#1. Which of the following Miss World Title holders are from India?
(1) Diana Hayden
(2) Yukta Mookhay
(3) Priyanka Chopra
(4) Manushi Chillar
(A) (3) and (4)
(B) (2), (3) and (4)
(C) (1), (2) and (3)
(D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Correct Answer: (D) (1), (2), (3) and (4)
Explanation: All the options listed (Diana Hayden, Yukta Mookhay, Priyanka Chopra, and Manushi Chillar) are Miss World Title holders from India.
#2. What is the rank of India in the Inclusive Development Index as given by the World Economic Forum?
(A) 50th
(B) 60th
(C) 55th
(D) 66th
Correct Answer: (B) 60th
Explanation: India is ranked 60th in the Inclusive Development Index as given by the World Economic Forum.
#3. What is the theme of the International Day for Disaster Reduction, 2017?
(A) Living with Disabilities and Disasters
(B) Knowledge for Life
(C) Resilience is for Life
(D) Home Safe Home: Reducing Exposure, Reducing Displacement
Correct Answer: (C) Resilience is for Life
Explanation: The theme for the International Day for Disaster Reduction in 2017 was “Resilience is for Life.”
#4. Give It Up campaign is related to which of the following?
(A) Tobacco use
(B) Alcohol use
(C) LPG subsidy
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) LPG subsidy
Explanation: The Give It Up campaign is related to LPG subsidy, where individuals voluntarily give up their LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) subsidy to support those in need.
#5. Recently, the International Union of concerned scientists down-listed which of the following from the list of endangered to vulnerable species?
(A) Black-necked crane
(B) Snow leopard
(C) Black falcon
(D) Polar bear
Correct Answer: (B) Snow leopard
Explanation: The International Union of concerned scientists recently down-listed the Snow leopard from the list of endangered species to vulnerable species, indicating a positive conservation trend for this species.
#6. Taking into view the Naxal attack in Sukma, what was the Ministry of Home Affairs’ response to the Naxal Problem?
(A) Sampada scheme
(B) Samadhan doctrine
(C) Jigyasa initiative
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (B) Samadhan doctrine
Explanation: The Ministry of Home Affairs’ response to the Naxal Problem was the implementation of the Samadhan doctrine.
#7. Which of the following ports are used by China for its string of pearls policy?
(A) Hambantota
(B) Gwadar
(C) Bandar Abbas
(D) (A) and (B)
Correct Answer: (D) (A) and (B)
Explanation: China uses the ports of Hambantota and Gwadar for its string of pearls policy, which aims to establish a network of naval bases and commercial ports across the Indian Ocean region.
#8. The International Astronomical Union (IAU) has named two mountain ranges on the dwarf planet Pluto after whom?
(A) Tenzing Norgay and Arunima Sinha
(B) Arunima Sinha and Edmund Hillary
(C) Edmund Hillary and Kalpana Chawla
(D) Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary
Correct Answer: (D) Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary
Explanation: The International Astronomical Union (IAU) has named two mountain ranges on the dwarf planet Pluto after Tenzing Norgay and Edmund Hillary, the first climbers to reach the summit of Mount Everest.
#9. Name the Indian boxer who won the gold medal in the 2017 Asian Women’s Boxing Championship?
(A) Kavita Chahal
(B) Pinki Rani
(C) Mary Kom
(D) Kavita Goyat
Correct Answer: (C) Mary Kom
Explanation: Mary Kom, an Indian boxer, won the gold medal in the 2017 Asian Women’s Boxing Championship.
#10. India has been re-elected as a member of the Executive Board of which organization of the UNO?
(A) UNICEF
(B) WHO
(C) UNESCO
(D) ICJ
Correct Answer: (C) UNESCO
Explanation: India has been re-elected as a member of the Executive Board of UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization).
(Note: The United Nations has multiple specialized agencies, and India’s membership in different boards may vary.)
#11. Which state became the first state of India to ratify the GST bill?
(A) Assam
(B) Telangana
(C) Bihar
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Correct Answer: (B) Assam
Explanation: Assam became the first state in India to ratify the GST (Goods and Services Tax) bill.
#12. GST was introduced as the Amendment Act.
(A) 100
(B) 101
(C) 102
(D) 103
Correct Answer: (B) 101
Explanation: GST (Goods and Services Tax) was introduced as the 101st Amendment Act.
#13. Which denomination note was introduced immediately after announcing Demonetization?
(A) 200
(B) 400
(C) 2000
(D) 1000
Correct Answer: (C) 2000
Explanation: The 2000 rupee denomination note was introduced immediately after the announcement of Demonetization in India.
