OPSC 2020 Delete - Licchavi Lyceum

1. Sagarmala Project is under which Ministry of Government of India?

(A) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways

(B) Ministry of Sports

(D) Ministry of Surface Transport

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Sagarmala Project is a major initiative launched by the Indian government in 2015 to modernize the country’s ports and develop a sustainable maritime economy. The project aims to promote port-led development, facilitate port-led industrialization, and reduce logistics costs for domestic and international trade.

The project has identified a total of 415 projects across various sectors, including port modernization, new port development, port connectivity enhancement, port-linked industrialization, and coastal community development. These projects are expected to generate over 14 lakh jobs and mobilize more than Rs. 8 lakh crore in investment.

The key objectives of the Sagarmala Project include:

Developing a modern and efficient port infrastructure to support the country’s growing trade and commerce.
Enhancing port connectivity through road, rail, and waterways to reduce transportation costs and time.
Promoting port-led industrialization by setting up manufacturing and logistics hubs near the ports.
Improving the skill sets of the local workforce and providing employment opportunities to the coastal communities.
Ensuring sustainable development of the coastal areas by promoting tourism, fisheries, and other allied activities.

Overall, the Sagarmala Project is expected to transform India’s maritime sector and make it globally competitive.

2. Which country has begun its two-year tenure as a non-permanent member of the UN Security Council ?

(A) Russia

(B) Pakistan

(D) Bangladesh

Ans: (C)
Solution: India will sit the eighth time in the 15-nation UNSC for the 2021-22 term as a non-permanent member.

3. Who is the Chairman of State Commission for Backward Castes in Odisha ?

(A) Justice Raghunath Biswal

(B) Justice Bimal Prasad Das

(D) Justice Jatindra Prasad Das

Ans: (A)

Solution: Justice Raghunath Biswal, former Orissa High Court judge was appointied as its chairman.

4. Which of the following is not correct?

(A) The first India-Japan Samvad Conference was held in 2015 at Bodh Gaya, India

(B) The Samvad Conference revolves around the need to build the future of Asia under the positive influence of traditions of non-violence and democracy in Asia

(C) In the Sixth Samvad Conference PM Mr. Modi proposed to establish a library of traditional Buddhist literature and scriptures

(D) Samvad Conference is being held every year since 2015 between India and Thailand
The first Samvad Conference was organised in New Delhi and at Bodh Gaya in 2015.

Ans: (D)

Solution: The first Samvad Conference was organised in New Delhi and at Bodh Gaya in 2015.

5. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) Heads of State Summit was held on 10th November, 2020 in the video conference format. The Summit was hosted by:

(A) Russia

(B) India

(D) Uzbekistan

Ans: (A)

Solution: 20th Summit of SCO Council of Heads of State was held on November 10, 2020 (in Video Conference Format). The Meeting was chaired by the President of the Russian Federation Mr. Vladimir Putin.

6. Which country has become the sixth member of the ‘Five Eyes’ Intelligence network ?

(A) Japan

(B) Nepal

(D) China

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Five Eyes is an intelligence-sharing alliance that presently constitutes the US, the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, and New Zealand and now Japan.

7. What was the theme of the World Sustainable Development Summit, 2020?

(A) Towards 2030 Goals: Making the Decade Count

(B) Sustainable Energy Across the Word

(D) Energy and Resources for all

Ans: (A)

Solution: World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) 2020 is the annual flagship event of The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) which was held during 29-31 January 2020 in New Delhi, India, under the overarching theme, ‘Towards 2030 Goals: Making the Decade Count’.

8. Who, among the following persons of Odisha, is the Padma Vibhushan Awardee for 2021 for distinguished service in the field of Arts ?

(A) Shanti Devi

(B) Sudarshan Pattanaik

(D) Sudarshan Sahoo

Ans: (D)

Solution: Sudarshan Sahoo, renowned sculptor from Odisha, was conferred with the Padma Vibhushan, the second-highest civilian award of the country, for his distinguished work in the field of Art.

9. The recipient of the Atibadi Jagannath Das Literary Award awarded by the Sahitya Academy of Odisha for 2020 is:

(A) Madhusudan Pati

(B) Binapani Mohanty

(D) Rama Kanta Rath

Ans: (C)

Solution: Atibadi Jagannath Das Samman is a literary award awarded by Odisha Sahitya Academy to an Odia language litterateur for lifetime contribution to Odia literature.

