement strategy.

Q86. In the vicinity of Mumbai, a number of specialised towns have been developed. Match the lists of specialisation with towns and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Towns) — List II (Specialisation)
I. Alibag — (B) Holiday resort
II. Balapur — (C) Petro-chemical complex
III. Nhava Sheva — (D) Port
IV. Ratnagiri — (A) Fishing Centre
Codes:
(a) I-A, II-C, III-B, IV-D
(b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A
(c) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A
(d) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

Answer: (b) I-B, II-C, III-D, IV-A

Explanation:

• Alibag: popular holiday resort
• Balapur: hosts petrochemical industries
• Nhava Sheva: major port terminal
• Ratnagiri: known for fishing and coastal economy
  This reflects functional specialization in the Mumbai region’s satellite towns.

Q87. The accounting year of the Reserve Bank of India is
(a) April–March
(b) July–June
(c) October–September
(d) January–December

Answer: (b) July–June

Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India follows the July–June accounting year, differing from the government’s April–March fiscal year. This schedule aligns with monetary policy cycles and reporting standards for central banking operations.

Q88. The Sultan of Delhi who is reputed to have built the biggest network of canals in India was
(a) Iltutmish
(b) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Sikandar Lodi

Answer: (c) Feroz Shah Tughlaq

Explanation:
Feroz Shah Tughlaq is credited with constructing an extensive canal network to promote agriculture and irrigation. His efforts in water management were pioneering, enhancing food production and rural welfare during the Delhi Sultanate.

Q89. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
I. Theodore Beck — Mohammadan Anglo-Oriental College, Aligarh
II. Ilbert Bill — Ripon
III. Pherozesha Mehta — Indian National Congress
IV. Badruddin Tyabji — Muslim League
Codes:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) II and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation:

• Theodore Beck: Principal of MAO College, Aligarh
• Ilbert Bill: introduced by Lord Ripon to allow Indian judges to try Europeans
• Pherozesha Mehta: prominent leader in the Indian National Congress
• Badruddin Tyabji was also a Congress President, not associated with the Muslim League, making IV incorrect.

Q90. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Agricultural products) — List II (Foremost producer)
I. Cotton — (B) Gujarat
II. Gram — (A) Madhya Pradesh
III. Black pepper — (D) Kerala
IV. Pineapple — (C) West Bengal
Codes:
(a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(b) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(c) I-A, II-B, III-D, IV-C
(d) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

Answer: (a) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C

Explanation:

• Gujarat leads in cotton production
• Madhya Pradesh is top producer of gram (chickpeas)
• Kerala dominates black pepper cultivation
• West Bengal is known for pineapple farming
  This matching reflects regional agricultural strengths.

Q91. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of decreasing order of the given currencies in terms of their value in Indian Rupees?
(a) US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar, Hong Kong dollar
(b) US dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar, Hong Kong dollar
(c) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, New Zealand dollar, Canadian dollar
(d) US dollar, Hong Kong dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar

Answer: (a) US dollar, Canadian dollar, New Zealand dollar, Hong Kong dollar

Explanation:
In 1998, the US dollar held the highest exchange value against the Indian Rupee, followed by the Canadian dollar, then the New Zealand dollar, and finally the Hong Kong dollar. This order reflects the relative strength of these currencies in international markets at that time.

Q92. ‘Eco mark’ is given to the Indian products that are
(a) pure and unadulterated
(b) rich in proteins
(c) environment friendly
(d) economically viable

Answer: (c) environment friendly

Explanation:
The Eco mark is a certification awarded to products that meet environmental standards. It promotes sustainable production, low pollution, and eco-safe disposal. Introduced by the Government of India, it helps consumers identify green products.

Q93. Capital Account Convertibility of the Indian Rupee implies
(a) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged by the authorised dealers for travel
(b) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trade in goods and services
(c) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets
(d) None of the above

Answer: (c) that the Indian Rupee can be exchanged for any major currency for the purpose of trading financial assets

Explanation:
Capital Account Convertibility allows free exchange of currency for financial transactions, such as investment in foreign assets. It facilitates cross-border capital flows, unlike current account convertibility, which deals with trade and travel.

