UPSC Prelims 2021 Question Paper & Solution (free)

Ans: (A)

Solution: 

Option A: Water can dissolve more substances than any other compounds because of its dipolar nature.

Option B: Water is a bad conductor of heat because it lacks free electrons. Hence, Not the correct reason.

Option C: The heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of the substance by either 1^oC or 1 K is called the specific heat of Water. Water has high specific heat but this is not the reason of it being a good solvent.

Option D: Water is an Oxide of Hydrogen but that is not the reason of it being a good solvent.

Ans: (C)

Statement 1: Correct, Sodium vapor lights produce light in all the directions i.e. in 360 degrees, whereas, LEDs  emit light in one direction (over 180 degrees). hence, there are lower losses associated with LEDs.

Statement 2: Incorrect, LEDs have longer life span than the Sodium Lamps.

Statement 3: Correct, Monochromatic light is light (optical radiation) where the optical spectrum contains only a single optical frequency. This is true in case of Sodium Lamps.

Ans: (D)

Explanation: The full form of ACE2 is Angiotensin-converting enzyme 2

• It is an enzyme attached to the membrane of cells in the intestines, kidney, testis, gallbladder.
• The angiotensin converting enzyme-2 (ACE-2) acts as the receptor for the SARS-CoV-2 virus.

Ans: (B)

Explanation: Bisphenol A (BPA) is a chemical produced in large quantities for use primarily in the production of polycarbonate plastics and epoxy resins.

Option A: Low-density polyethylene is a thermoplastic made from the monomer ethylene. It was the first grade of polyethylene.

Option B: Polycarbonates (PC) are a group of thermoplastic polymers containing carbonate groups in their chemical structures. Polycarbonates used in engineering are strong, tough materials, and some grades are optically transparent. They are easily worked, molded, and thermoformed.

Option C: Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is short for polyethylene terephthalate, the chemical name for polyester. PET is a clear, strong, and lightweight plastic that is widely used for packaging foods and beverages, especially convenience-sized soft drinks, juices and water.

Option D: Polyvinyl chloride is the world’s third-most widely produced synthetic polymer of plastic. The rigid form of PVC is used in construction for pipe.

Ans: (D)

Explanation: Triclosan is an ingredient added to many consumer products intended to reduce or prevent bacterial contamination. It is added to some antibacterial soaps and body washes, toothpastes, and some cosmetics.

Ans: (D)

Explanation: Astronomical distances are measures in light-years as the speed of light is constant. it travels at 3×10⁸ m/s in vacuum. A light-year is how astronomers measure distance in space. It’s defined by how far a beam of light travels in one year – a distance of six trillion miles.

Additional Facts: The only thing absolute in this universe according to Einstein is the speed of light, rest everything is relative.

Ans: (C)

Explanation:

Statement 1: Correct, Parliamentary sovereignty is the principle of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament the supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law.

Such discretion is not available with the Indian Parliament. Parliament of India is a creation of the Constitution. So, the constitution of India places some restriction on the law making authority of parliament.

Statement 2:  Correct, to decide the constitutionality of the amendment, the CJI forms a constitution Bench.  It consists of at least five judges of the court.

Ans: (B)

Explanation: 

Statement 1: Incorrect,  actually this was the key recommendation of 1st ARC.

Further, Ayyangar was part of the 7-member drafting committee of the Indian constitution appointed in 1947. Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, in his Report namely ‘Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950 recommended for the grouping of ministries and improvement in the capabilities of the personnel. 

Statement 2: Incorrect, in 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the charge of Cabinet Secretariat. In 1985, it was placed under the overall charge of the Prime Minister assisted by a Minister of State.

Ans: (C)

Explanation: Right to privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 and as a part of the freedoms guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution.

Judgement: In K. S. Puttaswamy Case (2017), Supreme Court of India has held that right to privacy is a Fundamental Right and it is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India.

Ans: (B)

Explanation: 

Statement 1: Incorrect, according to the Representative of People Act, 1951, one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies).

Statement 2: Correct, in 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.

Statement 3: Incorrect, if a candidate is contesting from more than one constituency, he has to lodge a separate return of election expenses for every election which he has contested. The election for each constituency is a separate election. This provision is present in the Representation of People Act, 1951.

There is no provision for the payment of election expenses by the candidate in case of by-election on the vacant seat.

Ans: (C)

Explanation: Savannas are defined based on vegetation structure, the central concept being a discontinuous tree cover in a continuous grass understory.  Fire, grazing herbivore and seasonal rainfall are behind the scarce forest development in the region.

But, what limits the distribution of Biomass in Savannas? 

Nutrient and soil moisture availability are usually the limiting factors affecting the biomass growth in savannas.

Further, savannas grow in tropical regions 8° to 20° from the Equator. Summer and winter is dry, Rain occurs after the end of summer season.

Savannah: a transition climate

It is also known as Sudan climate. This is transition climate between equatorial climate and hot desert.

In Sudan climate the hot season normally starts in May and ends in Sept. The Savanna biome has a wet/dry climate. Its Koeppen climate group is Aw. The A stands for a tropical climate and the w for a dry season in the winter.