#14. Which state government has put in force the ‘No helmet, no petrol’ rule for two-wheeler riders?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Correct Answer: (A) Gujarat
Explanation: The state government of Gujarat has implemented the ‘No helmet, no petrol’ rule for two-wheeler riders.
#15. Indica was written by:
(A) Strabo
(B) Megasthenes
(C) Justin
(D) Pliny
Correct Answer: (B) Megasthenes
Explanation: Indica was written by the Greek historian and geographer Megasthenes.
#16. The Rajatarangini composed by Kalhana in the twelfth century is the main source of:
(A) History of Assam
(B) History of Nepal
(C) History of Medieval Kashmir
(D) Post-Gupta Economics
Correct Answer: (C) History of Medieval Kashmir
Explanation: The Rajatarangini, composed by Kalhana in the twelfth century, is the main source of the history of Medieval Kashmir.
#17. Match the List – I with List – II and select the code given below:
| List – I (Scholars) | List – II (Original homeland of the Aryans) |
|---|---|
| (a) Dayanand Saraswati | 1. Central Asia |
| (b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak | 2. Tibet |
| (c) Max Muller | 3. Sapta Sindhu Region |
| (d) Ganganath Jha | 4. Arctic Region |
(A) (a-2), (b-4), (c-1), (d-3)
(B) (a-1), (a-2), (c-4), (d-3)
(C) (a-2), (a-1), (c-4), (d-3)
(D) (a-1), (b-3), (c-4), (d-2)
Explanation: There is no correct match.
#18. King Ashoka became Buddhist after he was horrified by the tyranny of the Kalinga War. It was in:
(A) 258 B.C.
(B) 260 B.C.
(C) 200 B.C.
(D) 327 B.C.
Correct Answer: (B) 260 B.C.
Explanation: King Ashoka became a Buddhist after the Kalinga War, which took place in 260 B.C.
#19. Which of the following Odisha type Nagara style temples are found at Bhubaneswar?
- Jagannath temple
- Lingaraja temple
- Sun temple
- Mukteswar temple
- Parasurameswara temple
Choose the answers from the codes below:
(A) 4 and 5
(B) 2 only
(C) 2, 4, and 5
(D) 1, 3, and 5
Correct Answer: (C) 2, 4, and 5
Explanation: The Lingaraja temple, Mukteswar temple, and Parasurameswara temple are the Odisha type Nagara style temples found at Bhubaneswar.
#20. The story that Alauddin Khilji invaded to secure Padmini, the queen of Rana Ratna Singh of Mewar, was vividly described by:
(A) Malik Muhammad Jayasi in his epic Padmavat
(B) Ibn-Batuta in his Rehla
(C) Amir Khusrau in Khazain ul Futuh
(D) Col. J. Todd in Annals and Antiquities of Rajasthan
Correct Answer: (A) Malik Muhammad Jayasi in his epic Padmavat
Explanation: The story of Alauddin Khilji invading to secure Padmini, the queen of Rana Ratna Singh of Mewar, was vividly described by Malik Muhammad Jayasi in his epic poem “Padmavat.”
#21. Who among these was never elected to the Presidentship of INC?
(A) George Yule
(B) Alfred Webb
(C) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (Badsah Khan)
(D) Nawab Syed
Correct Answer: (C) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (Badsah Khan)
Explanation: Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan (Badsah Khan) was never elected to the President-ship of the Indian National Congress (INC).
#22. Which among the following places were set up as Vedanta Centres when Swami Vivekananda visited the U.S.A. in 1899?
- Chicago
- New York
- San Francisco
- Los Angeles
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Correct Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation: Vedanta Centres were set up in Chicago and New York when Swami Vivekananda visited the U.S.A. in 1899.
#23. Who moved (and withdrew) a resolution for the enfranchisement of women in the 1917 Session of the Indian National Congress?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
(D) Aruna Asaf Ali
Correct Answer: (A) Annie Besant
Explanation: Annie Besant moved and withdrew a resolution for the enfranchisement of women in the 1917 Session of the Indian National Congress.
#24. V.D. Savarkar authored the book:
(A) Eighteen Fifty Seven
(B) The Sepoy Mutiny
(C) The Indian War of Independence
(D) Rebellions in the Indian Mutinies
Correct Answer: (C) The Indian War of Independence
Explanation: V.D. Savarkar authored the book “The Indian War of Independence.”
#25. Which of the following peasant movements is not properly matched with the state in which it was launched?
(A) Moplah Rebellion – Kerala
(B) Pabna Agrarian Movement – Maharashtra
(C) Kisan Sabha and Ekta (Unity) Movement – Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bardoli Satyagraha – Gujarat
Correct Answer: (B) Pabna Agrarian Movement – Maharashtra
Explanation: The Pabna Agrarian Movement was not launched in Maharashtra; its correct association is with Bengal, specifically the Pabna district.