10. The Fresh Water Lake built by India near its Research Station ‘Maitri’ in the Antarctica is known as:

(A) Bharati

(B) Dakshin Gangotri

(D) Dakshin Manasarovar

Ans: (C)

Solution: Freshwater is provided through a freshwater lake named Lake Priyadarshini, in front of Maitri.

11. The Mars Perseverance Rover that landed on the Mars on 18th February, 2021 was launched by:

(A) The Republic of Russia

(B) The United States of America

(D) The Republic of India

Ans: (B)

Solution: On Feb. 18, 2021, NASA’s Mars Perseverance rover makes its final descent to the Red Planet

12. The State of Jammu and Kashmir was made an Union Territory of India with effect from:

(A) 26th January, 2019

(B) 5th August, 2019

(D) 31st October, 2019

Ans: (D)

Solution: A resolution to repeal Article 370 was passed by both the houses of the Parliament of India in August 2019. At the same time, a reorganisation act was also passed, which would reconstitute the state into two union territories, Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. The reorganisation took effect from 31 October 2019.

13. The Protest Movement organised at Shaheen Baug in Delhi from 14th December, 2019 to 24th March, 2020 was against:

(A) The Jammu and Kashmir Re-organization Act, 2019

(B) The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019

(D) The Reservation (for Economicaly Weaker Sections of Citizens) Amendment Act, 2019

Ans: (C)

Solution: Shaheen Bagh women protesters blocking a major road (Road 13A GD Birla Marg, Shaheen Bagh – Kalindi Kunj area) in New Delhi.It was a peaceful sit-in protest in Delhi, India, that began on 15 December 2019 and lasted until 24 March 2020.

14. The Military Skirmishes that occurred between China and India since 5th May, 2020 in the Galwan Valley involved territorial disputes over:

(A) The Pangong Lake Area

(B) The Aksai-Chin Area

(D) The Naku-La PassArea

Ans: (A)

Solution: Starting in April 2020, China amassed a large number of troops and armaments along the 3,488 km disputed Line of Actual Control (LAC) leading to stand-offs and skirmishes at Galwan Valley, Pangong Tso (lake), Gogra-Hot Springs and other areas.

15. What was the capital of Vatsa Mahajanapada ?

(A) Rajghat

(B) Kausambi

(D) Ahichchhatra

Ans: (B)

Solution: Vatsa is situated on the banks of river Yamuna which was famous for its fine cotton textiles. The capital Kaushambi is situated at the confluence of the Ganga and Yamuna, near Prayagraj.

16. Which of the following sources indicate that the last Mauryan ruler Brihdarth was assassinated by Pushyamitra?

(A) Inscriptions

(B) Gargi Samhita

(D) Harshcharita

Ans: (D)

17. Who among the Gupta Rulers was first to bear higher political title of Maharajadhiraja ?

(A) Srigupta

(B) Chandragupta I

(D) Chandragupta lI

Ans: (D)

18. Who overthrow the Rashtrakutas in 973 AD?

(A) Taila lI of Westerm Chalukya

(B) Rajendra 1 of Chola

(D) None of these

Ans: (B)

19. Which of the following Mughal sources was translated into Persian by Painda Khan ?

(A) Baburmama

(B) Humayun Namah

(D) Tankh l salatim l Afghana

Ans: (C)

Solution: Khulasat ul Akhbar is a historical Persian text compiled by a Mughal courtier named Munshi Sujan Rae Bhandari during the reign of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb. Painda Khan, who was a prominent Afghan noble and military commander in the Mughal Empire, is known to have translated this work from Persian into Pashto. The book contains information about the Mughal emperors and their reigns, as well as details about important events and personalities of the time.

20. Who was the author of Tankh I Dauai?

(A) Niamatullah

(B) Abdullah

(D) Abul Fazl

Ans: (B)

Solution: Tarikh-i-Daudi written by Abdullah in 1575 -76 AD deals with the history of the Afghan rulers from Bahlol Lodi of Delhi to daud khan karrani, the last Afghan sultan of Bengal. The book was dedicated to Daud Karrani who was defeated in the battle of rajmahal in 1576 by Khan Jahan, the general of Akbar.