In the savanna climate there is a distinct dry season, which is in the winter.

Savannas get all their rain in the summer months. During the distinct dry season of a savanna, most of the plants shrivel up and die. Some rivers and streams dry up. Most of the animals migrate to find food.

In the wet season all of the plants are lush and the rivers flow freely. The animals migrate back to graze.

There is an annual precipitation of 10 to 30 inches (100 to 150 cm) of rain. From December to February hardly any rain falls at all. The temperature does not vary much and variation is gradual.

Worldwide Distribution of Savannah Regions

The largest areas of savanna are found in Africa, South America, Australia, India, the Myanmar, Thailand and Madagascar.

Distribution of Savannah Region in India

Preliminary studies show that about 17% of India’s landmass is covered by savanna grasslands.

The Savanna and Serengeti of India includes narrow lowland ecoregion of the Himalayas, the Ganges and the Brahmaputra River Basin, Little and Great Rann of Kutch and Western Ghats montane rain forests.

Ans: (B)

Explanation

• Ocean water: 97.2 percent
• Glaciers and other ice: 2.15 percent
• Groundwater: 0.61 percent
• Fresh water lakes: 0.009 percent
• Inland seas: 0.008 percent
• Soil Moisture: 0.005 percent
• Atmosphere: 0.001 percent
• Rivers: 0.0001 percent.

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 128 of the Constitution, the Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
• Statement 2 is correct: Being A Court Of Record, High Court can review its own judgments under Article 226 Of the Constitution. The Kerala High Court has iterated the legal proposition that High Courts as Courts of Record could review their own orders.

Ans: (d)

Explanation: Separation of power (executive, legislature and judiciary) checks the abuse of power by other organs. So, this helps in checking the authoritarian tendencies. This is the best safeguard to safeguard liberty and liberal democracy.

Ans: (b)

Solution: Permaculture can be understood as the growth of agricultural ecosystems in a self-sufficient and sustainable way. This form of agriculture draws inspiration from nature to develop synergetic farming systems based on crop diversity, resilience, natural productivity, and sustainability.

Whereas, “Conventional farming” is generally associated with high-input modern agriculture which includes the use of synthetic chemical fertilizers, fungicides, insecticides, and herbicides.

Hence. S1 is correct. 

The conventional Chemical Farming causes Soil Salinity due to over use of irrigation whereas there is no such problem with the Permaculture. Hence, S2 is correct. 

Due to its focus on water conservation and region specific crops, permaculture is very much suitable for arid and semi arid regions. Hence, S3 is not correct.

Mulch is a material placed on the soil surface to maintain moisture, reduce weed growth, mitigate soil erosion and improve soil conditions. Mulching can help to improve crop yield and optimise water use which is an essential component of permaculture. Hence, S4 is correct.

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: More than 80 percent of palm oil is grown in Southeast Asia, with Indonesia and Malaysia leading the world in production of the commodity. Oil palms were introduced to Malaysia and Indonesia in the mid-20th century from Africa. 

Statement 2 is correct: Palm oil and its derivatives are present in at least 70% of cosmetic products.

Statement 3 is correct: Generally, RBD palm oil is used to produce biodiesel.

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Sutlej River is the longest of the five tributaries of the Indus River, it rises on the north slope of the Himalayas in southwestern Tibet and joins Indus directly.

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include Baitarani River, Budhabalanga River, Rushikulya River, Vamsadhara River, Palar River, Nagavali River, and Champavathi River, etc.

• The Baitarani River originates from Keonjhar District of Orissa.
• The Subernarekha River rises from Ranchi District of Jharkhand.

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

• Didwana is a town in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan. It also has a famous Didwana salt-water lake of Rajasthan.
• Kuchaman lake is a continental saline lake located around Kuchaman city, Nagaur District, Rajasthan.

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

S1: UN’s International Seabed Authority (ISA) issue exploration licences to mining companies. Hence Statement 1 is incorrect. 

S2: India has received the license to explore Polymetallic nodules from seabed in the Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB). Hence. Statement 2 is correct. 

S3: : The seafloor boasts one of the world’s largest untapped collections of rare-earth elements. It holds trillions of polymetallic nodules — potato-sized deposits loaded with copper, nickel, manganese, and other precious ores. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Ans: (A)

Explanation: In political science, the term “State” has a more specific and definite meaning- “word State means a community or society politically organized under one independent government within a definite territory. It alone has the prerogative of making laws. The lawmaking power derives from sovereignty, which is the most distinctive characteristic of the State.

Ans: (a)

Solution: Sugarcane takes about 210 litres of water to produce 1 kg of sugar cane. Water footprint of sunflower is 7–9 liters per kg. Millets are sown in dry areas with minimal irrigation. Red gram requires 35 to 40 cm water, during its entire growth period.

Ans: (c)

Solution:

Trade Wind: Helps in trade and transport over ocean. The wind blowing from the sub polar high pressure belt to equator is called the Trade wind. These winds blow between 30 Degree north and south. This causes warm eater on the western side of the Ocean in the Tropical region.

