1. Maginot Line exists between which countries?
(A) Namibia and Angola
(B) France & Germany
(C) U.S.A. & Canada
(D) South Korea & North Korea
Answer: (B) France & Germany
Explanation: The Maginot Line was a line of defensive fortifications built by France along its border with Germany before World War II. It was intended to deter German invasion and protect France from attack. The line became symbolic of static defense strategies and was eventually bypassed by German forces during the war.
Source: UPSC Prelims Exam 1982
2. Strait of Hormuz connects
(A) Red sea to Indian Ocean
(B) Red sea to Gulf of Aden
(C) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman
(D) Mediterranean sea to Red sea
Answer: (C) The Persian Gulf to Gulf of Oman
Explanation: The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically important narrow waterway that connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman. It is one of the world’s most critical oil transit chokepoints, through which a significant portion of global petroleum passes. Its location makes it vital for international shipping and energy security.
Source: BPSC Prelims Exam 53 to 55th
3. Where is “Ground Zero”?
(A) Indira Point
(B) New York
(C) Greenwich
(D) Sriharikota
Answer: (B) New York
Explanation: Ground Zero refers to the site of the World Trade Center in New York City, which was destroyed during the September 11, 2001 terrorist attacks. The term has since become symbolic of the epicenter of destruction or impact.
4. Which of the following Isthmuses has been known as the ‘Devil’s Neck’?
(A) Karelian Isthmuses
(B) Kra Isthmuses
(C) Isthmuses of Panama
(D) Isthmuses of Corinth
Answer: (B) Kra Isthmuses
Explanation: The Kra Isthmus, located in Thailand, is often referred to as the ‘Devil’s Neck’ due to its strategic location and historical significance in maritime navigation and proposed canal projects. It connects the Malay Peninsula with the rest of mainland Asia.
5. Ladang refers to –
(A) Subsistence type of Agriculture
(B) Plantation Agriculture
(C) Shifting Agriculture
(D) Dry forming
Answer: (C) Shifting Agriculture
Explanation: Ladang is a term used in Southeast Asia to describe shifting agriculture, where land is cleared by slashing and burning, cultivated for a few years, and then abandoned to allow natural regeneration. It is a traditional farming method practiced in tropical regions.
Source: Maharashtra PSC Prelims Exam 2022
6. Which is the largest river Island in the world?
(A) Bhavani Island
(B) Majuli Island
(C) Srirangam Island
(D) Agatti Island
Answer: (B) Majuli Island
Explanation: Majuli Island, located in the Brahmaputra River in Assam, India, is recognized as the largest river island in the world. It is known for its cultural heritage, monasteries, and ecological significance.
Source: UPSC Prelims Exam 2004
7. The second largest river basin of India is –
(A) Godavari river basin
(B) Narmada river basin
(C) Mahanadi river basin
(D) Kaveri river basin
Answer: (A) Godavari river basin
Explanation: The Godavari River Basin is the second largest in India after the Ganga Basin. It covers a vast area across central and southern India, playing a crucial role in agriculture, water resources, and hydroelectric projects.
Source: UPSC Prelims Exam 2002 (Q. No. 16)
8. Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?
(A) Rudraprayag
(B) Karnaprayag
(C) Vishnuprayag
(D) Devprayag
Answer: (D) Devprayag
Explanation: Devprayag is the sacred site where the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi rivers meet to form the Ganga River. It holds religious importance and is considered the starting point of the Ganga.
Source: West Bengal PSC Prelims Exam 2021 (Q. NO. 97)
9. The two volcanic Islands in the Indian Territory are –
(A) Pamban and Barren
(B) Bitra and Kavaratti
(C) Kavaratti and New Moore
(D) Narcondam and Barren
Answer: (D) Narcondam and Barren
Explanation: Narcondam and Barren Islands are the only volcanic islands in India, located in the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago. Barren Island is the only active volcano in India, while Narcondam is extinct.
Source: UPSC Prelims 2018 (Q. No. 45)
10. The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?
(A) Laddoo
(B) Musical Instruments
(C) Sports Goods
(D) Scissors
Answer: (C) Sports Goods
Explanation: Meerut, a city in Uttar Pradesh, is renowned for its sports goods industry, which has received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag. This recognition highlights the city’s traditional expertise and quality craftsmanship in producing sports equipment.
11. In India the Temperate Forest Research center is in which city
(A) Srinagar
(B) Ranchi
(C) Shimla
(D) Dehradun
Answer: (C) Shimla
Explanation: The Temperate Forest Research Centre in India is located in Shimla, which lies in the Himalayan region known for its temperate climate and coniferous forests. This makes it an ideal location for research on temperate forest ecosystems.
Source: UPSC Prelims Exam 1998 (Q. No. 23)
12. Kanha National Park is established in –
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Maharashtra
Answer: (A) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation: Kanha National Park is one of the largest national parks in Madhya Pradesh and is renowned for its tiger reserve and rich biodiversity. It was established in 1955 and is a key part of India’s Project Tiger.
Source: UPSC Prelims Exam 1985 (Q. No. 137)
13. ‘Loktak’ is a
(A) River
(B) Lake
(C) Valley
(D) Mountain series
Answer: (B) Lake
Explanation: Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India, located in Manipur. It is famous for its floating phumdis and supports the Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating national park in the world.
Source: UPSC Prelims Exam 1988 (Q. No. 119)
14. Which of the following parks/sanctuaries come under the project tiger in Bihar?
(A) Valmiki National Park
(B) Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary
(D) None of these
Answer: (A) Valmiki National Park
Explanation: Valmiki National Park is the only park in Bihar that is part of Project Tiger, aimed at tiger conservation. It lies in the West Champaran district and is home to a significant population of Royal Bengal Tigers.
Source: BPSC 69th Prelims (Q. No. 21)
15. Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?
(A) Buffalo
(B) Bull
(C) Cow
(D) Horse
Answer: (A) Buffalo
Explanation: The Buffalo is designated as the state animal of Bihar due to its agricultural importance and role in rural livelihoods. It symbolizes the agrarian culture of the state.
16. In which year, the Nalanda University was re-established in Bihar?
(A) 2007
(B) 2005
(C) 2014
(D) 2008
Answer: (C) 2014
Explanation: Nalanda University was re-established in 2014 as an international university in Bihar, reviving the legacy of the ancient Nalanda Mahavihara, which was a renowned center of learning and scholarship.
17. Karmanasa river originates in –
(A) Patna District
(B) Vaishali District
(C) Kaimur District
(D) Bikram District
Answer: (C) Kaimur District
Explanation: The Karmanasa River originates in the Kaimur hills of Kaimur District, Bihar. It is a tributary of the Ganges and plays a role in the drainage system of the region.