#26. Who founded the Satyabadi School with Nationalist Spirit in Odisha?
(A) Acharya Harihar
(B) Madhusudhan Rao
(C) Gopabandhu Das
(D) Kripasindhu Mishra
Correct Answer: (C) Gopabandhu Das
Explanation: Gopabandhu Das founded the Satyabadi School with a nationalist spirit in Odisha.
#27. Who among these was not a member of the Cabinet Mission?
(A) A. V. Alexander
(B) Archibald Wavell
(C) Stafford Cripps
(D) Pethick Lawrence
Correct Answer: (B) Archibald Wavell
Explanation: Archibald Wavell was not a member of the Cabinet Mission.
#28. The greatest crisis that Akbar faced in 1580-81 was when:
(A) Salim revolted
(B) The disgruntled nobles and officers declared Akbar’s half brother Mirza Hakim as their ruler
(C) Rana Pratap escaped from the battle of Haldighat
(D) Yusufzais revolted in the North West Frontier
Correct Answer: (D) Yusufzais revolted in the North West Frontier
Explanation: The greatest crisis that Akbar faced in 1580-81 was the revolt of the Yusufzais in the North West Frontier.
#29. Which of the following rock types is Quartzite related to?
(A) Igneous Rocks
(B) Sedimentary Rocks
(C) Metamorphic Rocks
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Metamorphic Rocks
Explanation: Quartzite is related to metamorphic rocks. It is formed when sandstone undergoes intense heat and pressure.
#30. Which of the following towns of India is located on the Tropic of Cancer?
(A) Bhuj
(B) Bhopal
(C) Gandhinagar
(D) Banswada
Correct Answer: (B) Bhopal
Explanation: Bhopal is located on the Tropic of Cancer.
#31. On the basis of area, which of the following is the correct descending order of Indian Union Territories?
(A) Delhi, Puducherry, and Andaman and Nicobar
(B) Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar, and Delhi
(C) Andaman and Nicobar, Delhi, and Puducherry
(D) Andaman and Nicobar, Puducherry, and Delhi
Correct Answer: (C) Andaman and Nicobar, Delhi, and Puducherry
#32. Which of the following mountains is the oldest?
(A) Dinaric Alps
(B) Aravalli
(C) Tlenshan
(D) Satpura
Correct Answer: (B) Aravalli
Explanation: The Aravalli Range is considered the oldest mountain range in India.
#33. Which of the following pairs of Indian Forests is not correctly matched?
(A) Monsoon Forest – Teak
(B) Mangrove Forest – Sundari
(C) Evergreen Forest – Rosewood
(D) Savanna Forest – Pipal
Correct Answer: (D) Savanna Forest – Pipal
Explanation: The Savanna Forest is not correctly matched with the Pipal tree. Savanna forests are characterized by grasses and scattered trees, while the Pipal tree is associated with deciduous forests.
#34. On which of the following Indian Rivers, the Matatila Project has been constructed?
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Yamuna
(D) Narmada
Correct Answer: (C) Yamuna
Explanation: The Matatila Project has been constructed on the Yamuna River.
#35. The ideal temperature of ocean water for the growth of Corals is:
(A) 10°C -15°C
(B) 15°C -20°C
(C) 20°C -25°C
(D) 25°C -30°C
Correct Answer: (C) 20°C -25°C
Explanation: The ideal temperature range for the growth of corals is typically between 20°C and 25°C.
#36. Tropical cyclones are not found between 10° north latitude and 10° south latitude due to:
(A) High Temperature
(B) Low Salinity
(C) Great Depth of Water
(D) Minimum Coriolis Effect
Correct Answer: (D) Minimum Coriolis Effect
Explanation: Tropical cyclones require the Coriolis effect, which is the result of the Earth’s rotation, to develop. Near the equator, the Coriolis effect is minimal, which prevents the formation of tropical cyclones in the region.
#37. Which of the following is famous for the Cotton Textile Industry?
(A) Lancashire
(B) Newcastle
(C) Sheffield
(D) Durham
Correct Answer: (A) Lancashire
Explanation: Lancashire in England is famous for the Cotton Textile Industry.
#38. Which of the following metals are the Zawar mines of Udaipur famous for?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Mica
(C) Zinc
(D) Manganese
Correct Answer: (C) Zinc
Explanation: The Zawar mines of Udaipur are famous for zinc.
#39. Which of the following Indian states is the greatest producer of wind energy?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Karnataka
(D) Rajasthan
Correct Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu
Explanation: Tamil Nadu is the greatest producer of wind energy among the given Indian states. It has a favorable geographical location and consistently experiences strong winds, making it an ideal region for wind power generation. The state has made significant investments in wind energy infrastructure and has a large number of wind farms, contributing significantly to India’s overall wind energy production.