Westerlies: The westerlies blow from 30 Degree north to 60 Degree north and from 30 Degree south to 60 Degree south. They are not regular in the strength and direction. The region of Westerlies is characterized with frequent Cyclone and Anticyclone due to the predominance of Coriolis Effect. These are permanent wind and causes the Eastern part of the ocean warmer than the western part.

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Climate-Smart Villages (CSVs) have successfully combined global knowledge with local action to help farmers sustainably produce more food, while curbing greenhouse gas emissions and increasing resilience to climate change.

It is a part of a project led by the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS). Built on the principles of CSA, this program provides technological, organizational and systemic support to farmers in association with institutions to help them cope with climate change, in 36 sites across 20 countries.

Statement 2 is correct: The governance and management of the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS) are based on lessons learned by CGIAR headquartered in France.

Statement 3 is correct: ICRISAT is headquartered in Patancheru near Hyderabad, Telangana, India, with two regional hubs and six country offices in sub-Saharan Africa. It is a member of the CGIAR Consortium. CGIAR is a global research partnership for a food secure future.

Ans: (d)

Explanation: The tropical rainforest is a hot, moist biome where it rains all year long. It is known for its dense canopies of vegetation that form three different layers. The top layer or canopy contains giant trees that grow to heights of 75 m (about 250 ft) or more. This layer of vegetation prevents much of the sunlight from reaching the ground.

Thick, woody vines are also found in the canopy. They climb trees in the canopy to reach for sunlight.

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Article 39 in PART IV (DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY) says that the operation of the economic system does not result in the concentration of wealth and means of production to the common detriment.

Ans: (b)

Explanation: Right to property is a constitutional and legal right under Article 300A of the Constitution of India though not a fundamental right. The deprivation of the right can only be in accordance with the procedure established by law. The legal right available to any person.

The property right was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44thAmendment Act, 1978. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.

Ans: (b)

Solution: The original preamble adopted says that India is a “Sovereign Democratic Republic.” Later, with 42nd Constitutional Amendment three more words were added to constitutional status of India, i.e., “Socialist, Secular and Integrity.”

Ans: (d)

Explanation: The core element of constitutional government is, the existence of a “Rule-of Law” or set of “basic laws” that limits the power of the government.

Ans: (d)

Explanation: Some of the popular languages spoken by the tribes of India are as follows: Bhatri, Bhilli, Halbi, Ho, Kui etc.

Ans: (d)

Explanation: 

Statement (1): Incorrect, Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri “do not amount to titles within the meaning of Article 18(1) of the Constitution and thus are not to be used as prefixes or suffixes to the name of the recipient in any manner whatsoever”.

Statement (2): Incorrect, Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s) during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997.

Statement (3): Incorrect, The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.

Ans: (d)

Explanation: S1 is Incorrect and S2 is correct. 

Hyderabad is the only city from India to have been recognised as a 2020 Tree City of the World by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) for its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests.

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

• Statement (1) is correct: Laureus World Sportsman of the year 2000 was given to Tiger Woods.
• Statement (2) is incorrect: The award was received mostly by tennis players.
• Statement (3) is correct: In 2018 Tennis legend Roger Federer became the most decorated winner in the history of Laureus World Sports Awards after his sixth award.

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

Statement (1) is incorrect: The International Olympic Committee decided upon the change with the new motto being, “Faster, Higher, Stronger – Together.” The specific motto for the Tokyo games remains unchanged, “United by Emotion.”

Statement (2) is correct : Surfing, Skateboarding, Sport Climbing, Karate, Baseball and Softball are included in this olympics.

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: As per the current regulations, WTC league standings would be determined by the percentage of points (PCT) earned by teams. PCT is the percentage of points won out of the total number of points contested by each team.

Statement 2 is incorrect: New Zealand was ranked ahead of England in WTC 2019-21 table because the percentage of points won by New Zealand was more than England.

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct: RBI Governor and Deputy Governors are appointed by the Central Government.

Statement (2) is incorrect: The Central Government may from time to time give such directions to the Bank as it may, after consultation with the Governor of the Bank, consider necessary in the public interest. This is a provision mentioned in the RBI Act 1934 and not in the constitution of India.

Statement (3) is correct: RBI Act- 1934 -Governor and in his absence the Deputy Governor nominated by him in this behalf, shall also have powers of general superintendence and direction of the affairs and the business of the Bank, and may exercise all powers and do all acts and things which may be exercised or done by the Bank.

Explanation: 

• Statement (1) is correct: Holding that an employer cannot differentiate between contractual and permanent employees, the Supreme Court has ruled that casual workers are also entitled to social security benefits under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act.

Explanation:

In Economic Recession, the Government can:

• Decrease interest rate to make more room for borrowing
• Increase Government Spending
• Cut Tax rates to increase spending capacity of people

Explanation:

The main influences on buying plans that change demand are:

• Prices of related goods
• Income
• Expectations
• Number of buyers
• Preferences

The Demand increases when 

• The demand for a good increases, if the price of one of its substitutes rises.
• The demand for a good increases, if the price of one of its substitutes rises.
• An inferior good is an economic term that describes a good whose demand drops when people’s incomes rise.
• If the price of a good falls, the quantity demanded of that good increases.