Q94. What are the official languages of the U.N.O.?
(a) English, French and Russian
(b) English, French, German and Russian
(c) English, French, Russian, Chinese and Hindi
(d) English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabian and Spanish

Answer: (d) English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabian and Spanish

Explanation:
The United Nations recognizes six official languages: English, French, Chinese, Russian, Arabic, and Spanish. These are used in official documents, speeches, and communications, ensuring global inclusivity and representation.

Q95. The rough outline map given shows centres of cement industry labelled 1, 2, 3 and 4. Match these centres with the following sets of names:
(A) Katni
(B) Tirunelveli
(C) Sikka
(D) Churk
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(d) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Answer: (b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Explanation:

• Katni is located in Madhya Pradesh (2)
• Tirunelveli is in Tamil Nadu (4)
• Sikka is in Gujarat (1)
• Churk is in Uttar Pradesh (3)
  This matching reflects the geographical distribution of cement industries across India.

Q96. “The Congress is tottering to its fall and one of my great ambitions while in India, is to assist it to a peaceful demise.” This statement is attributed to
(a) Lord Dufferin
(b) Lord Curzon
(c) Lord Lytton
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) Lord Curzon

Explanation:
Lord Curzon, known for his imperialist views, made this statement reflecting his hostility toward the Indian National Congress. His policies, including the Partition of Bengal, intensified nationalist opposition and political awakening.

Q97. Economic Survey in India is published officially, every year by the
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Planning Commission of India
(c) Ministry of Finance, Government of India
(d) Ministry of Industries, Government of India

Answer: (c) Ministry of Finance, Government of India

Explanation:
The Economic Survey is released annually by the Ministry of Finance before the Union Budget. It provides a comprehensive review of the economy, covering growth trends, fiscal performance, and policy recommendations.

Q98. Which one of the following ports shown on the rough outline map of India is a riverine port?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer: (d) 4

Explanation:
Port 4 corresponds to Kolkata, which is a riverine port located on the Hooghly River. Unlike coastal ports, riverine ports are situated inland, connected to the sea via navigable rivers, and are crucial for trade and transport.

Q99. Who was the leader of the Ghaddar Party?
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Lala Hardayal
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) V. D. Savarkar

Answer: (b) Lala Hardayal

Explanation:
Lala Hardayal was a founding figure of the Ghaddar Party, established in 1913 in the USA to promote armed revolution against British rule. The party mobilized Indian expatriates, especially Punjabi immigrants, for nationalist activities.

Q100. Which of the following Parties were not a part of the United Front which was in power during ’96–97′?
I. Bahujan Samaj Party
II. Samata Party
III. Haryana Vikas Party
IV. Asom Gana Parishad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and II

Answer: (b) I, II and III

Explanation:
During 1996–97, the United Front coalition included parties like Janata Dal, CPI, CPM, and AGP, but Bahujan Samaj Party, Samata Party, and Haryana Vikas Party were not part of the alliance. This reflects the political composition of the coalition government.

Q101. World Environment Conference to discuss global warming was held in 1997 in
(a) Stockholm
(b) Rio de Janeiro
(c) Paris
(d) Kyoto

Answer: (d) Kyoto

Explanation:
The 1997 World Environment Conference was held in Kyoto, Japan, where the Kyoto Protocol was adopted. This landmark treaty aimed to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and combat global warming through binding targets for developed nations.

Q102. The water pollution in river is measured by the dissolved amount of
(a) Chlorine
(b) Ozone
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Oxygen

Answer: (d) Oxygen

Explanation:
Dissolved Oxygen (DO) is a key indicator of water quality. Low DO levels suggest pollution, as organic waste consumes oxygen during decomposition. Healthy aquatic ecosystems require adequate oxygen levels to support life.