21. Who had prepared the proclamation known as mahzar issued in September, 1579?

(A) Abul Fazi

(B) Faizi

(D) Sheikh Abdun Nabi

Ans: (A)

Solution: The Mahzar was a proclamation issued by Akbar the Great, the Mughal Emperor, in September 1579. It was prepared by the court historian Abu’l Fazl, who was one of Akbar’s closest advisors and the author of the Akbarnama, a historical account of Akbar’s reign.

The Mahzar was a significant document in the history of the Mughal Empire, as it proclaimed Akbar’s policy of religious tolerance and his desire to create a syncretic religion that blended elements of Islam, Hinduism, and other faiths. The proclamation was intended to promote peace and harmony among the various religious communities in the empire and to counter the influence of the conservative Muslim ulama who opposed Akbar’s religious reforms.

22. What was the term used for the religious officer in Mughal Administration?

(A) Mir Saman

(B) Muhtasib

(D) Mir I Bahr

Ans: (B)

Solution: The term used for the religious officer in Mughal Administration was Muhtasib. The Muhtasib was responsible for ensuring the enforcement of Islamic moral and social codes, as well as monitoring and regulating the markets and commercial activities.

They were also responsible for maintaining public hygiene, preventing gambling, prostitution, and other vices. The Muhtasib was appointed by the Mughal Emperor and held an important position in the Mughal court hierarchy.

23. Which of the following land revenue settlement was first to have concluded with the village community?

(A) Permanent Settlement

(B) Mahalwari Settlement

(D) None of these

Ans: (B)

Solution: Zamindari System /Permanent Settlement was introduced by Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal. Zamindars were recognized as owner of the lands and were given the rights to collect the rent from the peasants. The realized amount would be divided into 11 parts. 1/11 of the share belongs to
Zamindars and 10/11 of the share belongs to East India Company.

Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro in 1820 in Madras, Bombay, parts of Assam and Coorgh. In Ryotwari System the ownership rights were handed over to the peasants. British Government collected taxes directly from the peasants. The revenue rates of Ryotwari System were 50% where the lands were dry and 60% in irrigated land.

Mahalwari system was introduced in 1833 during the period of William Bentick in Area, Central Province, North-West Frontier, Agra, Punjab, Gangetic Valley, etc. of British India. The Mahalwari system had many provisions of both the Zamindari System and Ryotwari System. In this system, the land was divided into Mahals. Each Mahal comprises one or more villages. Ownership rights were with the peasants. The villages committee was held responsible for collection of the taxes.

24. British concluded Treaty of Surat in 1775 with:

(A) Narayan Rao

(B) Madhav Rao

(D) Vinayak Rao

Ans: (C)

Solution: The Treaty of Surat (6 March 1775) was a treaty by which Raghunathrao, one of the claimants to the throne of the Peshwa, agreed to cede Salsette and Bassein Fort to the English, in consideration of being himself restored to Poona. The military operations that followed are known as the First Anglo-Maratha War.

25. What was the title of the first newspaper published by James Augustus Hickey?

(A) The Bengal Journal

(B) The Calcutta Chronicle

(D) The Bengal Gazette

Ans: (D)

Solution: Bengal Gazette was the first English-language newspaper published on the Indian subcontinent. It was founded in Calcutta by Irishman James Augustus Hicky in 1779.

26. Who compared the Salt March of Gandhi to Napoleon’s march to Paris on his return from Elba ?

(A) Jawaharlal Nehru

(B) Subhash Chandra Bose

C) Motilal Nehru

(D) Rabindranath Tagore

Ans: (B)

27. Who founded the Deccan Educational Society?

(A) Ranade

(B) G K. Gokhale

(D) None of them

Ans: (D)

Solution: The Deccan Education Society (DES) was established in 1884 by Vishnushastri Chiplunkar, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Gopal Ganesh Agarkar.

28. Who was the Chairman of the First Famine Commission in 1880?

(A) Sir Richard Strachey

(B) Sir Mac Donnel

(D) T. Morrisson

Ans: (A)

Solution: Richard Strachey commission in 1880 was created to develop a General strategy and principles to deal with the famines.