Explanation:

• The recent Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act 2020 enables the RBI to get all the powers, including those hitherto exclusively with the registrar of cooperative societies. However, powers of registrar continue to be with him but the powers of RBI override those of registrar.
• UCBs are permitted to raise equity share capital, preference shares and debt instruments.
• The applicability of banking laws to cooperatives societies since March 1, 1966 ushered in ‘duality of control’ over UCBs between the Registrar of Cooperative Societies/Central Registrar of Cooperative Societies and the Reserve Bank of India.

Explanation:

Bonds yields in India are affected by

• There are a number of economic factors that impact Treasury yields, such as interest rates, inflation, and economic growth.
• The major factors affecting the yield are the monetary policy of the Reserve Bank of India, especially the course of interest rates, fiscal position of the government, global markets, economy and the inflation.
• US Bond yields

Explanation:

• FII – Foreign investment in Indian securities has also been made possible through the purchase of Global Depository Receipts, Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds and Foreign Currency Bonds issued by Indian issuers which are listed, traded and settled overseas.

Explanation:

A key effect of devaluation is that it makes the domestic currency cheaper relative to other currencies. There are two implications of a devaluation. First, devaluation makes the country’s exports relatively less expensive for foreigners. Second, the devaluation makes foreign products relatively more expensive for domestic consumers, thus discouraging imports. This may help to increase the country’s exports and decrease imports, and may therefore help to reduce the current account deficit.

Explanation:

•  Black money eats up a part of the tax and, thus, the government’s deficit increases.

Explanation:

• Deficit financing is inherently inflationary. Since deficit financing raises aggregate expenditure and, hence, increases aggregate demand, the danger of inflation looms large.
• Printing new currency notes increases the flow of money in the economy. This leads to increase in inflationary pressures which leads to rise of prices of goods and services in the country.

Explanation:

•  Lemongrass is a natural mosquito repellent.

Explanation:

• Copepods are major secondary producers in the World Ocean
• In aquatic environments, cyanobacteria are important primary producer
• Diatoms are one of the major primary producers in the ocean

Explanation:

• To protect itself, a hedgehog curls his head and feet into his body and forms a ball to protect his soft, delicate underside.
• Upon seeing a predator, the yellow-bellied marmot whistles to warn the others in the area, after which it typically hides in a nearby rock pile until there is no more threat.
• If under threat, a pangolin will immediately curl into a tight ball and will use their sharp-scaled tails to defend themselves.

Explanation:

• The New York Declaration on Forests was endorsed at the 2014 Climate Summit by more than 150 governments, companies, indigenous peoples and civil society organizations committed to doing their part to achieve the Declaration’s ten goals and follow its accompanying action agenda.
• It is voluntary in nature.
• Its ten goals include halting natural forest loss by 2030, restoring 350 million hectares of degraded landscapes and forestlands, improving governance, increasing forest finance, and reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation as part of a post-2020 global climate agreement.
• India is not its signatory.

Explanation:

• Oysters are filter feeders, meaning they eat by pumping large volumes of water through their body. Water is pumped through the oyster’s gills by the beating of cilia. Plankton, algae and other particles become trapped in the mucus of the gills. From there these particles are transported to the oyster’s mouth and esophagus to be eaten, then to the stomach to be digested.

Explanation:

• Much of the phosphorus on Earth is tied up in rock and sedimentary deposits, from which it is released by weathering, leaching, and mining.

Explanation:

• Jellyfish feed on phytoplankton and zooplanktons . Detritivores are often invertebrate insects such as mites, beetles, butterflies and flies; mollusks such as slugs and snails; or soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes and woodlice.

Explanation:

• The Common Carbon Metric is the calculation used to define measurement, reporting, and verification for GHG emissions associated with the operation of buildings types of particular climate regions.

Explanation:

• Symbiosis is a close ecological relationship between the individuals of two (or more) different species. The relationship between cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae is termed as “symbiotic”. Two common mutualistic relationships involving fungi are mycorrhiza and lichen. Symbiosis in protozoa mostly represents a close mutualistic association between a protozoan and unicellular symbionts (bacteria, cyanobacteria or/and unicellular algae) or protozoans and a multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants)

Ans: (c)

Explanation: The increase in the money supply is the money multiplier.

The money created by the Federal Reserve is the monetary base, also known as high-powered money. People saves money and invest in banks. Banks earn profits by making loans. A bank loans or invests its excess reserves to earn more interest. A one-dollar increase in the monetary base causes the money supply to increase by more than one dollar.

Explanation:

• Rising interest rates will deter people to borrow money and hence it will not aid in demand pull inflation

Explanation:

• CDSL is promoted by BSE which later divested its stakes among nationalized banks

Explanation:

• WaterCredit is an initiative of water.org

Explanation:

• A lender of last resort (LoR) is an institution, usually a country’s central bank, that offers loans to banks or other eligible institutions that are experiencing financial difficulty or are considered highly risky or near collapse.