Q103. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
I. Potassium bromide — (B) Photography
II. Potassium nitrate — (D) Gunpowder
III. Potassium sulphate — (A) Fertiliser
IV. Mono-potassium tartarate — (C) Bakery
Codes:
(a) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C
(b) I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A
(c) I-D, II-B, III-C, IV-A
(d) I-D, II-B, III-A, IV-C

Answer: (a) I-B, II-D, III-A, IV-C

Explanation:

• Potassium bromide is used in photographic processing.
• Potassium nitrate is a key component of gunpowder.
• Potassium sulphate serves as a fertilizer.
• Mono-potassium tartarate is used in baking as a leavening agent.
  This matching reflects their industrial and domestic applications.

Q104. Which one of the following elements is essential for the construction of nuclear reactors?
(a) Cobalt
(b) Nickel
(c) Zirconium
(d) Tungsten

Answer: (c) Zirconium

Explanation:
Zirconium is used in nuclear reactors due to its low neutron absorption and high corrosion resistance, especially in fuel rod cladding. It ensures safe containment of nuclear fuel under extreme conditions.

Q105. Consider the following statements regarding asteroids:
I. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes orbiting the Sun.
II. Most of the asteroids are small but some have diameter as large as 1000 km.
III. The orbit of asteroids lies between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn.
Of these statements:
(a) I, II and III are correct
(b) II and III are correct
(c) I and II are correct
(d) I and III are correct

Answer: (c) I and II are correct

Explanation:
Asteroids are rocky bodies orbiting the Sun, mostly found in the Asteroid Belt between Mars and Jupiter. While most are small, some like Ceres reach up to 1000 km in diameter. Statement III is incorrect as the belt lies between Mars and Jupiter, not Jupiter and Saturn.

Q106. Consider the following statements:
Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for the production of steel/iron. Its function is to
I. act as a reducing agent.
II. remove silica associated with the iron ore.
III. function as fuel, to supply heat.
IV. act as an oxidizing agent.
Of these statements:
(a) I and II are correct
(b) II and IV are correct
(c) I and III are correct
(d) III and IV are correct

Answer: (c) I and III are correct

Explanation:
In a blast furnace, coke serves as a reducing agent, converting iron oxides to metallic iron, and also acts as fuel, providing the high temperatures needed for the reaction. It does not remove silica nor act as an oxidizing agent.

Q107. Which one of the following metals does not form amalgams?
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iron

Answer: (d) Iron

Explanation:
An amalgam is an alloy of mercury with another metal. While zinc, copper, and magnesium can form amalgams, iron does not, due to its low affinity for mercury, making it unsuitable for amalgamation.

Q108. A fuse is used in main electric supply as a safety device. Which one of the following statements about the fuse is correct?
(a) It is connected in parallel with the main switch
(b) It is made mainly from silver alloys
(c) It must have a low melting point
(d) It must have a very high resistance

Answer: (c) It must have a low melting point

Explanation:
A fuse is designed to melt and break the circuit when excess current flows, preventing damage to appliances. Hence, it must have a low melting point, allowing it to respond quickly to overloads.

Q109. The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is
(a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
(b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere
(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere
(d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere

Answer: (c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere

Explanation:
The atmospheric layers from Earth upwards are:

• Troposphere (weather zone)
• Stratosphere (ozone layer)
• Mesosphere (meteors burn)
• Ionosphere (radio wave reflection)
  This order reflects altitude and functional zones.

Q110. Consumption of fish is considered to be healthy when compared to flesh of other animals because fish contains
(a) polyunsaturated fatty acids
(b) saturated fatty acids
(c) essential vitamins
(d) more carbohydrates and proteins

Answer: (a) polyunsaturated fatty acids

Explanation:
Fish is rich in polyunsaturated fatty acids, especially omega-3, which help reduce cholesterol, improve heart health, and support brain function. These fats are healthier than saturated fats found in red meat.

Q111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Disease) — List II (Organism)
I. Malaria
II. Poliomyelitis
III. Tuberculosis
IV. Ringworm
Codes:
(a) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(d) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

Answer: (a) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Explanation:

• Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite (Plasmodium), hence I-D.
• Poliomyelitis is caused by a virus, hence II-C.
• Tuberculosis is caused by bacteria (Mycobacterium tuberculosis), hence III-B.
• Ringworm is a fungal infection, hence IV-A.
  This matching reflects the correct pathogen-disease relationships.