#40. Which of the following Iron and Steel Plants does not function under the Steel Authority of India Limited?
(A) Durgapur
(B) Rourkela
(C) Bhilai
(D) Jamshedpur
Correct Answer: (D) Jamshedpur
Explanation: Jamshedpur is not under the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL). It is home to the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO), which is an independent entity.
#41. The Pygmy tribe is associated with:
(A) Sahara
(B) Congo Basin
(C) East Africa
(D) Kalahari
Correct Answer: (B) Congo Basin
Explanation: The Pygmy tribe is associated with the Congo Basin, which is located in Central Africa.
#42. Which of the following countries has the highest Anthracite Coal reserves?
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) China
(D) U.K.
Correct Answer: (A) Russia
Explanation: Russia has the highest reserves of Anthracite Coal among the given options.
#43. Which of the following are matters on which the Parliament has the power to modify provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority?
- Alteration of names, boundaries, and areas of States
- Appointment of Additional Judges
- Abolition of the second chamber of the State Legislature
- Administration of Scheduled Areas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1, 2, and 3
(B) 1, 2, and 4
(C) None of the options
(D) 2, 3, and 4
Correct Answer: (A) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: The Parliament has the power to modify provisions of the Constitution by a simple majority on matters such as alteration of names, boundaries, and areas of States; appointment of Additional Judges; and abolition of the second chamber of the State Legislature.
#44. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Patel
Correct Answer: (C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
#45. The Indian Federation is based on the pattern of:
(A) Switzerland
(B) USA
(C) Russia
(D) Canada
Correct Answer: (D)
Solution: India’s federal system draws inspiration from the Canadian model of federalism. Similar to Canada, India has a dual system of government with powers divided between the central government and the states. The distribution of powers, the role of the judiciary, and the existence of a federal structure are some of the similarities between the two countries.
#46. Which of the following are included in the Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India?
- Uniform Civil Code for the citizens
- Separation of Judiciary from Executive
- Protection of monuments of national importance
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 1, 2, and 3
Correct Answer: (D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India include the objectives of a Uniform Civil Code, separation of Judiciary from Executive, and protection of monuments of national importance.
#47. The philosophical postulates of the Constitution of India are based on:
(A) Nehru Report, 1928
(B) Objective Resolution of Pandit Nehru, 1947
(C) Mahatma Gandhi’s article “Independence in Young India,” 1922
(D) Indian National Congress’s Resolution for Complete Independence, 1929
Correct Answer: (B) Objective Resolution of Pandit Nehru, 1947
Explanation: The philosophical postulates of the Constitution of India are based on the Objective Resolution moved by Pandit Nehru in 1947.
#48. Who, among the following, was not a member of the State Reorganization Commission (SRC) appointed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru?
(A) Justice Fazi Ali
(B) Potti Sriramulu
(C) K. M. Panikar
(D) Haridayanath Kunzru
Correct Answer: (B) Potti Sriramulu
Explanation: Potti Sriramulu was not a member of the State Reorganization Commission (SRC) appointed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.
#49. Under Article 368, the Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because these are:
(A) Enshrined in Part-3 of the Constitution
(B) Human Rights
(C) Transcendental Rights
(D) Part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution
Correct Answer: (D) Part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution
Explanation: Fundamental Rights are considered part of the basic structure of the Constitution, and therefore, the Parliament does not have the power to repeal them under Article 368.
#50. Which of the following is not an element of a ‘Secular State’ in India?
(A) Civil equality
(B) Taxation on religious property
(C) Freedom of religion
(D) No religious education by the state
Correct Answer: (B) Taxation on religious property
Explanation: Taxation on religious property is not considered an element of a ‘Secular State’ in India.
#51. Which of the following Acts introduced a bi-Cameral Legislature at the central level in India?
(A) Indian Council Act, 1909
(B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
Correct Answer: (C) The Government of India Act, 1935
Explanation: The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced a bi-Cameral Legislature at the central level in India.
#52. Who said, “All communalism is harmful. The logic of minority communalism is separatism, and majority communalism culminates in fascism”?
(A) Ashis Nandy
(B) Bipan Chandra
(C) Zoya Hasan
(D) Bhikhu Parekh
Correct Answer: (A) Ashis Nandy
Explanation: Ashis Nandy made the statement, “All communalism is harmful. The logic of minority communalism is separatism, and majority communalism culminates in fascism.”
#53. Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides for a special provision with respect to which of the following state(s)?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Assam
(C) Nagaland and Sikkim
(D) Maharashtra and Gujarat
Correct Answer: (C) Nagaland and Sikkim
Explanation: Article 371 of the Constitution of India provides for a special provision with respect to the states of Nagaland and Sikkim.