Explanation:

• R2 stands for Responsible Recycling and is a standard specifically created for the electronics recycling industry by Sustainable Electronics Recycling International (SERI)

Explanation:

• Carbon monoxide is used in copper smelters to reduce copper oxide. CuO   CO → Cu CO2. hence its unlikely that a smelter will release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide in to the environment

Explanation

• Statement 1 is correct: Furnace oil or fuel oil is a dark viscous residual fuel obtained by blending mainly heavier components from crude distillation unit, short residue and clarified oil from fluidized catalytic cracker unit.
• Statement 2 is correct: It is used primarily for steam boilers in power plants, aboard ships, and in industrial plants.
• Statement 3 is correct: Sulphur contained in fuel causes emissions of sulphur dioxide (SO2) and also contributes to the formation of secondary particulate matter (PM)

Explanation:

• Blue carbon is the term for carbon captured by the world’s ocean and coastal ecosystems. Our ocean and coasts provide a natural way of reducing the impact of greenhouse gases on our atmosphere, through sequestration. Sea grasses, mangroves, and salt marshes along our coast “capture and hold” carbon, acting as something called a carbon sink

Explanation:

• Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid atmosphere. Lichens occur from sea level to high alpine elevations, in many environmental conditions, and can grow on almost any surface. Mosses are non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but don’t have true roots. The individual plants are usually composed of simple leaves that are generally only one cell thick, attached to a stem that may be branched or unbranched and has only a limited role in conducting water and nutrients. A mushroom or toadstool is the fleshy, spore-bearing fruiting body of a fungus, typically produced above ground, on soil, or on its food source.

Explanation:

• Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. His plays are considered the equal of the works of Kalidasa. Bhavabhuti seems to have been the court poet of King Yashovarman of Kanauj and known to have been in the entourage of the king who had fought with Lalitaditya Muktapada, the king of Kashmir and had got defeated by him
• Hastimalla was 13th century Kannada poets and writers in Hoysala Empire. He wrote Purvapurana
• Kshemendra (990 – c. 1070 CE) was an 11th-century Sanskrit poet from Kashmir in India.

Explanation:

• In 1918, when Britain granted limited suffrage to women property holders, the law did not apply to British citizens in other parts of the Empire. Despite petitions presented by women, women’s demands were ignored in the Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms. Though they were not granted voting rights, nor the right to stand in elections, the Government of India Act 1919 allowed Provincial Councils to determine if women could vote, provided they met stringent property, income, or educational levels.
• Between 1919 and 1929, all of the British Provinces, as well as most of the Princely states granted women the right to vote and, in some cases, allowed them to stand in local elections.
• With limited input from women, the report from the three Round Tables was sent to the Joint Committee of the British Parliament recommending lowering the voting age to 21, but retaining property and literacy restrictions, as well as basing women’s eligibility on their marital status. It also provided special quotas for women and ethnic groups in provincial legislatures. These provisions were incorporated into the Government of India Act 1935. Though it extended electoral eligibility, the Act still allowed only 2.5% of the women in India to vote

Explanation:

Songs From Prison: Translations Of Indian Lyrics Made In Jail was written by Mahatma Gandhi

Ans: (A)

Explanation: Using the methods of Sher Shah, Akbar organised his empire into administrative units independently of existing local usage. Groups of villages formed Parganas, then Sarkars, and finally Subahs. Hence the correct order is Paragana-Sarkar-Suba.

Explanation:

• The college owes its origin to John Elliot Drinkwater Bethune (1801-1851). What began as Hindu Female School in 1849 was renamed as Bethune School in 1856. The Managing Committee of the school was then formed and Pandit Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar, … a relentless supporter of women’s emancipation was made the Secretary

Explanation:

• Red Fort trials: Between November 1945 and May 1946, approximately ten courts-martial were held in public at the Red Fort in Delhi. Claude Auchinleck, the Commander-in-Chief of the British-Indian army, hoped that by holding public trials in the Red Fort, public opinion would turn against the INA. hose to stand trials were accused variously of murder, torture and “waging war against the King-Emperor”. However, the first and most celebrated joint courts-martial – those of Prem Sahgal, Gurubaksh Singh Dhillon and Shah Nawaz Khan – were not the story of torture and murder Auchinleck had hoped to tell the Indian press and people.

Explanation:

• The Carnatic was a dependency of Hyderabad Deccan, and was under the legal purview of the Nizam of Hyderabad, until their demise.
• The kingdom, which was founded and ruled for most part by the Hindu Wodeyar family, initially served as a vassal state of the Vijayanagara Empire
• The Kingdom of Rohilkhand arose under the declining Mughal Empire in 1721 and continued to exist until 1774 when annexation by the British transformed its significantly reduced borders into the Princely State of Rampur. Nawab Ali Mohammed Khan, a scion of the ancient Barha Dynasty became the first Nawab of Rohilkhand, having been previously elected as overlord by various Afghan Chiefs at the age of fourteen. He would carve out the future kingdom from the collapsing Mughal Empire and go on to the found the Rohilla Dynasty·

Explanation:

• Ajanta Caves, Buddhist rock-cut cave temples and monasteries, located near Ajanta village, north-central Maharashtra state, western India, are celebrated for their wall paintings. The temples are hollowed out of granite cliffs on the inner side of a 70-foot (20-metre) ravine in the Wagurna River valley 65 miles (105 km) northeast of Aurangabad.