18. Bihar produces % of pyrite of whole India?
(A) 95
(B) 85
(C) 75
(D) 100
Answer: (A) 95
Explanation: Bihar contributes approximately 95% of India’s pyrite production, primarily from the Amjhore mines in the Rohtas district, making it a major source of this mineral.
19. Gold is found in which district of Bihar?
(A) Nalanda District
(B) Jamui District
(C) Gaya District
(D) Bhagalpur District
Answer: (B) Jamui District
Explanation: Jamui District in Bihar has been identified as having gold reserves, particularly in the Sono block, making it the only district in Bihar with gold deposits.
20. Most of the Bihar comes under which of the following climate type?
(A) Hot and dry
(B) Tropical savannah
(C) Subtropical Monsoon
(D) Hot and Semi Arid
Answer: (C) Subtropical Monsoon
Explanation: Bihar predominantly experiences a Subtropical Monsoon climate, characterized by hot summers, high humidity, and seasonal rainfall during the monsoon months, which influences its agriculture and water resources.
21. We apply a force of 200 Newtons on a wooden Box and push it on the floor at constant velocity. The marginal friction force will be :
(A) 300 Newtons
(B) 200 Newtons
(C) 100 Newtons
(D) 400 Newtons
Answer: (B) 200 Newtons
Explanation: When an object moves at constant velocity, the applied force equals the frictional force. Since the applied force is 200 Newtons, the marginal friction force must also be 200 Newtons to maintain equilibrium.
22. A truck starts from rest down a hill with a constant acceleration. It achieves 400 meters in 20 seconds. If the weight of the truck is 7 tons then what will be the force acting on it?
(A) 13000 Newtons
(B) 12000 Newtons
(C) 11000 Newtons
(D) 14000 Newtons
Answer: (D) 14000 Newtons
Explanation: Using the equation s = ut + ½at², with s = 400 m, u = 0, and t = 20 s, we find acceleration a = 2 m/s². Force is mass × acceleration. Mass = 7000 kg, so force = 7000 × 2 = 14000 N.
23. Energy consumed in a home is 250 units then the total energy in Joule will be :
(A) 9×108
(B) 8×10⁶
(C) 9×10⁵
(D) 10⁵
Answer: (A) 9×108
Explanation: One unit of electricity = 1 kilowatt-hour = 3.6 × 10⁶ Joules. So, 250 units = 250 × 3.6 × 10⁶ = 9 × 10⁸ Joules.
24. In which medium, the speed of sound is maximum?
(A) Air
(B) Water
(C) Steel
(D) Hydrogen
Answer: (C) Steel
Explanation: Sound travels fastest in solids due to closely packed particles. Among the options, steel is a solid and has the highest speed of sound, much greater than in gases or liquids.
25. The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases.
(A) Gravitational force is violated
(B) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
(C) The principle of conservation of energy is violated
(D) Gravitational force is not violated
Answer: (B) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
Explanation: As a body falls, potential energy decreases while kinetic energy increases, keeping the total mechanical energy constant. Hence, energy conservation is not violated.
26. A pair of Oxen exerts a force of 140 newton while ploughing the field. The field ploughed is 15 meter long. The work done in ploughing the length of the field is :
(A) 2100 Joule
(B) 2000 Joule
(C) 1900 Joule
(D) 2200 Joule
Answer: (A) 2100 Joule
Explanation: Work done = Force × Distance = 140 N × 15 m = 2100 Joules. This is a direct application of the work formula.
27. The focal distance of a plane mirror is
(A) 2 cm
(B) -1 cm
(C) +1 cm
(D) Infinity
Answer: (D) Infinity
Explanation: A plane mirror has no curvature, so its focal length is considered infinite. It does not converge or diverge rays.
28. Which term in the following does not denote the electric power in electric circuit?
(A) VI
(B) IR²
(C) I²R
(D) V²/R
Answer: (B) IR²
Explanation: Electric power is given by formulas like P = VI, P = I²R, and P = V²/R. The term IR² is not a valid expression for power, making it the incorrect one.
29. In short circuit, the value of electric current in a time circuit :
(A) Increases very high
(B) Do not change
(C) Very low
(D) Continuously changing
Answer: (A) Increases very high
Explanation: In a short circuit, resistance drops drastically, causing the current to spike to very high values, which can damage equipment.
30. What is the device to protect equipment from the electric shock?
(A) Motor
(B) Generator
(C) Fuse
(D) Current controller
Answer: (C) Fuse
Explanation: A fuse is designed to break the circuit when current exceeds safe limits, thereby protecting equipment from electric shock or damage.
31. In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and fourth word is different. Find the different one.
(A) STETHOSCOPE
(B) TELESCOPE
(C) MICROSCOPE
(D) PERISCOPE
Answer: (A) STETHOSCOPE
Explanation:
STETHOSCOPE is used to listen to internal body sounds, while the other three—TELESCOPE, MICROSCOPE, and PERISCOPE—are optical instruments used to view distant or small objects. Hence, STETHOSCOPE is the odd one out.
32. SPRING is written in a code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be mentioned in that code language?
(A) MPQSUL
(B) OMPGNC
(C) OMEFPA
(D) SEGRFT
Answer: (B) OMPGNC
Explanation:
The code follows a specific letter substitution pattern. Applying the same transformation used in SPRING → UNUFRC to MOBILE results in OMPGNC. This involves shifting letters based on a fixed rule.
33. Mukesh said to his friend, “Rita is the mother of my son’s wife’s daughter”. How is Mukesh related to Rita?
(A) Son
(B) Son-in-law
(C) Father
(D) Father-in-law
Answer: (D) Father-in-law
Explanation:
Mukesh’s son’s wife’s daughter is Mukesh’s granddaughter. Rita is the mother of that granddaughter, which means Rita is the mother of Mukesh’s daughter-in-law. Therefore, Mukesh is her father-in-law.
34. Ram goes North, turn right, then goes right again and then goes to left. In which direction Ram is now?
(A) NORTH
(B) SOUTH
(C) EAST
(D) WEST
Answer: (D) WEST/ (C) EAST
Explanation:
Starting North, right to East, right to South, left to West. It will depend on How much Ram goes in his last turn.
35. Writing in Alphabetical order, which name of the following will appear in the last?
(A) Mohender
(B) Mohinder
(C) Mahinder
(D) Mahendra
Answer: (B) Mohinder
Explanation:
In alphabetical order, comparison is done letter by letter. Among the options, Mohinder comes last due to the sequence of letters following “Moh”.
36. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder’s rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin’s rank from the beginning?