#54. Which of the following is not a correct statement regarding the unitary system?
(A) In a unitary system, there is one State and one Government
(B) There is a constitutional division of powers between the Central and the Local Governments
(C) Local bodies derive their power and autonomy from the Central Government
(D) A unitary system is particularly suited for a small country
Correct Answer: (B) There is a constitutional division
#55. 73rd Amendment does not apply to the states of:
- Nagaland
- Mizoram
- Jammu and Kashmir
- Meghalaya
elect the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1, 2 and 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Correct Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Explanation: The 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India, which relates to Panchayati Raj Institutions, does not apply to the states of Nagaland, Mizoram, Jammu and Kashmir, and Meghalaya.
#56. The Chairman and members of the UPSC hold office for the term of:
(A) Three years
(B) Four years
(C) Five years
(D) Six years
Correct Answer: (D) Six years
Explanation: The Chairman and members of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) hold office for a term of six years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
#57. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India?
(A) Written Constitution and Supremacy of the Constitution
(B) Quasi-federal structure
(C) Committed Judiciary
(D) Distribution of Powers
Correct Answer: (C) Committed Judiciary
Explanation: The term “Committed Judiciary” is not a salient feature of the Constitution of India. The correct term is “Independent Judiciary.”
#58. Which of the following is not a cause of Inequality in India?
(A) Inequality in the ownership of assets
(B) Laws of Inheritance
(C) Corruption and Smuggling
(D) Growth of the Service Sector in India
Correct Answer: (D) Growth of the Service Sector in India
Explanation: The growth of the service sector in India is not a cause of inequality. In fact, the growth of the service sector has contributed to employment opportunities and economic development.
#59. Which of the following is not an objective of NITI Aayog?
(A) Allocating financial resources to states
(B) To foster cooperative federalism by evolving a shared vision of National Development Priorities
(C) To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans to the village level and aggregate these progressively at higher levels of government
(D) To pay attention to the weaker sections of society that may not have benefited from economic progress
Correct Answer: (A) Allocating financial resources to states
Explanation: Allocating financial resources to states is not specifically mentioned as an objective of NITI Aayog. However, NITI Aayog does play a role in facilitating resource allocation and policy coordination between the central and state governments.
#60. Which statement depicts the best definition of Sustainable Development?
(A) It means optimal utilization of natural resources
(B) Sustainable use of natural resources without considering the needs of future generations
(C) The present generation fulfills its needs while considering the needs of future generations as well
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) The present generation fulfills its needs while considering the needs of future generations as well
Explanation: Sustainable Development refers to a development approach that aims to meet the needs of the present generation without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
#61. Which of the following is not a cause of the growing consumer goods market in India?
(A) Growth of the middle class in India
(B) Urbanization
(C) Liberalization policy of the Government
(D) Growing inequality in India
Correct Answer: (D) Growing inequality in India
Explanation: Growing inequality in India is not a direct cause of the growing consumer goods market. The other factors listed contribute to the expansion of the consumer goods market.
#62. NAFED is a cooperative organization of the:
(A) State Level
(B) National Level
(C) District Level
(D) Panchayat Level
Correct Answer: (B) National Level
Explanation: NAFED (National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd.) is a cooperative organization that operates at the national level in India.
#63. ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ is run by:
(A) Scheduled Commercial Banks
(B) Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance
(C) Ministry of Rural Development
(D) Reserve Bank of India
Correct Answer: (B) Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance
Explanation: ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana’ is run by the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance, with the involvement of Scheduled Commercial Banks.
#64. What does it mean by Human Capital Formation?
(A) Development of Infrastructure for the Economy
(B) Development of abilities and skills of people
(C) Increase in the stock of machines, equipment, buildings in the Economy
(D) Growth of Bank deposits
Correct Answer: (B) Development of abilities and skills of people
Explanation: Human Capital Formation refers to the development of abilities and skills of individuals through education, training, and other forms of investment in human resources.
#65. The main argument to establish ‘Special Economic Zones’ in India is:
(A) To give a boost to the export of manufactured goods
(B) To promote the export of agricultural goods
(C) To give a boost to domestic demand for manufactured goods
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (A) To give a boost to the export of manufactured goods
Explanation: The main argument behind establishing ‘Special Economic Zones’ in India is to provide a favorable environment for the export of manufactured goods, attracting foreign investment and promoting economic growth.