Explanation:

• The idea to celebrate International Mother Language Day was the initiative of Bangladesh. It was approved at the 1999 UNESCO General Conference and has been observed throughout the world since 2000. It is celebrated on 21 Feb each year. So, statement 1 is correct.
• In Bangladesh, 21 February is the anniversary of the day when the people of Bangladesh (then East Pakistan) fought for recognition for the Bangla language.
• In 1948, the then Government of Pakistan declared Urdu to be the sole national language of Pakistan, even though Bengali or Bangla was spoken by the majority of people combining East Pakistan and West Pakistan. The East Pakistan people protested, and demanded that Bangla to be at least one of the national languages, in addition to Urdu.
• The demand was raised first by Dhirendranath Datta from East Pakistan on 23 February 1948, in the constituent Assembly of Pakistan. So, Statement 2 is also correct.
• To demolish the protest, the government of Pakistan outlawed public meeting and rallies. The students of the University of Dhaka, with the support of the general public, arranged massive rallies and meetings. On 21 February 1952, police opened fire on rallies. Abdus Salam, Abul Barkat, Rafiq Uddin Ahmed, Abdul Jabbar and Shafiur Rahman died, with hundreds of others injured. This was a rare incident in history, where people sacrificed their lives for their mother tongue.
• Since then, Bangladeshis have celebrated the International Mother Language Day as one of their tragic days.

Explanation:

• The Chausath Yogini temple is in Mitaoli village (also spelled Mitawali or Mitavali), near Padaoli in Morena district 40 kilometres (25 mi) from Gwalior.According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the temple was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (r. c. 1055 – 1075). It is said that the temple was the venue of providing education in astrology and mathematics based on the transit of the Sun.
• It is externally circular in shape with a radius of 170 feet and within its interior part it has 64 small chambers.Within the main central shrine there are slab coverings which have perforations in them to drain rainwater to a large underground storage. The pipe lines from the roof lead the rain water to the storage are also visible.The Parliament house was inspired by the circular Chausath Yogini Temple.
• The cells and the main shrine are flat topped, but it is believed that initially each had a shikhara on top. While the 64 Yoginis originally placed in the 64 subsidiary shrines are now missing, a Shiva linga has taken their places in each cell. The central shrine also holds a Shivalinga.

Explanation:

• The configuration of the city of Dholavira, during its heyday, is an outstanding example of planned city with planned and segregated urban residential areas based on possibly differential occupational activities, and a stratified society. Technological advancements in water harnessing systems, water drainage systems as well architecturally and technologically developed features are reflected in the design, execution, and effective harnessing of local materials.
• Unlike other Harappan antecedent towns normally located near to rivers and perennial sources of water, the location of Dholavira in the island of Khadir was strategic to harness different mineral and raw material sources (copper, shell, agate-carnelian, steatite, lead, banded limestone, among others) and to facilitate internal as well as external trade to the Magan (modern Oman peninsula) and Mesopotamian regions.

Explanation:

• By 1623, English East India Company had established factories at Surat, Broach, Ahmedabad, Agra, and Masulipatam.
• In 1625, the East India Company’s authorities at Surat made an attempt to fortify their factory, but the chiefs of the English factory were immediately imprisoned and put in irons by the local authorities of the Mughal Empire.
• The English opened their first factory in the South at Masulipatam in 1611. But they soon shifted the center of their activity to Madras the lease of which was granted to them by the local king in 1639.

Explanation: Yadava of Deogiri belonged to the Medieval Era.

Explanation:

• During Vijayanagar, Women worked in different occupations. According to Nuniz, “The king of Vijayanagara has also women who wrestle, and others who are astrologers and soothsayers; and has women who write all the accounts of expenses that are incurred insides the gates of the palace and others whose duty is to write all the affairs of the kingdom and compare their books with those of writers outside; he has women also for music, who play instruments and sing. Even the wives of the kings are well-versed in music… He has judges as well as a watchman who every night guards the palace, and these are women.”

Explanation: 

• Rabindranath Tagore translated “Jana Gana Mana” from Bengali to English and also set it to music in Madanapalle. The National Anthem was written by Rabindranath Tagore as early as in 1911 and was sung at the annual session of the Indian National Congress at Calcutta on 27 December that year. But it was actually done in Besant Theosophical College, Madanapalle, where Tagore stayed for a few days in February 1919 that the now familiar tune was set. It was Margaret Cousins, wife of educationist Dr. James Henry Cousins, who composed the tune for “Jana Gana Mana”. Dr.J H Cousins was then the Principal of the Madanapalle College that was established by Dr. Annie Besant.

Explanation:

• The Ganeshwar-Jodhpura Chalcolithic culture was first discovered in the 1970’s post the excavation at Jodhpura and Ganeshwar respectively. The site of Ganeshwar yielded a lot of copper objects such as arrowheads, spearheads, chisels, fish hooks, razor blades; ornaments like rings, hairpins, bangles, antimony rods, double spiral headed pin amongst others.
• Around 50 km north-east of Kolkata, near the tiny village of Berachampa in West Bengal, lies the 2,300-year-old site of Chandraketugarh, filled with the most amazing terracotta sculptures. Two years later, archaeologist Rakhaldas Banerji – the man who discovered the ruins of Mohenjodaro – visited Chandraketugarh and found a vast crop of terracotta artefacts.