(A) 18th
(B) 15th
(C) 17th
(D) 16th
Answer: (B) 15th
Explanation:
Joginder is 17th from the last, so his rank from the top is 39 – 17 + 1 = 23rd. Nitin is 7 ranks ahead, so his rank is 23 – 7 = 16th. so the correct option is 15th.
37. If + means x, x means -, + means + and – means +, then 175 – 25+5+20×3+10 equals to:
(A) 140
(B) 87
(C) 77
(D) 70
Answer: (C) 77
38. Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four year’s time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?
(A) 9, 45
(B) 9, 52
(C) 10, 50
(D) 9, 50
Answer: (D) 9, 50
Explanation:
Rahul will be 31 in 4 years, so now he is 27. Seema is 27 ÷ 3 = 9. Four years ago, Rahul was 23, so Laxmi was 2 × 23 = 46, now she is 50. Hence, Seema is 9, Laxmi is 50.
39. Find the missing number from the given
(A) 20
(B) 35
(C) 30
(D) 25
Answer:
40. RAIN is written in a code as 8$%6 and MORE is mentioned as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be mentioned in code language?
(A) 86@$#7
(B) %7@%6#
(C) @$86%7
(D) 8@7$%6
Answer:
41. How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The phrase “More than one of the above” indicates that multiple listed options are correct. This is used when more than one medal count (e.g., 4, 5, or 6) was achieved, making the answer inclusive of multiple correct values.
42. Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi Mechi Link Project?
(A) Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
(B) Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
(C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The project spans multiple regions, and more than one listed group of districts is expected to benefit. Hence, the correct choice reflects overlapping or combined district coverage.
43. Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?
(A) Telugu
(B) Marathi
(C) Bengali
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) Telugu
Explanation: Telugu is among the few Indian languages officially designated as Classical due to its rich literary tradition and historical significance. Marathi and Bengali are not currently accorded this status.
Source: UPSC Prelims 2014 (Q. NO. 8)
44. Which organisation recognized the Nagi bird sanctuary Site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?
(A) UNESCO
(B) World Wildlife Fund
(C) Bird Life International
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) Bird Life International
Explanation: The IBA designation is specifically granted by Bird Life International, a global authority on avian conservation and biodiversity mapping.
45. Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?
(A) Patna
(B) Madhubani
(C) Gaya
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) Madhubani
Explanation: The National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event was organized in Madhubani, Bihar, featuring awards and discussions on local governance.
46. What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?
(A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface
(B) To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
(C) To test new lunar rovers
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) To detect and map water on the Moon’s surface
Explanation: The Lunar Trailblazer mission is focused on locating and analyzing water molecules on the Moon, which is critical for future lunar exploration and habitation.
47. Afrikaners indicate the people :
(A) Of Indo-African descent in the U.S.
(B) Indigenous tribal communities in Africa
(C) The white minority group in South Africa
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) The white minority group in South Africa
Explanation: Afrikaners are a white ethnic group in South Africa, primarily descended from Dutch settlers, and are known for their distinct language and cultural identity.
48. What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?
(A) Agrasen ki Baoli
(B) Rajon ki Baoli
(C) Chauki Bavdi
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) Chauki Bavdi
Explanation: The Chauki Bavdi stepwell, dating back to the 16th century, was recently restored through a joint effort by the Archaeological Survey of India and the World Monuments Fund India.
49. What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?
(A) Bill de Blasio
(B) Eric Adams
(C) Sadiq Khan
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) Eric Adams
Explanation: Eric Adams, the Mayor of New York City, officially declared April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day, recognizing his contributions to social justice and democracy.
50. What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?
(A) Music Unites Us
(B) Together in Song
(C) United By Music
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) United By Music
Explanation: The official and permanent slogan of the Eurovision Song Contest is “United By Music”, symbolizing the event’s mission to bring cultures together through musical expression.
51. What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?
(A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite
(B) It marked ISRO’s 1018 launch from Sriharikota
(C) It marked ISRO’s 100th launch from Sriharikota
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) It carried the NVS-02 satellite
Explanation: The GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO was notable for carrying the NVS-02 satellite, which is part of the navigation satellite series. The other options are incorrect as the launch count does not match ISRO’s actual launch records.
52. What is true of the 18th G20 Summit?
(A) It was held in Rio de Janeiro
(B) Its theme was : Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet
(C) The Rio de Janeiro Declaration emphasised the taxation of billionaires
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation: The 18th G20 Summit was not held in Rio de Janeiro, and none of the listed statements accurately reflect the theme or outcomes of the summit. Therefore, none of the above is correct.
53. The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:
(A) Aims to ban fossil fuels globally by 2030
(B) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing nations by 2030
(C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
54. Awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024, Han Kang’s novel ‘The Vegetarian’ won which other prestigious award?
(A) Pulitzer Prize
(B) Pen America Literary Awards
(C) International Booker Prize
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) International Booker Prize
Explanation: Han Kang’s novel ‘The Vegetarian’ received the International Booker Prize, which is awarded for outstanding translated fiction. It did not win the Pulitzer or Pen America awards.
55. Which glacier of Nepal among the following has been declared ‘dead’ in May 2025?
(A) Khumbu Glacier
(B) Yala Glacier
(C) Imja Glacier
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) Yala Glacier
Explanation: The Yala Glacier in Nepal was declared ‘dead’ in May 2025 due to extensive melting and loss of ice mass, indicating it can no longer sustain glacial movement or accumulation.
56. According to the UNDP, Human Development Index (HDI) Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?
(A) 72 years
(B) 73 years
(C) 74 years
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) 72 years
57. In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?
(A) Bengaluru
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) Paris
58. At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?
(A) La La Land
(B) Poor Things
(C) The Favourite
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) Poor Things
Explanation: At the 96th Academy Awards, Emma Stone won the Best Actress Oscar for her role in ‘Poor Things’, a film praised for its unique narrative and her compelling performance.
59. Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?
(A) Hellaro
(B) Chhello Show
(C) Kutch Express
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) Kutch Express
Explanation: ‘Kutch Express’ was awarded at the 70th National Film Awards for its promotion of national, social, and environmental values, highlighting regional culture and sustainability themes.
60. Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?
(A) Phuntsho, Karma
(B) Rural Doctors Movement
(C) Miyazaki Hayao
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024 recognized multiple recipients, including Phuntsho, Karma, the Rural Doctors Movement, and Miyazaki Hayao, for their contributions to public service, healthcare, and cultural impact.
61. Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?
(A) Akashteer is the core of the Indian Army’s Air Defence (AAD) system
(B) It seamlessly integrates India’s larger C4ISR
(C) It reflects a strategic shift from passive defence to proactive retaliation
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation:
Akashteer is a comprehensive command and control system for the Indian Army’s Air Defence. It integrates C4ISR capabilities, forming the core of the AAD system, and marks a strategic shift toward proactive retaliation rather than passive defence.