#66. Janani Surakhsha Yojana is a:
(A) Hundred percent Centrally Sponsored Scheme
(B) Hundred percent State Sponsored Scheme
(C) Centre and state have a 50:50 share
(D) Fully sponsored by the private sector
Correct Answer: (A) Hundred percent Centrally Sponsored Scheme
Explanation: Janani Suraksha Yojana is a hundred percent Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by the Government of India to promote institutional deliveries and reduce maternal and neonatal mortality.
#67. Inclusive Growth in India can be achieved:
(A) Through a Progressive tax
(B) Through a Regressive tax
(C) Through a Proportional tax
(D) By completely scrapping all taxes
Correct Answer: (A) Through a Progressive tax
Explanation: Inclusive Growth in India can be achieved through a progressive tax system, which ensures that the burden of taxation falls more on higher-income individuals and promotes redistributive policies.
#68. Payment Banks are different from other Commercial Banks in the following ways:
(A) These banks only accept deposits
(B) Only provide payments and remittance services
(C) Only distribute third-party financial products
(D) Accept deposits, provide payments and remittance services, distribute third-party financial products but are not allowed to lend or issue cards
Correct Answer: (D) Accept deposits, provide payments and remittance services, distribute third-party financial products but are not allowed to lend or issue cards
Explanation: Payment Banks differ from other Commercial Banks as they are allowed to accept deposits, provide payments and remittance services, and distribute third-party financial products, but they are not permitted to lend or issue credit cards.
#69. Usual Principal Status Employment is measured in:
(A) Number of persons who did not find even an hour of work during the survey week
(B) Number of persons who remained unemployed for a major part of the year
(C) Number of persons who did not find work in a day or some days during the survey week
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C) Number of persons who did not find work in a day or some days during the survey week
Explanation: Usual Principal Status Employment is measured by identifying the number of persons who did not find work on a day or for some days during the survey week, indicating their employment status.
#70. Tendulkar Committee was appointed on:
(A) Poverty Estimation
(B) Industry Sector Reforms
(C) Bank Frauds
(D) Public Welfare
Correct Answer: (A) Poverty Estimation
Explanation: The Tendulkar Committee was appointed to revise the methodology for estimating poverty in India, resulting in the formulation of the Tendulkar Poverty Line.
Source: Licchavi Lyceum
#71. Which of the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment flows into India during the recent years?
(A) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(B) Services Sector
(C) Food Processing
(D) Telecommunication
Correct Answer: (B) Services Sector
Explanation: The services sector has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) flows into India during recent years. This includes sectors such as IT services, financial services, and hospitality.
#72. Three US Scientists have been awarded the Nobel prize in Physics for their work on gravitational waves. Which of the following is not one of them?
(A) Rainer Weiss
(B) Kip Thorne
(C) Barry Barish
(D) Jay Hannigam
Correct Answer: (D) Jay Hannigam
Explanation: Jay Hannigam is not one of the US scientists who were awarded the Nobel prize in Physics for their work on gravitational waves. The correct name is Rainer Weiss, Kip Thorne, and Barry Barish.
#73. Dark-colored soil with high water-holding capacity is considered highly productive as it contains:
(A) High clay content
(B) Sand and calcium
(C) Clay and humus
(D) Silt and earthworms
Correct Answer: (C) Clay and humus
Explanation: Dark-colored soil with high water-holding capacity is considered highly productive because it contains a good amount of clay, which helps retain moisture, and humus, which provides nutrients to plants.
Read: Black Soil
#74. The introduction of new life forms in a denuded habitat is initiated by the process of:
(A) Ecesis
(B) Aggregation
(C) Migration
(D) Coactions
Correct Answer: (A) Ecesis
Explanation: The introduction of new life forms in a denuded habitat is initiated by the process of ecesis. Ecesis refers to the colonization of an area by organisms and the establishment of a new biological community.
#75. Biological equilibrium is the balance between:
(A) Producers and consumers
(B) Producers and nutrients
(C) Consumers and ecological factors
(D) Producers, consumers, and decomposers
Correct Answer: (C) Consumers and ecological factors
Explanation: Biological equilibrium refers to the balance between consumers (organisms that consume other organisms) and ecological factors (such as availability of resources, predation, competition, etc.) in an ecosystem.
#76. In a pond ecosystem, the BOD increases due to:
(A) Photosynthetic activity of algae
(B) High density of aquatic macrophytes
(C) High density of fish
(D) Increase in the population of bacteria
Correct Answer: (D) Increase in the population of bacteria
Explanation: In a pond ecosystem, the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) increases due to an increase in the population of bacteria. Bacteria consume organic matter and, in the process, consume oxygen, leading to an increase in BOD.
#77. Ozone layer in the stratosphere is affected by the increase in the atmospheric concentration of:
(A) CO₂
(B) NH₃
(C) SO₂
(D) CFC
Correct Answer: (D) CFC
Explanation: The increase in the atmospheric concentration of Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) affects the ozone layer in the stratosphere. CFCs contribute to the depletion of ozone and the formation of the ozone hole.