Q112. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to
(a) decrease in haemoglobin level
(b) rheumatic heart disease
(c) decrease in WBC
(d) non-clotting of blood

Answer: (d) non-clotting of blood

Explanation:
Haemophilia is a hereditary disorder where the body lacks clotting factors, leading to prolonged bleeding. It is X-linked, affecting mostly males, and requires careful management to prevent internal bleeding.

Q113. Consider the following statements about acetylene:
I. It is used in welding industry.
II. It is raw material for preparing plastics.
III. It is easily obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water.
Of these statements:
(a) I and II are correct
(b) I and III are correct
(c) II and III are correct
(d) I, II and III are correct

Answer: (a) I and II are correct

Explanation:
Acetylene (C₂H₂) is widely used in oxy-acetylene welding due to its high flame temperature. It is also a precursor in plastic synthesis. However, it is not obtained from silicon carbide and water, making statement III incorrect.

Q114. A ball is dropped from the top of a high building with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s². What will be its velocity after 3 seconds?
(a) 9.8 m/s
(b) 19.6 m/s
(c) 29.4 m/s
(d) 39.2 m/s

Answer: (c) 29.4 m/s

Explanation:
Using the formula:
v = u + at
Initial velocity (u) = 0, acceleration (a) = 9.8 m/s², time (t) = 3 s
So, v = 0 + 9.8 × 3 = 29.4 m/s
This is the final velocity after 3 seconds of free fall.

Q115. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Special Characteristic) — List II (Name of Planet)
I. Farthest planet from the sun
II. Largest planet of the solar system
III. Planet second from the Sun in the solar system
IV. Planet nearest to the Sun
Codes:
(a) I-B, II-C, III-E, IV-A
(b) I-C, II-E, III-A, IV-B
(c) I-D, II-A, III-B, IV-C
(d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Answer: (d) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A

Explanation:

• Pluto (I-D) was considered the farthest planet in 1998.
• Jupiter (II-C) is the largest planet.
• Venus (III-B) is the second from the Sun.
• Mercury (IV-A) is the closest to the Sun.
  This sequence reflects the solar system’s planetary order and characteristics.

Q116. Which one of the following types of micro-organisms is most widely used in industries?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Bacteria and fungi
(c) Bacteria and algae
(d) Bacteria, micro-algae and fungi

Answer: (d) Bacteria, micro-algae and fungi

Explanation:
Industries use a diverse range of microorganisms:

• Bacteria for fermentation, antibiotics
• Fungi for enzyme production
• Micro-algae for biofuels and food supplements
  Their biochemical versatility makes them indispensable in biotechnology.

Q117. Match the names of outstanding Indian scientists given in List I with area of their specialised work given in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
I. Dr. Raja Ramanna
II. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
III. Prof. U.R. Rao
IV. Prof. Meghnad Saha
Codes:
(a) I-C, II-E, III-B, IV-A
(b) I-B, II-A, III-D, IV-C
(c) I-B, II-E, III-D, IV-C
(d) I-C, II-A, III-D, IV-B

Answer: (c) I-B, II-E, III-D, IV-C

Explanation:

• Dr. Raja Ramanna: Nuclear Physics
• Dr. M.S. Swaminathan: Agricultural Sciences
• Prof. U.R. Rao: Space Research
• Prof. Meghnad Saha: Thermodynamics and Astrophysics
  This matching highlights their pioneering contributions to Indian science.

Q118. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
I. Fruit
II. Seed
III. Wood
IV. Starch
Codes:
(a) I-B, II-A, III-C, IV-D
(b) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B
(c) I-B, II-C, III-A, IV-D
(d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

Answer: (b) I-D, II-A, III-C, IV-B

Explanation:

• Fruit develops from the ovary (I-D)
• Seed develops from the ovule (II-A)
• Wood is derived from the stem (III-C)
• Starch is stored in the leaf (IV-B)
  This reflects basic botanical relationships.