Explantion:

• Battle of Delhi: In 1398 the Mongol-Turkish warrior Timur, ruler of Central Asia from his capital at Samarkand, found a pretext to strike south into India. A devout Muslim, Timur alleged that his co-religionist Sultan Nasiruddin Mahmud of Delhi was being too lenient toward his Hindu subjects
• In 1221, the great Mongol conqueror Genghis Khan stood victorious at western bank of the Indus River with 50,000 soldiers, having just defeated Jalal-ad-Din, the Shah of Khwarazm. Jalal-ad-Din’s army was completely destroyed in this battle, which took place near the town of Kalabagh in Punjab. Northern India was ruled at the time by Shams ud-Din Iltutmish.

Explanation:

• Francis disembarked in Goa, the centre of Portuguese activity in the East, on May 6, 1542. Much of the next three years he spent on the southeastern coast of India among the simple, poor pearl fishers, the Paravas. Francis travelled tirelessly from village to village instructing and confirming them in their faith. His evident goodness and the force of his conviction overcame difficulties of verbal communication.
• Meanwhile, he had come to realize that the way to the conversion of Japan lay through China; it was to the Chinese that the Japanese looked for wisdom. He never reached China, however. On December 3, 1552, Francis died of fever on the island of Sancian (Shangchuan, off the Chinese coast) as he attempted to secure entrance to the country, then closed to foreigners

Ans: (B)

Explanation: The Dayabhaga and The Mitakshara are the two schools of law that govern the law of succession of the Hindu Undivided Family Under Indian Law.

Statement 1: Incorrect, Both the Two systems of family/civil law, Dayabhaga and Mitakshara are the basic to the upper castes alone – Dayabhaga system prevailed in eastern India and Mitakshara in remaining parts of the country.

Statement 2: Incorrect, according to the Mitakshara law school a joint family refers only to the male member of a family and extends to include his son, grandson and great-grandson. They collectively have co-ownership/Coparcenary in the Joint Family. Thus, a son by birth acquires an interest in the ancestral property of the joint family. Whereas, under the Dayabhaga law school, the son has no automatic ownership right by birth but acquires it on the demise of his father.

Statement 3: Incorrect, both the systems deal with the property rights of both of men and women – In Mitakshara school property rights of the women were restricted to a great extent, women were believed to never be able to become a coparcener. The widow of a deceased coparcener could not get his share and was not allowed to enforce a partition of his husband’s share against his brothers, Dayabhaga school on the other hand was somewhat lenient, a widow has the right to inherit her deceased husband’ s share and could enforce a partition against his brothers.

Explanation:

Key features of federalism:

• There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government.
• Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
• The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
• The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
• Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers. The most important feature of the federal system adopted by the Indian Constitution is the principle that relations between the States and the centre would be based on cooperation. And for this, Independent Judiciary is the prerequisite. Hence, Option (a) is correct.
• Sources of revenue for each level of government are clearly specified to ensure its financial autonomy.

Ans: (B)

Explanation: 

Statement 1: Incorrect, Moringa Oleifera is a medium-sized evergreen tree that is native to Africa and Asia. Also known as The Moringa Tree, the Drumstick Tree or The Miracle Tree. This is non-leguminous tree.

Statement 2:  Incorrect, Tamarind, (Tamarindus indica), evergreen tree of the pea family (Fabaceae) and is native to tropical Africa.

Statement 3: Correct, Tamarind (with seeds) is classified as minor forest produce. It is also covered under Minimum Support Price Scheme for NTFP. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Statement 4: Correct, Tamarind seed is highly nutritious and contains upto 17-20 percent protein. Chemical called Pectin. extracted from the seed is added in bakery products. Tamarind is exported from India to about 60 countries. Karnataka is the largest producer of tamarind in the country. About 18 percent of the national l production is from Kerala and half of this is from Palakkad district. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Statement 5: Correct, Moringa seed oil exhibit a high oxidative stability and its thermal stability exceeds other oil crops like sunflower oil, soybean oil amongst others. Biodiesel produced from M. oleifera seed oil exhibit enhanced oxidative ability, high cloud point and a higher cetane number of approximately 67 than for most biodiesels. Hence, statement 5 is correct.

Ans: (B)

Explanation: Black soils are derivatives of Deccan trap lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh.

Further, the Deccan trap, which is the source of the black soils, is a basaltic province formed during the hot spot volcanism when the Indian plate was above the Reunion island about 66 million years ago.

At that time, the less viscous Basaltic lava erupted through the fissures covering a vast area of about ten lakh sq. km. Hence option (b) is correct.

These soils are also known as the ‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton Soil’.

Ans: (C)

Solution: The recombinant subunit vaccine causes the immune response of the human body by directly injecting the parts of the pathogen into the body.

Statement 1: Correct, Actually, the recombinant vector vaccines are live replicating viruses that are engineered to carry extra genes derived from a pathogen. This extra genes produce proteins against which we want to generate immunity.