#78. Considering the global warming potential of CO₂ as one, the global warming potential of CH₄ has been estimated to be approximately:
(A) 12
(B) 15
(C) 21
(D) 35
Correct Answer: (C) 21
Explanation: Considering the global warming potential of Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) as one, the global warming potential of Methane (CH₄) has been estimated to be approximately 21 times more potent in terms of trapping heat in the atmosphere.
#79. The pollutants like phenol and mercury can be removed from water by:
(A) Sedimentation
(B) Electro-dialysis
(C) Filtration
(D) Biological oxidation
Correct Answer: (B) Electro-dialysis
Explanation: The pollutants like phenol and mercury can be removed from water by using the technique of electro-dialysis. Electro-dialysis involves the use of an electric field to separate charged particles from water.
#80. The pollutant generated in high quantity by the thermal power plants is:
(A) SO₂
(B) CO
(C) NH₃
(D) Fly ash
Correct Answer: (D) Fly ash
Explanation: The pollutant generated in high quantity by thermal power plants is fly ash. Fly ash is a fine powder consisting of ash particles that are produced during the combustion of coal in power plants.
#81. Which of the following cities is associated with the organization of the “Earth Summit”?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Geneva
(C) Rio-de-Janeiro
(D) Sydney
Correct Answer: (C) Rio-de-Janeiro
Explanation: The “Earth Summit,” also known as the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), was held in Rio-de-Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
#82. LNG stands for:
(A) Liquid Nitrogen Gas
(B) Liquefied Nitrogen Gas
(C) Liquid Neon Gas
(D) Liquefied Natural Gas
Correct Answer: (D) Liquefied Natural Gas
Explanation: LNG stands for Liquefied Natural Gas. It is natural gas that has been cooled to a liquid state for easier storage and transportation.
#83. Kyoto Protocol was signed by member countries at Kyoto (Japan) in:
(A) 1995
(B) 1997
(C) 1999
(D) 2003
Correct Answer: (B) 1997
Explanation: The Kyoto Protocol, an international treaty aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions, was signed by member countries in Kyoto, Japan, in 1997.
#84. The first nuclear reactor in India was built in the year 1956. Its name was:
(A) Kamini
(B) Rohini
(C) Bhaskar
(D) Apsara
Correct Answer: (D) Apsara
Explanation: The first nuclear reactor in India was named Apsara. It was a research reactor that became operational in 1956 at the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) in Mumbai.
#85. What is a bio-gas plant?
(A) Digester
(B) Aerobic digester
(C) Anaerobic digester
(D) Gassifier
Correct Answer: (C) Anaerobic digester
Explanation: A bio-gas plant is an anaerobic digester where organic waste materials, such as agricultural residues or animal manure, are broken down by bacteria in the absence of oxygen to produce bio-gas, primarily methane.
#86. What does OTEC stand for?
(A) Odisha Thermal Energy Corporation
(B) Ocean Temperature Energy Conversion
(C) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
(D) Organization of Thermal Energy Conversion
Correct Answer: (C) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion
Explanation: OTEC stands for Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion. It is a process that converts the temperature difference between warm surface seawater and cold deep seawater into usable energy.
#87. Bronze is an alloy of:
(A) Copper and Nickel
(B) Copper and Iron
(C) Copper and Tin
(D) Copper and Aluminium
Correct Answer: (C) Copper and Tin
Explanation: Bronze is an alloy composed primarily of copper and tin. It is known for its strength, durability, and resistance to corrosion.
#88. Which of the following is an ore of Iron?
(A) Siderite
(B) Malachite
(C) Bauxite
(D) Anglesite
Correct Answer: (A) Siderite
Explanation: Siderite is an ore of iron. It is a mineral composed of iron carbonate and is one of the important sources of iron.
#89. Silviculture is the:
(A) Art and Science of cultivating herbs
(B) Art and Science of cultivating grasses
(C) Art and Science of cultivating flowers
(D) Art and Science of cultivating forest trees
Correct Answer: (D) Art and Science of cultivating forest trees
Explanation: Silviculture is the branch of forestry that deals with the cultivation and management of forest trees for the production of timber, fiber, and other forest products.
#90. Arid Forest Research Institute (AFRI) is situated at:
(A) Nagpur
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Kanpur
(D) Fatehpur
Correct Answer: (B) Jodhpur
Explanation: Arid Forest Research Institute (AFRI) is situated in Jodhpur, Rajasthan. It is a research institute under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) that focuses on research related to arid and semi-arid ecosystems.