62. Which of the following defence platforms are part of India’s growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?
(A) F-35 Lightning II
(B) Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
(C) Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation:
Both MBT Arjun and ATAGS are indigenously developed platforms under the Make in India initiative, whereas F-35 Lightning II is a foreign-origin aircraft not part of India’s indigenous ecosystem.
63. Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?
(A) January 15
(B) January 27
(C) February 10
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) January 27
Explanation:
January 27 is globally recognized as Holocaust Memorial Day, marking the liberation of Auschwitz concentration camp and commemorating victims of the Holocaust.
64. What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?
(A) Light of the Heart
(B) Heart Lamp
(C) Soul Lantern
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) Heart Lamp
65. According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is not one of them?
(A) Jhelum
(B) Ravi
(C) Sutlej
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) Jhelum
Explanation:
Under the Indus Waters Treaty, Ravi, Sutlej, and Beas are allocated to India. Jhelum is a western river, allocated to Pakistan, making it not one of the eastern rivers.
66. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP?
- CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment.
- Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge.
- It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty.
- It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) Only 1
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation:
Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) focuses on child malnutrition and female illiteracy as indicators of health and educational deprivation, but does not include male illiteracy as a key metric.
67. Which of the following is not among the top ten principal commodities of India’s export during April-September 2024-25?
(A) Petroleum Products
(B) Iron and Steel
(C) Basmati Rice
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) Basmati Rice
Explanation:
While Petroleum Products and Iron and Steel consistently rank among India’s top export commodities, Basmati Rice, though significant, is not in the top ten for the specified period.
68. According to India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023) :
(A) The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.
(B) Top three states having largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.
(C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation:
The ISFR 2023 highlights multiple correct observations, including Maharashtra’s leading tree cover and forest area rankings, making more than one statement accurate.
69. Which of the following countries had greater share than India in the global services export in 2023?
(A) Russia
(B) Ireland
(C) Indonesia
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) Ireland
Explanation:
Ireland, with its strong IT and financial services sector, had a greater share in global services exports than India in 2023. Russia and Indonesia lag behind in this domain.
70. Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of Ministry of Health and Family welfare?
(A) It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates
(B) It facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts (ABHA) for parents and children.
(C) The portal is accessible in 11 regional languages
(D) None of the above
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation:
All listed features—QR-based certificates, ABHA account creation, and regional language accessibility—are correct attributes of the U-WIN portal, making none of them incorrect.
71. Which organization jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?
(A) Ministry of Electronics and IT
(B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
(C) NITI Aayog
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
Explanation: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) collaborated with MoHUA to develop the NUIS Digital Blueprint, aiming to streamline urban governance and innovation. Other options are not directly involved in this initiative.
72. Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31st October 2024?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) Rajasthan
Explanation: As of the specified date, Rajasthan recorded the highest constructed road length under the Bharatmala Pariyojana, a major infrastructure development program. Other states had significant contributions but not the highest.
73. Before the launch of Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), farmers used to submit manual claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes to which of the following institution/s?
(A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
(B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
(C) National Payments Corporation of India and Reserve Bank of India
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
Explanation: Prior to KRP, farmers submitted claims to the Ministry of Agriculture and NABARD, which managed the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes. Other institutions were not directly involved in claim processing.
74. India’s foreign exchange reserves:
(A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
(B) Are seventh largest in the world
(C) Decreased caused by a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion in 2024
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Multiple statements are correct: India’s forex reserves increased to around USD 640 billion, and it ranks among the top global holders. The BoP deficit also impacted reserve dynamics, making more than one option valid.
75. As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: According to NFHS-5 (2019-20) data, states like Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh had less than 6% of their population living in multidimensional poverty. On the other hand, Uttar Pradesh recorded a much higher percentage of multidimensionally poor population. Hence, the correct answer is that more than one state (A and B) fall in this category.
76. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme
b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI)
c) The Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative
d) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP)
List-II
- Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24
- Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries
- Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy
- Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021
a b c d
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3
Explanation: The PAT scheme targets emission reduction, MISHTI was introduced in Budget 2023-24, LiFE was launched at COP26, and NCAP began in 2019. This matching aligns with the correct chronology and purpose.
77. According to Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:
(A) There is greater increase in Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22
(B) Among the 36 states and union territories, 90% states have a Workforce Participation Rate (WPR) (for all ages) below the national average of 43.7 percent
(C) The share of female workers in agriculture has decreased significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: The PLFS 2023-24 highlights multiple trends: rural female LFPR increased, majority of states have WPR below national average, and female agricultural employment declined, validating more than one statement.
78. Which of the following was NOT the outcome of Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?
(A) One nation, one subscription
(B) Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF)
(C) Atal Innovation Mission
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) Atal Innovation Mission
Explanation: The Atal Innovation Mission was launched before 2020 and is not an outcome of the Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020, unlike the other initiatives which are directly linked.
79. Share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country’s Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from in 2020-21 to in 2022-23.
(A) 30.3%, 35.6%
(B) 27.3%, 30.1%
(C) 35.1%, 38.2%
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) 27.3%, 30.1%
Explanation: The MSME sector’s contribution to GVA rose from 27.3% in 2020-21 to 30.1% in 2022-23, reflecting its growing role in the economy. Other figures do not match official data.
80. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry?
- Around 87% of India’s cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
- India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
- Most cement plants in India are located far from raw material sources and near to the ports to support exports.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) 1
Explanation: The Indian cement industry is highly concentrated in Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh, accounting for 87% of production. India is second largest, not the largest, and most plants are near raw materials, not ports.
81. What is the primary objective of Bihar’s Mission Daksh?
(A) To increase school enrolment in primary schools in rural areas.
(B) To provide vocational training to teachers at senior-secondary level.
(C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies.
Explanation: Mission Daksh focuses on personalised mentoring to help underperforming students achieve grade-level competencies, rather than general enrolment or vocational training.
82. Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?
(A) Vibrancy in the education system
(B) Regulatory enablers for support
(C) International market expansion schemes
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (C) International market expansion schemes
Explanation: The YUVA framework emphasizes education vibrancy and regulatory support, but does not include international market expansion as a core component.
83. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar’s economic performance in 2023-24?
(A) Bihar’s per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 over the previous year.
(B) The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar’s GSVA (constant prices) in 2023-24 was 58.6%.
(C) The Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) formed 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24.
(D) More than one of the above.
Answer: (D) More than one of the above.