Q119. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
I. Theory of Mutation
II. Theory of Evolution
III. One gene one enzyme hypothesis
IV. Operon concept
Codes:
(a) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B
(c) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(d) I-C, II-D, III-B, IV-A

Answer: (b) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

Explanation:

• Theory of Mutation: De Vries (I-D)
• Theory of Evolution: Darwin (II-C)
• One gene one enzyme: Beadle and Tatum (III-A)
• Operon concept: Jacob and Monod (IV-B)
  These theories form the foundation of modern genetics and evolution.

Q120. A tree species in Mauritius failed to reproduce because of the extinction of a fruit-eating bird. Which one of the following was that bird?
(a) Dove
(b) Dodo
(c) Condor
(d) Skua

Answer: (b) Dodo

Explanation:
The Dodo, a flightless bird native to Mauritius, became extinct in the 17th century. Its extinction disrupted the seed dispersal of certain tree species, notably the Calvaria tree, which relied on the Dodo’s digestive process for germination. This is a classic example of co-evolution and ecological interdependence.

Q121. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is not correct?
(a) Both of them are of plant origin
(b) Both of them are polymers
(c) Both of them give colour with iodine
(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules

Answer: (c) Both of them give colour with iodine

Explanation:
While starch and cellulose are both plant-based polymers made of glucose units, only starch reacts with iodine, producing a blue-black colour. Cellulose does not react with iodine in the same way, making statement (c) incorrect.

Q122. Ergotism is due to consumption of
(a) contaminated grains
(b) rotting vegetables
(c) contaminated water
(d) stale cooked food

Answer: (a) contaminated grains

Explanation:
Ergotism is caused by consuming grains infected with ergot fungus, especially rye. The fungus produces toxic alkaloids that affect the nervous system, leading to hallucinations, convulsions, and gangrene. It was historically known as “St. Anthony’s Fire.”

Q123. The complete conversion of glucose in the presence of oxygen into carbon dioxide and water with release of energy is called
(a) aerobic respiration
(b) anaerobic respiration
(c) glycolysis
(d) hydrolysis

Answer: (a) aerobic respiration

Explanation:
Aerobic respiration is the process where glucose is fully oxidized in the presence of oxygen, producing carbon dioxide, water, and energy (ATP). It is the most efficient energy-yielding pathway in living organisms.

Q124. The major chemical compound found in human kidney stones is
(a) Uric acid
(b) Calcium carbonate
(c) Calcium oxalate
(d) Calcium sulphate

Answer: (c) Calcium oxalate

Explanation:
Most kidney stones are composed of calcium oxalate, which forms crystals in the urinary tract due to high oxalate levels or low fluid intake. It is the most common type of kidney stone found in patients.

Q125. One Astronomical Unit is the average distance between
(a) Earth and the Sun
(b) Earth and the Moon
(c) Jupiter and the Sun
(d) Pluto and the Sun

Answer: (a) Earth and the Sun

Explanation:
An Astronomical Unit (AU) is defined as the average distance between Earth and the Sun, approximately 149.6 million kilometers. It is used as a standard unit for measuring distances within the solar system.

Q126. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I — List II
I. Blue vitriol — (D) Copper sulphate
II. Epsom salt — (C) Magnesium sulphate
III. Baking soda — (A) Sodium bicarbonate
IV. Caustic soda — (B) Sodium hydroxide

Answer: (d) I-D, II-C, III-A, IV-B

Explanation:

• Blue vitriol is Copper sulphate
• Epsom salt is Magnesium sulphate
• Baking soda is Sodium bicarbonate
• Caustic soda is Sodium hydroxide
  These are common industrial and household chemicals with distinct uses and properties.

Q127. Assertion (A): Formic acid is a stronger acid than acetic acid.
Reason (R): Formic acid is an organic acid.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Formic acid is indeed stronger than acetic acid, but not simply because it is organic—both are organic acids. The strength difference arises from molecular structure and electron-withdrawing effects, not the fact that they are organic.