#91. It is thought that dozens of ships and planes have disappeared under mysterious circumstances in the area. To most people, it is an area of bad luck and extraterrestrial activity. This area is known as:
(A) Bermuda Triangle
(B) Cuba
(C) Puerto Rico
(D) Gulf of Mexico
Correct Answer: (A) Bermuda Triangle
Explanation: The area described is known as the Bermuda Triangle, a region in the western part of the North Atlantic Ocean where several ships and aircraft have allegedly disappeared under mysterious circumstances.
#92. Bleaching powder used in Fish pond is working as:
(A) Disinfectant
(B) Sterilant
(C) Snail Controller
(D) Parasiticide
Correct Answer: (A) Disinfectant
Explanation: Bleaching powder is commonly used as a disinfectant in fish ponds. It helps to kill harmful bacteria, viruses, and parasites, thereby maintaining the hygiene and health of the fish.
#93. What is a fishing gear?
(A) Motorized boats
(B) Wooden boats
(C) Devices used to catch prawn and lobsters such as nets, traps, hooks, and even hands
(D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: A fishing gear refers to the equipment or devices used to catch fish or other aquatic organisms. This can include nets, traps, hooks, lines, and various types of fishing vessels or boats.
#94. The approximate lifetime of a common electric bulb is 1,000 hrs whereas the approximate lifetime of an LED bulb is:
(A) 5,000 hrs
(B) 10,000 hrs
(C) 20,000 hrs
(D) 50,000 hrs
Correct Answer: (D) 50,000 hrs
Explanation: LED bulbs have a significantly longer lifetime compared to common electric bulbs. On average, an LED bulb can last up to 50,000 hours, which is much longer than the approximate 1,000-hour lifetime of a common electric bulb.
#95. The safe threshold limit of CO₂ concentration in the atmosphere in ppm is:
(A) 350
(B) 600
(C) 800
(D) 1000
Correct Answer: (A) 350
Explanation: The safe threshold limit of CO₂ concentration in the atmosphere, as advocated by many environmental organizations and scientists, is considered to be around 350 parts per million (ppm). This level is believed to be the maximum sustainable level for maintaining a stable climate.
#96. The detection of gravitational waves on 14th September 2015 by the LIGO collaboration from the merger of two black holes is the first direct detection of gravitational waves and the first observation of a binary black hole merger. This provides evidence for:
(A) Arrhenius theory of electrolytic dissociation
(B) Einstein’s general theory of relativity
(C) Newton’s law of gravity
(D) Theory of black body radiation
Correct Answer: (B) Einstein’s general theory of relativity
Explanation: The detection of gravitational waves by the LIGO collaboration confirmed a major prediction of Einstein’s general theory of relativity. It provided direct evidence for the existence of gravitational waves and demonstrated the validity of Einstein’s theory in describing the behavior of gravity.
#97. What is syngas?
(A) It is a gas mixture of CO, H₂, CO₂, and N₂
(B) It is a gas mixture of CH₄, O₂, and CO
(C) It is a gas mixture of CH₄, CO₂, N₂, H₂, and O₂
(D) It is a gas mixture of H₂ and O₂
Correct Answer: (A) It is a gas mixture of CO, H₂, CO₂, and N₂
Explanation: Syngas, also known as synthesis gas, is a gas mixture primarily composed of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), carbon dioxide (CO₂), and nitrogen (N₂). It is commonly produced from various carbon-based feedstocks through gasification or reforming processes.
#98. Which Committee has been constituted by the Union Government to continuously monitor the solutions to air pollution?
(A) Bhure Lal Committee
(B) Sunita Narain Committee
(C) C. K. Mishra Committee
(D) Harsh Vardhan Committee
Correct Answer: (A) Bhure Lal Committee
Explanation: The Bhure Lal Committee has been constituted by the Union Government to continuously monitor the solutions to air pollution. The committee plays a key role in implementing measures and ensuring compliance with pollution control norms.
#99. The two major functional components of any ecosystem are:
(A) Energy flow and producers
(B) Nutrients cycling and energy flow
(C) Energy flow and decomposer population
(D) Consumers and energy flow
Correct Answer: (B) Nutrients cycling and energy flow
Explanation: The two major functional components of any ecosystem are the cycling of nutrients and the flow of energy. Nutrients are recycled through various processes, while energy flows through the ecosystem from producers (plants) to consumers (animals) and eventually to decomposers.
#100. Extinct, critically endangered, and vulnerable are the categories assigned to the species by:
(A) UNO
(B) IUCN
(C) FAO
(D) UNEP
Correct Answer: (B) IUCN
Explanation: The categories of extinct, critically endangered, and vulnerable are assigned to species by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN maintains the Red List of Threatened Species, which assesses the conservation status of various species worldwide.