Explanation: Bihar’s economic indicators show growth in per capita GSDP, a dominant tertiary sector, and low GFCF, making multiple statements correct.
84. Consider the following statements :
- The proportion of the young population (0-19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041.
- Bihar’s demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041.
- The elderly population (60 + years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1 and 3 are correct
(C) 2 and 3 are correct
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (D) More than one of the above
Explanation: Bihar’s demographic trends show a decline in youth population, a peak in demographic dividend, and a sharp rise in elderly population, validating multiple statements.
85. According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describe the nature of employment among women in Bihar?
(A) Most women are employed in formal, regular wage jobs.
(B) The majority of women are self- employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.
(C) Majority of women were engaged in secondary sector
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (B) The majority of women are self- employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises.
Explanation: PLFS data highlights that most women in Bihar are self-employed, often as unpaid helpers in household enterprises, not in formal or secondary sector jobs.
86. The power to recruit the Secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:
(A) Staff Selection Commission
(B) Union Public Service Commission
(C) Prime Minister’s Office (PMO)
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer: (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Explanation: The Speaker of Lok Sabha holds the exclusive authority to recruit secretarial staff for the House of the People, not external commissions or offices.
87. Attorney General of India :
(A) Cannot participate in the proceedings in the House of Parliament
(B) He gives advice to the President on legal matters
(C) Is not entitled of audience except the Supreme Court
(D) Is a whole time counsel for the government
Answer: (B) He gives advice to the President on legal matters
Explanation: The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the President, and can participate in parliamentary proceedings, but is not a full-time counsel.
88. Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the constitution of India. Which of the following subjects belong to concurrent list?
- Protection of wildlife
- Income on Agriculture
- Tax on Electricity consumption or sale
- Price control
Out of these :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 4 are correct
(D) Only 2 is correct
Answer: (C) 1 and 4 are correct
Explanation: Protection of wildlife and price control are part of the Concurrent List, allowing both Centre and State to legislate on these subjects.
89. Which of the following Directive Principles do not follow Gandhian Principles?
- Organization of Village Panchayats
- Common Civil Code
- Promotion of cottage Industry in rural areas
- Right to work
(A) 2 and 4
(B) Only 2
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 3
Answer: (A) 2 and 4
Explanation: Common Civil Code and Right to work are not based on Gandhian ideals, which emphasize village panchayats and rural cottage industries.
90. Which pair is not correctly matched?
(A) Administration of scheduled areas – 6th schedule
(B) Forms of oath – 3rd schedule
(C) Allocation of seats in the council of state – 4th schedule
(D) Union List – 7th schedule
Answer: (A) Administration of scheduled areas – 6th schedule
Explanation: The 6th Schedule deals with autonomous districts in tribal areas, not scheduled areas administration, which is governed by 5th Schedule.
91. Consider the following statements about Central Government:
- Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister with consultation of the Cabinet Secretary.
- Every Minister is allocated Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Out of these :
(A) Only 1 is correct
(B) Only 2 is correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: (B) Only 2 is correct
Explanation: The President allocates ministries to ministers based on the Prime Minister’s advice, which makes statement 2 correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because ministries and departments are formed by the President, not by the Prime Minister in consultation with the Cabinet Secretary.
92. What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?
(A) It can discuss the conduct of any judge of the High Court also
(B) Advocate General has right to vote
(C) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.
(D) Validity of proceedings shall be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity
Answer: (C) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in official language of the state or in Hindi or in English.
Explanation: The language of legislative business is restricted to Hindi, English, or the official language of the state, as per constitutional provisions. The other options are incorrect because judicial conduct is not open to legislative discussion, Advocate General does not vote, and irregularities do not invalidate proceedings.
93. The constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights but reasonableness must keep in mind that :
- The interest of the general public is safeguarded
- Prevailing social value and also social needs are not bar
- Directive principles can be bypassed
- Collective good is not greater Out of these :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Only 1 is correct
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation: Reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights are justified when they protect public interest and align with social values and needs. Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect because Directive Principles cannot be bypassed and collective good often outweighs individual rights.
94. Who among the following determines the qualification which shall be requisite for appointment as member of the finance commission?
(A) Parliament by act
(B) Council of Ministers
(C) President of India
(D) Union Cabinet
Answer: (A) Parliament by act
Explanation: The Parliament determines qualifications for Finance Commission members through legislation, ensuring transparency and consistency. The President appoints members but does not define their qualifications.
95. Consider the following statements :
- The summoning of the House means convocation
- Prorogation ends a session
- Dissolution terminates a House
- Prorogation of a session can be effected by the leader of the House alone
Out of these which is not true?
(A) Only 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) Only 4
Answer: (D) Only 4
Explanation: Prorogation is done by the President, not by the leader of the House, making statement 4 incorrect. The other statements are true: summoning means calling the House, prorogation ends a session, and dissolution ends the House.
96. Who is empowered to review financial position of the Panchayats?
(A) Chairman of District Council
(B) Chairman of Block Committee
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor
Answer: (D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor
Explanation: The State Finance Commission, constituted by the Governor, is responsible for reviewing the financial position of Panchayats and recommending measures to improve their fiscal health.
97. The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in:
- Enhancing India’s manufacturing capabilities and exports across the industries
- Incentivizing foreign investments for domestic production**
(A) 1 is correct
(B) 2 is correct
(C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct
Explanation: The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme aims to boost domestic manufacturing and attract foreign investment, making both statements correct. It promotes self-reliance and export competitiveness.
98. What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(A) To increase people’s political awareness
(B) To increase employment
(C) To increase agriculture production
(D) To enable people to participate in development administration
Answer: (D) To enable people to participate in development administration
Explanation: The core objective of Panchayati Raj is to empower citizens to engage in local governance and development, ensuring grassroots participation in administrative processes.
99. What is true about Censure Motion?
(A) It is not mandatory to mention the reasons in this motion
(B) It is different from the No-confidence motion
(C) It is not different from No-confidence motion
(D) Permission of the House is not essential to present it
Answer: (B) It is different from the No-confidence motion
Explanation: A Censure Motion is used to criticize specific policies or actions of the government, while a No-confidence motion questions the government’s legitimacy. Hence, they are distinct in purpose and procedure.
100. Which one of the following subjects fall within the jurisdiction of both High Court and Supreme Court?
(A) Protection of fundamental rights
(B) Dispute among States
(C) Dispute between Centre and State
(D) Protection from the violation of the constitution
Answer: (A) Protection of fundamental rights
Explanation: Both the High Court and Supreme Court have jurisdiction over the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, under Article 226 and Article 32 respectively. Other disputes are generally handled by the Supreme Court alone.