Statement 2: Correct, it exposes the body to proteins made by a virus or bacteria, are often made by using weakened or inactive versions of that virus or bacteria.

Ans: (C)

Solution: Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) is a new form of reproductive invitro fertilization (IVF) which works on the principle of replacing a women’s abnormal mitochondrial DNA (mt-DNA) with the donor’s healthy one.

Mitochondrial donation can be performed either prior to or shortly after fertilisation. In both cases, this is before the fertilized egg becomes an embryo. MRT include different techniques like spindles transfer (ST), pronuclear transfer (PNT) or polar body transfer (PBT).

The development of healthy baby free from genetic disorders and to terminate the lethal mitochondrial disorders are the chief motive of this technique.

In nearly all mammals, this mitochondrial genome is inherited exclusively from the mother, and transmission of paternal mitochondria or mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) has not been convincingly demonstrated in humans. Hence both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Ans: (B)

Explanation: Bollgard I Bt cotton (single-gene technology) is India’s first biotech crop technology approved for commercialization in India in 2002.

Bollgard cotton provides in-built protection for cotton against destructive American Bollworm Heliothis Armigera infestations, and contains an insecticidal protein from a naturally occurring soil microorganism, Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt).

Ans: (C)

Solution: Inside a pressure cooker the boiling point is increased by increasing the pressure. Hence cooking is faster.

The lid dictates the pressure level, heavier the lid, higher will be pressure inside the pressure cooker. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 

Again, Force = Pressure X Area

Hence, Smaller the hole in the lid, greater will be the pressure inside the cooker. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 

The temperature at which food is cooked is affected by the pressure and not temperature of the flame. Hence Statement 2 is Incorrect. 

Explanation:

Forest Rights Act, 2006

• The Forest Rights Act (FRA), 2006 recognizes the rights of the forest dwelling tribal communities and other traditional forest dwellers to forest resources, on which these communities were dependent for a variety of needs, including livelihood, habitation and other socio-cultural needs. The forest management policies, including the Acts, Rules and Forest Policies of Participatory Forest Management policies in both colonial and post-colonial India, did not, till the enactment of this Act, recognize the symbiotic relationship of the STs with the forests, reflected in their dependence on the forest as well as in their traditional wisdom regarding conservation of the forests.
• The Ministry of the Central Government dealing with Tribal Affairs or any officer or authority authorised by the Central Government on this behalf shall be the nodal agency for the implementation of the provisions of this Act. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Explanation:

• The court exercises control over delegation of discretionary powers to the administration by adjudicating upon the constitutionality of the law under which such powers are delegated with reference to the fundamental rights enunciated in Part III of the Indian Constitution. Therefore, if the law confers vague and wide discretionary power on any administrative authority, it may be declared ultra vires Article 14, Article 19 and other provisions of the Constitution.
• Article 14 of the Constitution guarantees equality before law but the courts have permitted reasonable classification to be made. Where the law is valid under the article, a discriminatory action would still be violative of the equality clause.
• Hence, option (a) is correct.
• Also, by elimination, Art. 28, and Art.44 are unrelated to the question and Art. 44 is to protect the FR of the citizens.

Ans: (a)

Explanation: 

S1: Yes, there is single citizenship in India. A person can not call himself the citizen of India and Jharkhand. This is the case in USA.

S2: No, a citizen whether by birth or by naturalization can become the Head of the State i.e. the President of India.

S3: No, the home ministry can terminate the citizenship of the foreigner in case he/she gets convicted and sent to jail for 2 years or more.

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

S1: The provision of Parole is a privilege/concession but not a right of any convicted prisoner. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

S2: States have separate prison/parole rules because “prison and persons detained” is a state subject of the 7th schedule. So, statement 2 is correct.

Ans: (A)

Solution: Microbes like bacteria and many fungi can be grown on nutritive media to form colonies that can be seen with the naked eyes. Such cultures are useful in studies on micro-organisms.

Unlike bacteria, many of which can be grown on an artificial nutrient medium, viruses require a living host cell for replication.

Ans: (B)

Solution:

An adenovirus is a non-enveloped virus, meaning it has no protective coating. A retrovirus is an example of an enveloped virus, making it more resilient and causes higher tendency of infection or diseases.

Adenoviruses have double-stranded DNA (dsDNA) genome. Hence, S1 is incorrect. 

Adenoviruses are common viruses that cause a range of illness. They can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis).

HIV is called a retrovirus because it works in a back-to-front way. Unlike other viruses, retroviruses store their genetic information using RNA instead of DNA, meaning they need to ‘make’ DNA when they enter a human cell in order to make new copies of themselves. Hence S2 is correct.

Ans: (C)

Solution: ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right. The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants, present and future, to occupy, use, and produce just, inclusive, and sustainable cities, defined as a common good essential to the quality of life.

Also, the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Right to the city means right to reclaim public spaces, public participation in the city and more importantly right to housing and basic amenities. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Here, the State can deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

Ans: (B)

Explanation:

Statement 1: Police Custody means that police have the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate. In the former, the accused is lodged in a police station lockup while in latter, it is the jail. So, statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2: During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. So, statement 2 is correct.