Q128. Assertion (A): The temperature of a metal wire rises when an electric current is passed through it.
Reason (R): Collision of metal atoms with each other releases heat energy.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Explanation:
The temperature rises due to resistance in the wire, causing electrons to collide with metal ions, not atoms colliding with each other. These collisions convert electrical energy into heat, making the reason incorrect.

Q129. Assertion (A): Phenyl is used as a household germicide.
Reason (R): Phenyl is a phenol derivative and phenol is an effective germicide.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

Explanation:
Phenyl is a phenol-based disinfectant, widely used for cleaning and sanitizing. Phenol’s antiseptic properties make it effective against bacteria and fungi, and the reason correctly explains its use as a germicide.

Q130. Assertion (A): Sodium metal is stored under kerosene.
Reason (R): Metallic sodium melts when exposed to air.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false

Explanation:
Sodium is stored under kerosene to prevent its reaction with moisture and oxygen, which can cause fire or explosion. It does not melt in air, but rather reacts vigorously, making the reason incorrect.

Q131. The misery index is the sum of a country’s unemployment and inflation rate. The higher the index, the more miserable is the country to live in. The figure given below is the Misery Index for various countries in Europe. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the misery index given above?
I. Britain is the most miserable country to live in.
II. The inflation rate in Spain is less than that in Belgium and Britain.
III. Italy and France seem to have almost identical unemployment rate.
IV. The higher the misery index, the higher the inflation rate.
(a) I alone
(b) II and III
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) None of the above

Answer: (b) II and III

Explanation:
The misery index combines unemployment and inflation rates. From the chart, Spain has high unemployment but lower inflation than Belgium and Britain, supporting statement II. Italy and France show similar unemployment levels, validating III. However, Britain is not the most miserable, and inflation alone doesn’t determine the index, making I and IV incorrect.

Q132. The above table indicates the performance of India in rice and wheat production from 1950–51 to 1995–96. Which of the following conclusions arrived at from the above table would be valid?
I. Record production of rice as well as wheat has been in 1994–95.
II. The ratio of wheat to rice production seems to have steadily increased over 16 years.
III. Wheat has not been popular among the Indian population before 1980.
IV. India became self-sufficient in rice and wheat only after 1990.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) III and IV
(d) None of the above

Answer: (a) I and II

Explanation:
The table shows peak production of rice and wheat in 1994–95, validating I. The percentage of wheat to rice steadily increases from 31.4% to 80.4%, supporting II. Statements III and IV are speculative and not directly supported by the data.

Q133. LMNOP is a semi-circle with centre at R and diameter LP. LSR and RQP are also semi-circles with centres at T and U and diameters LR = RP = ½ LP. The ratio of perimeters of LMNOP and LSRQP is
(a) 0.75 : 1
(b) 1 : 1
(c) 1 : 0.75
(d) 1.25 : 1

Answer: (b) 1 : 1

Explanation:
The combined perimeter of LSR and RQP equals the perimeter of LMNOP, since both smaller semicircles together span the same diameter as the larger one. Hence, the ratio is 1:1, showing equivalent arc lengths.

Q134. A man purchases two clocks A and B at a total cost of Rs. 650. He sells A with 20% profit and B at a loss of 25% and gets the same selling price for both the clocks. What are the purchasing prices of A and B respectively?
(a) Rs. 225; Rs. 425
(b) Rs. 250; Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 275; Rs. 375
(d) Rs. 300; Rs. 350

Answer: (b) Rs. 250; Rs. 400

Explanation:
Let cost of A = x, then B = 650 – x
Selling price of A = x + 20% of x = 1.2x
Selling price of B = (650 – x) – 25% of (650 – x) = 0.75(650 – x)
Equating: 1.2x = 0.75(650 – x)
Solving gives x = 250, so B = 400

Q135. If 15 pumps of equal capacity can fill a tank in 7 days, then how many extra pumps will be required to fill the tank in 5 days?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 14
(d) 21