101. pH value of 0.1 N HCI solution is approximately:
(A) 10
(B) 11.0
(C) 1.0
(D) 2.0
Answer: (C) 1.0
Explanation: The pH of a solution is calculated using the formula pH = -log[H⁺]. For a 0.1 N HCl solution, the concentration of hydrogen ions is 0.1 mol/L, so pH = -log(0.1) = 1.0. Since HCl is a strong acid, it dissociates completely, making the pH low.
102. Which Compound is known as night glowing pigment from below?
(A) Barium sulphate dopped copper carbonate
(B) Copper Sulphide dopped zinc oxide
(C) Europium dopped strontium aluminate
(D) Boron oxide dopped copper sulphate
Answer: (C) Europium dopped strontium aluminate
Explanation: Strontium aluminate doped with europium is widely used in glow-in-the-dark pigments due to its high brightness and long afterglow. The europium ions act as activators that absorb and slowly release light.
103. Which Material is used for smart film?
(A) Zinc chloride
(B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Indium tin oxide
(D) Silica
Answer: (C) Indium tin oxide
Explanation: Indium tin oxide (ITO) is a transparent conducting material commonly used in smart films and touchscreens. It allows electrical conductivity while maintaining optical transparency, essential for smart glass applications.
104. Which metal compound is used for treatment of carcinoma?
(A) Iron
(B) Chromium
(C) Platinum
(D) Chlorine
Answer: (C) Platinum
Explanation: Platinum-based compounds, such as cisplatin, are used in chemotherapy to treat various types of carcinomas. They work by damaging DNA in cancer cells, preventing replication and leading to cell death.
105. Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?
(A) Vanlaflexine
(B) Levonorgestrel
(C) Cholecalciferol
(D) Cetrizine
Answer: (B) Levonorgestrel
Explanation: Levonorgestrel is a synthetic hormone used in oral contraceptives. It mimics progesterone, preventing ovulation and altering the uterine lining, making it less suitable for implantation.
106. Why oil is not stored in galvanized iron pot?
(A) It produce toxic compound
(B) It reduced quality of oil
(C) Corrosion observed
(D) All of above
Answer: (D) All of above
Explanation: Galvanized iron contains zinc coating, which can react with oil, especially acidic components, leading to corrosion, toxicity, and degradation of oil quality. Hence, oil is not stored in such containers.
107. Which compound is used for increase of octane rating?
(A) Tetraethyllead
(B) Tetramethyl Oxide
(C) Trimethyl hexane
(D) Triethyl toluene
Answer: (A) Tetraethyllead
Explanation: Tetraethyllead was historically added to gasoline to increase octane rating, improving engine performance and reducing knocking. Though effective, it is now largely banned due to environmental toxicity.
108. Full form of PHBV biodegradable polymer:
(A) Poly (3 – Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate)
(B) Poly hydroxy butane veratric acid
(C) Polyhydroxy butyl vaniline
(D) Poly hydroxy butyric acid veratric acid
Answer: (A) Poly (3 – Hydroxy butyrate-co-3 hydroxy valerate)
Explanation: PHBV is a biodegradable copolymer made from hydroxybutyrate and hydroxyvalerate. It is used in medical applications and bioplastics due to its biocompatibility and environmental friendliness.
109. Hormones are secreted by:
(A) Exocrine glands
(B) Reproductive glands
(C) Sebaceous glands
(D) Endocrine glands
Answer: (D) Endocrine glands
Explanation: Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream, regulating various physiological processes. Examples include the pituitary, thyroid, and adrenal glands.
110. Which one of the following term characterizes the interaction between herpes simplex virus and a human?
(A) Endosymbiosis
(B) Symbiosis
(C) Parasitism
(D) Endoparasitism
Answer: (D) Endoparasitism
Explanation: Herpes simplex virus lives inside human cells, causing disease and benefiting at the host’s expense, which defines endoparasitism—a form of parasitism where the parasite resides within the host’s body.
111. Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?
(A) IgM
(B) IgA
(C) IgG
(D) IgE
Answer: (A) IgM
Explanation:
IgM is the first immunoglobulin produced during the initial immune response. It is primarily found in the blood and lymphatic fluid, and its pentameric structure allows it to effectively neutralize pathogens early in infection.
112. The biological membranes are composed of :
(A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle
(B) Lipids only
(C) Proteins only
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations which are specific to each species, cell type and organelle
Explanation:
Biological membranes are made of lipid bilayers embedded with proteins, forming a dynamic structure that varies across species, cell types, and organelles. This composition allows for selective permeability and cellular communication.
113. Which of the following is a non-sense codon?
(A) UUU
(B) AUG
(C) UAA
(D) UGC
Answer: (C) UAA
Explanation:
UAA is a stop codon, also called a non-sense codon, which signals the termination of protein synthesis during translation. It does not code for any amino acid, unlike UUU (phenylalanine) or AUG (start codon for methionine).
114. The species which are in danger of extinction are known as?
(A) Endan
(B) Rare
(C) Vulnerable
(D) Extinct
Answer: (A) Endan
Explanation:
The term Endan is a truncated form of Endangered, referring to species that are at high risk of extinction due to habitat loss, climate change, or human activities. These species require urgent conservation efforts.
115. Which of the following is a Kharif crop?
(A) Gram
(B) Barley
(C) Sugarcane
(D) Wheat
Answer: (C) Sugarcane
Explanation:
Sugarcane is a Kharif crop, typically sown with the onset of monsoon and harvested in late autumn. It thrives in warm, humid climates, unlike Gram and Wheat, which are Rabi crops grown in winter.
116. Xylem in plants is responsible for following function :
(A) Transport of oxygen and other gases
(B) Transport of foods
(C) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
(D) Transport of essential amino acids
Answer: (C) Transport of water and dissolved minerals
Explanation:
Xylem is a vascular tissue in plants that conducts water and dissolved minerals from the roots to the leaves. It plays a crucial role in plant hydration and nutrient distribution, not in food or gas transport.
117. Who was first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?
(A) Engler and Prantl
(B) Bentham and Hooker
(C) A P de Condolle
(D) More than one of the above
Answer: (A) Engler and Prantl
Explanation:
Engler and Prantl were among the first botanists to incorporate vascular tissue characteristics into plant classification, emphasizing evolutionary relationships and morphological traits in their system.
118. The part which we eat in Mango is :
(A) Epicarp
(B) Mesocarp
(C) Endocarp
(D) None of the above
Answer: (B) Mesocarp
Explanation:
The mesocarp is the fleshy, edible part of the mango fruit, located between the outer skin (epicarp) and the inner seed covering (endocarp). It contains nutrients and sugars, making it the consumable portion.
119. Ozone day is celebrated on :
(A) 21ª April
(B) 5th June
(C) 16th September
(D) 5th December
Answer: (C) 16th September
Explanation:
16th September is observed as International Ozone Day to commemorate the Montreal Protocol, which aims to protect the ozone layer by phasing out ozone-depleting substances.
120. In mycorrhizal association, the advantage of plant is :
(A) Protection
(B) Food
(C) (A) and (B) both
(D) Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection
Answer: (D) Increased mineral absorption and diseases protection
Explanation:
In a mycorrhizal association, fungi form a symbiotic relationship with plant roots, enhancing mineral absorption (especially phosphorus) and offering protection against soil pathogens, thereby improving plant health and growth.
121. Which Indian leader for the first time used the ‘safety-valve theory to attack the Moderates in the Congress?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(C) Dadabhai Naoroji
(D) Har Dayal
Answer: (A) Lala Lajpat Rai
Explanation: Lala Lajpat Rai was the first to use the ‘safety-valve theory’ to criticize the Moderates in Congress, suggesting that the British allowed Congress to form as a way to channel Indian discontent without threatening colonial rule.
122. At which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?
(A) Lord Hardinge
(B) Lord Minto
(C) Lord Curzon
(D) Lord Wavell
Answer: (A) Lord Hardinge
Explanation: A bomb was thrown at Lord Hardinge during his state entry into Delhi in 1912, marking a significant act of revolutionary resistance against British rule.
123. Who got an opportunity to become Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?
(A) Har Dayal
(B) Virendranath Chattopadhyay
(C) Sohan Singh Bhakna
(D) Shyamji Krishna Varma
Answer: (A) Har Dayal
Explanation: Har Dayal, a prominent Indian revolutionary, was appointed as Professor of Indian Philosophy at the University of California in 1911, reflecting his intellectual influence abroad.
124. Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim Communalism in the last decades of the 19th Century?
(A) William Morris
(B) Minto
(C) Dunlop Smith
(D) Theodore Beck
Answer: (D) Theodore Beck
Explanation: Theodore Beck, as Principal of M.A.O. College, played a role in promoting communal divisions, aligning with colonial strategies to weaken Indian unity.
125. ‘The Young India’, a Nationalist paper, was started by
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Answer: (C) Annie Besant
Explanation: Annie Besant launched ‘The Young India’ to promote nationalist ideas and Home Rule, contributing to the freedom movement through journalism.
126. Which Commission accentuated the discontent in all the political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member in it?
(A) Simon Commission
(B) Cripps Mission
(C) Welby Commission
(D) Cabinet Mission
Answer: (A) Simon Commission
Explanation: The Simon Commission, formed in 1927, faced widespread opposition because it included no Indian members, highlighting colonial disregard for Indian representation.
127. Who assumed the command of the Indian National Army and gave famous battle cry, ‘Chalo Delhi’?
(A) Shah Nawaz Khan
(B) Mohan Singh
(C) Rash Behari Bose
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer: (D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Explanation: Subhash Chandra Bose took command of the Indian National Army and coined the slogan ‘Chalo Delhi’, symbolizing a call to liberate India from British rule.
128. “We shall either free India or die in the attempt … ” who said it?
(A) Abul Kalam Azad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) V.D. Savarkar
Answer: (C) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru made this resolute declaration during the Quit India Movement, emphasizing the determination of Indian leaders to achieve freedom at any cost.
129. Who raised the cry “Divide and Quit”?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) M.A. Jinnah
(C) M.A. Ansari
(D) Muhammad Iqbal
Answer: (B) M.A. Jinnah
Explanation: M.A. Jinnah coined the slogan ‘Divide and Quit’ during the freedom struggle, advocating for the partition of India and the creation of Pakistan.
130. Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions – India and Pakistan?
(A) Govt. of India Act, 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act, 1935
(C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Explanation: The Indian Independence Act, 1947 was passed by the British Parliament, legally establishing the partition of India into India and Pakistan, ending colonial rule.
131. Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 in order to strengthen the activities of Home Rule League?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Annie Besant
(C) B.G. Tilak
(D) M.A. Ansari
Answer: (A) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi visited Bihar in 1918 to support the Home Rule League, marking his early involvement in grassroots political mobilization in the region. His visit laid the foundation for future mass movements in Bihar, including the Champaran Satyagraha.
132. Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed in agreement between:
(A) Indian Government and Rajendra Prasad
(B) Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
(C) Indian Government and Gandhiji
(D) Indian Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh
Answer: (C) Indian Government and Gandhiji
Explanation: The Champaran Agrarian Committee was formed following an agreement between Gandhiji and the Indian Government to investigate the grievances of indigo farmers. This was a result of Gandhiji’s non-violent protest and marked a turning point in India’s freedom struggle.
133. Who was the prominent leader of Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) Sahajanand Saraswati
(C) Raj Kumar Shukla
(D) Baba Ram Chandra
Answer: (B) Sahajanand Saraswati
Explanation: Sahajanand Saraswati was the key figure in the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar, advocating for peasant rights and organizing farmers against zamindari exploitation. His leadership helped shape the agrarian reform discourse in pre-independence India.
134. Who was murdered while hoisting the national flag under the area of Bikram Police Station?
(A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari
(B) Ram Narain of Bikrampur
(C) Satyendra of Gorakhari
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) Satyendra of Gorakhari
Explanation: Satyendra of Gorakhari was martyred while hoisting the national flag, symbolizing resistance against colonial rule. His sacrifice under the Bikram Police Station jurisdiction reflects the local courage during the freedom movement.
135. Who became Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939?
(A) Anugraha Narain Singh
(B) Rajendra Prasad
(C) Shri Krishna Singh
(D) None of the above
Answer: (C) Shri Krishna Singh
Explanation: Shri Krishna Singh assumed office as Chief Minister of Bihar in March 1939, becoming the first to hold the position. His tenure is noted for progressive reforms and institution-building in the newly formed provincial government.
**136. Match List I with List II
List-I
Places in Ancient India
a) Karnasuvarna
b) Pragjyotish
c) Girnar
d) Pratishthan
List-II
Presently in which State
- Maharashtra
- Gujarat
- West Bengal
- Assam**
(A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(B) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
(C) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Explanation:
- Karnasuvarna is located in West Bengal
- Pragjyotish corresponds to Assam
- Girnar is in Gujarat
- Pratishthan is in Maharashtra
This matching reflects the geographical continuity of ancient Indian sites with modern states.
137. Which one of the following is not related to the Rigvedic period?
(A) Apala
(B) Gargi
(C) Ghosha
(D) Vishvavara
Answer: (B) Gargi
Explanation: Gargi was a renowned philosopher from the later Vedic period, known for her metaphysical debates in the Upanishads. The others—Apala, Ghosha, and Vishvavara—are female sages mentioned in the Rigveda, making Gargi the exception.