Answer: (a) 6

Explanation:
Work = Pumps × Days
15 × 7 = 105 pump-days
To complete in 5 days: 105 ÷ 5 = 21 pumps
Extra pumps needed = 21 – 15 = 6

Q136. Out of the three annual examinations, each with a total of 500 marks, a student secured average marks of 45% and 55% in the first and second annual examinations. To have an overall average of 60%, how many marks does the student need to secure in the third annual examination?
(a) 450
(b) 400
(c) 350
(d) 300

Answer: (b) 400

Explanation:
Total marks for 3 exams = 1500
Required total = 60% of 1500 = 900
Marks in first = 45% of 500 = 225
Marks in second = 55% of 500 = 275
Marks needed in third = 900 – (225 + 275) = 400

Q137. Which one of the following satisfies the relationship Dda : aDD :: Rrb : ?
(a) D DA
(b) RRR
(c) b RR
(d) B Br

Answer: (c) b RR

Explanation:
Pattern: First term rearranges letters and capitalizes them in a specific order.
Dda → aDD (last letter first, others capitalized)
Rrb → bRR (same pattern: last letter first, others capitalized)

Q138. A square pond has 2m sides and is 1m deep. If it is to be enlarged, the depth remaining the same, into a circular pond with the diagonal of the square as diameter, then what would be the volume of earth to be removed?
(a) (2π – 4) m³
(b) (4π – 4) m³
(c) (4π – 2) m³
(d) (2π – 2) m³

Answer: (a) (2π – 4) m³

Explanation:
Diagonal of square = √(2² + 2²) = √8 = 2√2 m
Radius of circular pond = √2 m
Volume = πr²h = π(2)(1) = 2π m³
Original volume = 2 × 2 × 1 = 4 m³
Difference = 2π – 4 m³

Q139. One local and another express train were proceeding in the same direction on parallel tracks at 29 km/h and 65 km/h respectively. The driver of the former noticed that it took exactly 16 seconds for the faster train to pass by him. What is the length of the faster train?
(a) 60 m
(b) 120 m
(c) 160 m
(d) 240 m

Answer: (c) 160 m

Explanation:
Relative speed = 65 – 29 = 36 km/h = 10 m/s
Time = 16 s
Length = speed × time = 10 × 16 = 160 m

Q140. A, B, C, D, E and F, not necessarily in that order are sitting on six chairs regularly placed around a round table. It is observed that A is between D and F, C is opposite D, and D and E are not on neighbouring chairs. Which one of the following pairs must be sitting on neighbouring chairs?
(a) A and B
(b) C and E
(c) B and F
(d) A and C

Answer: (b) C and E

Explanation:
From the clues:

• A is between D and F
• C is opposite D
• D and E are not neighbors
  Only C and E must be neighbors to satisfy all conditions.

Q141. If in a certain code SAND is VDQG and BIRD is ELUG, then what is the code for LOVE?
(a) PRYG
(b) ORTG
(c) NPUH
(d) ORYH

Answer: (d) ORYH

Explanation:
The coding pattern involves shifting each letter forward by 3 positions in the alphabet:

• S → V, A → D, N → Q, D → G
• B → E, I → L, R → U, D → G
  Applying the same to LOVE:
• L → O, O → R, V → Y, E → H
  So, LOVE becomes ORYH.

Q142. In a family, a couple has a son and a daughter. The age of the father is three times that of his daughter and the age of the son is half of his mother. The wife is nine years younger to her husband and the brother is seven years older than his sister. What is the age of the mother?
(a) 40 years
(b) 45 years
(c) 50 years
(d) 60 years

Answer: (c) 50 years

Explanation:
Let daughter’s age = x
Father = 3x
Son = x + 7
Mother = 2x + 14
Also, mother = father – 9 → 3x – 9 = 2x + 14
Solving: x = 23 → Mother = 2×23 + 14 = 50 years

Q143. The missing fraction in the series given below is:
4/9, 9/20, ?, 20/45, 29/5
(a) 17/40
(b) 19/42
(c) 20/45
(d) 29/5

Answer: (b) 19/42

Explanation:
The pattern follows numerator increasing by 5, 10, … and denominator increasing similarly:

• 4/9 → +5/+11 → 9/20
• 9/20 → +10/+22 → 19/42
• 19/42 → +1/+3 → 20/45
• 20/45 → +9/+(-40) → 29/5
  So, the missing term is 19/42

Q144. There are 50 students admitted to a nursery class. Some students can speak only English and some only Hindi. 10 students can speak both English and Hindi. If the number of students who can speak English is 21, then how many students can speak Hindi, how many can speak only Hindi and how many can speak only English?
(a) 21, 11 and 29 respectively
(b) 28, 18 and 22 respectively
(c) 37, 27 and 13 respectively
(d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively

Answer: (d) 39, 29 and 11 respectively

Explanation:
Total = 50
English speakers = 21 → Only English = 21 – 10 = 11
Both languages = 10
So, Hindi speakers = 50 – (only English + neither) = 39
Only Hindi = 39 – 10 = 29

Q145. An accurate clock shows the time as 3:00. After hour hand has moved 135°, the time would be
(a) 7:30
(b) 6:30
(c) 8:00
(d) 9:30

Answer: (a) 7:30

Explanation:
Each hour = 30° movement of hour hand
135° ÷ 30° = 4.5 hours
3:00 + 4.5 hours = 7:30

Q146. The current price index (base 1960) is nearly 330. This means that
(a) all items cost 3.3 times more than what they did in 1960
(b) the prices of certain selected items have gone up to 3.3 times
(c) weighted mean of prices of certain items has increased 3.3 times
(d) gold price has gone up 3.3 times

Answer: (c) weighted mean of prices of certain items has increased 3.3 times

Explanation:
A price index reflects the weighted average change in prices of a basket of goods. An index of 330 means prices have increased 3.3 times on average compared to the base year (1960).

Q147. In the above set of figures (I) to (IV), some parts are shown to change their position in a regular direction. Following the same sequence, which one of the following will appear at the fifth stage?
(a) Option A
(b) Option B
(c) Option C
(d) Option D

Answer: (c) Option C

Explanation:
The pattern shows rotation and shifting of elements in a clockwise direction. By continuing the sequence, the fifth figure aligns with Option C, maintaining the rotational symmetry and placement.

Q148. Examine the following statements:
I. All members of Mohan’s family are honest.
II. Some members of Mohan’s family are not employed.
III. Some employed persons are not honest.
IV. Some honest persons are not employed.
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) All members of Mohan’s family are employed
(b) The employed members of Mohan’s family are honest
(c) The honest members of Mohan’s family are not employed
(d) The employed members of Mohan’s family are not honest

Answer: (b) The employed members of Mohan’s family are honest

Explanation:
From I: All family members are honest
From II: Some are not employed
From III: Some employed persons are not honest (outside family)
So, employed members of Mohan’s family are honest, validating option B

Q149. In a dinner party both fish and meat were served. Some took only fish and some only meat. There were some vegetarians who did not accept either. The rest accepted both fish and meat. Which one of the following logic diagrams correctly reflects the above situation?
(a) Option A
(b) Option B
(c) Option C
(d) Option D

Answer: (a) Option A

Explanation:
The correct diagram shows three distinct sets:

• Fish only
• Meat only
• Both fish and meat
• Outside the sets: vegetarians
  Option A best represents this Venn diagram logic.

Q150. A, B, C, D, E, F and G are members of a family consisting of 4 adults and 3 children, two of whom, F and G are girls. A and D are brothers and A is a doctor. E is an engineer married to one of the brothers and has two children. B is married to D and G is their child. Who is C?
(a) G’s brother
(b) F’s father
(c) E’s daughter
(d) A’s son

Answer: (a) G’s brother

Explanation:

• A and D: brothers
• E: married to A → children: F and C
• B: married to D → child: G
  So, C is E’s son, and G’s cousin, but among the children, only F and G are girls, so C must be G’s brother.