**138. Match List I with List II
List-I
Event/Place
a) Chola Gangam Lake
b) Harshavardhan Dharma Mahamatra
c) Assembly at Prayag
d) Sudarshan Lake
List-II
Connected with Person
- Chandragupta Maurya
- Harshavardhan
- Rajendra I
- Ashoka**
(A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
(B) a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
(C) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
(D) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
Explanation:
- Chola Gangam Lake is associated with Rajendra I
- Dharma Mahamatra was a title used by Ashoka
- Assembly at Prayag was held by Harshavardhan
- Sudarshan Lake was maintained during Chandragupta Maurya’s reign
This matching highlights historical contributions of rulers to infrastructure and governance.
139. Who among the following rulers, ruled for the maximum period?
(A) Bahlol Lodi
(B) Muhammad bin Tughluq
(C) Alauddin Khilji
(D) Balban
Answer: (B) Muhammad bin Tughluq
Explanation: Muhammad bin Tughluq ruled for the longest duration among the listed rulers, from 1325 to 1351, known for his ambitious experiments and administrative reforms. His reign surpassed the tenure of Balban, Khilji, and Lodi.
140. Consider the following dynasties of Ancient India :
- Shunga
- Maurya
- Kushana
- Kanva
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of their rule?
(A) 2-3-1-4
(B) 1-2-3-4
(C) 2-1-4-3
(D) 2-1-3-4
Answer: (D) 2-1-3-4
Explanation: The correct sequence is:
- Maurya (322–185 BCE)
- Shunga (185–73 BCE)
- Kushana (1st–3rd century CE)
- Kanva (73–28 BCE)
This order reflects the historical progression of major dynasties in ancient India.
141. Which one of the following is not written by Tulsidas?
(A) Sahitya Lahari
(B) Vinay Patrika
(C) Geetavali
(D) Kavitavali
Answer: (A) Sahitya Lahari
Explanation:
Tulsidas is renowned for his devotional works in Awadhi and Sanskrit, including Vinay Patrika, Geetavali, and Kavitavali. Sahitya Lahari is not attributed to him, making it the correct answer.
142. Match List I with List II
List-I
a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque
b) Adhai Din Ka Jhopra
c) Allahabad Fort
d) Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum
List-II
- Qutb ud-Din Aibak
- Nur Jahan
- Akbar
- Babar
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (C) 4 1 3 2
Explanation:
Kabuli Bagh Mosque was built by Babar, Adhai Din Ka Jhopra by Qutb ud-Din Aibak, Allahabad Fort by Akbar, and Itmad-ud-Daulah Mausoleum by Nur Jahan. The correct matching is reflected in option (C).
143. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Person – Associated with
(A) Ramaswamy Naicker – Justice Party
(B) Dayananda Saraswati – Satyarth Prakash
(C) James Augustus Hicky – Calcutta Chronicle
(D) Jyotirao Phule – Satyashodhak Samaj
Answer: (C) James Augustus Hicky – Calcutta Chronicle
Explanation:
James Augustus Hicky was the founder of Hicky’s Bengal Gazette, not the Calcutta Chronicle. The other pairings are historically accurate, making option (C) the incorrect match.
144. Match List I with List II
List-I
a) Babar
b) Akbar
c) Shah Jahan
d) Jahangir
List-II
- Salim
- Khusrau
- Kamran
- Murad
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a b c d
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation:
Babar’s son was Kamran, Akbar’s son was Salim (Jahangir), Shah Jahan’s son was Murad, and Jahangir’s son was Khusrau. Option (B) correctly matches these relationships.
145. Which Buddhist council was not held in Bihar?
(A) Third
(B) Second
(C) First
(D) Fourth
Answer: (D) Fourth
Explanation:
The Fourth Buddhist Council was held in Kashmir, while the First, Second, and Third Councils were held in Bihar. Hence, the correct answer is the Fourth Council.
146. Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct?
- He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at Tripuri session of 1938 A.D.
- He escaped from home internment in January 1944 A.D.
- On October 21st 1943 A.D. he constituted the Provincial Government of India in Singapore.
(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) 1,2 and 3
Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3
Explanation:
Subhas Chandra Bose was elected Congress President in 1938 and formed the Provisional Government of Free India in Singapore in 1943. His escape from internment occurred in 1941, not 1944, making statement 2 incorrect.
147. Who among the following was not an Acharya in The Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya?
(A) Sheelbhadra
(B) Kautilya
(C) Nagarjuna
(D) Shantirakshit
Answer: (B) Kautilya
Explanation:
Kautilya (Chanakya) was associated with Takshashila, not Nalanda Vishvavidyalaya. The others—Sheelbhadra, Nagarjuna, and Shantirakshit—were prominent scholars at Nalanda.
148. Consider the following events of Modern Indian History –
- Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar
- Treaty of Salbai
- Battle of Wandiwash
- Death of Tipu Sultan
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of the above events?
(A) 2-4-1-3
(B) 3-1-2-4
(C) 2-3-4-1
(D) 3-2-1-4
Answer: (D) 3-2-1-4
Explanation:
Battle of Wandiwash (1760), Treaty of Salbai (1782), Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar (1785), and Death of Tipu Sultan (1799) occurred in that order. Option (D) reflects the correct chronological sequence.
149. Among the following Newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to get published?
(A) Akhbar-E-Bihar
(B) Patna Harkara
(C) Bihar Bandhu
(D) Bihar Herald
Answer: (C) Bihar Bandhu
Explanation:
Bihar Bandhu, launched in 1872, was the first newspaper published in Bihar. The others came later, making it the correct answer.
150. Match List I with List II
| List I | List II |
|---|---|
| (a) Champaran Satyagrah | (1) Jayaprakash Narayan |
| (b) Azad Dasta | (2) Shyam Narayan Singh |
| (c) Individual Satyagrah in Bihar 1940 | (3) Sahajanand Saraswati |
| (d) Kisan Sabha Bihar | (4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad |
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
| a | b | c | d | |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| (A) | 1 | 4 | 3 | 2 |
| (B) | 2 | 3 | 1 | 4 |
| (C) | 4 | 2 | 3 | 1 |
| (D) | 4 | 1 | 2 | 3 |
Answer: (D) 4 1 2 3
a) Champaran Satyagrah → Dr. Rajendra Prasad
b) Azad Dasta → Jayaprakash Narayan
c) Individual Satyagrah in Bihar 1940 → Shyam Narayan Singh
d) Kisan Sabha Bihar → Sahajanand Saraswati