29. The Middle Himalayan Range originated in:

(A) Eocene

(B) Miocene

(D) Pliocene

Ans: (B)

Solution: It is between the Shiwaliks in the south and the Greater Himalayas in the north.

#30. Which of the following is not an example of a Block mountain?

(A) Vosjes Mountain

(B) Western Ghats Mountain

(D) Sierra Nevada
#31. Which of the following tributaries of Indus river emerges from the Pir Panjal Range?

(A) Satuj

(B) Ravi

(D) Jhelum
#32. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

(A) Stack- Sea Waves

(B) Bajada – Winds

(D) Lappies-Ground Water
#33. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Benguela Curent-SouthAtarntic

(B) Iminger Curent-North Pacific

(D) Mozambique Current- Indian Ocean
#34. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Tulbul Project-Jhelum River

(B) Koteshwar Project-Tapti River

(D) Sardar Sarovar Project-Narmada River
#35. Which of the following human races has woolly hairs?

(A) Negroid

(B) Mangoloid

(D) Australoid
#36. In which ofthe following demographic transition stages, the intensive subsistence farming is prevalent?

(A) Stage- I

(B) Stage-II

(D) Stage-IV
#37. It is 12 noon at Greenwich. What will be the time ata place situated at 60 East Longitude ?

(A) 2 am

(B) 2 pm

(D) 4 pm
#38. What is the significance of Dakshin Gangotri ?

(A) It is a research station near South Gangotri glacier over Himalayas

(B) It is a research station south of river Ganga near Rishikesh

(D) It is a scientific base station at South Pole
static GK

#39. In India, El Nino is very often associated with

(A) A good monsoon weather with heavy rain and good yield of crops

(B) A bad monsoon weather with low rain and crop failure

(D) A normal monsoon weather with no adverse effect on crops
El Nino means lesser than average rains for India.

#40. In the atmosphere which of the following carries the ozone layer?

(A) Exosphere

(B) lonosphere

(D) Troposphere
The stratosphere up to a height of 50 km from the earth’s surface is the second layer of the atmosphere found above the troposphere.

#41. Which of the following is a predominant species of the deciduous forests of Odisha?

(A) Mahogany

(B) Red wood

(D) Teak
The trees which grow in abundance in Odisha are bamboo, teak, rosewood, sal, piasal, sanghvan and haldi.

#42. Slash and burn cultivation relates to which of the following?

(A) Intensive cutivation

(B) Extensive cultivation

(D) Commercial agriculture
Shifting Cultivation is also called ‘Slash and Burn’ agriculture.

#43. The ldeal of Welfare State in the lndian Consttution is enshrined in its:

(A) Preamble

(B) Directive Principle’s of State Policy

(D) Seventh Schedule
Directive Principles of State Policy

#44. Who, as per the provisions of the Constitution, declares an area as a Scheduled Area ?

(A) Prime Minister

(B) President of India

(D) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
As per the Constitutional provision under Article 244 (1) of the Constitution of India, the ‘Scheduled Areas’ are defined as ‘such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas’ – as per paragraph 6(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

#45. The Concurrent List in the Constitution of India was adopted from:

(A) Switzerland

(B) Australia

(D) France
the Constitution of Australia

#46. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States?

(A) First Schedule

(B) Second Schedule

(D) Seventh Schedule
The Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India defines and specifies allocation of powers and functions between Union & States.

#47. Mandamus is a writ issued by the Apex Court:

(A) Asking a public official or any authority to perfom legal duties

(B) Enquiring into the legality of claim of any person to public office

(D) Against any lower court not to do any act excess of their jurisdiction
‘Mandamus’ means ‘we command’. It is issued by the Court to direct a public authority to perform the legal duties which it has not or refused to perform. It can be issued by the Court against a public official, public corporation, tribunal, inferior court or the government.

#48. Any money bill cannot be introduced in the Parliament without the consent of the:

(A) President of India

(B) Union Finance Minister

(D) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
A Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha, on the prior recommendation of the President.

#49. The first state in India which was created on linguistic basis :

(A) Andhra Pradesh

(B) Haryana

(D) Kerala
The first state to be created on a linguistic basis was Andhra in 1953.

#50. The Right to Education for all between 6 and 14 years of age has been included as a Fundamental Right in the year:

(A) 1998

(B) 2001

(D) 2000
It was included in the Constitution through the 86th Amendment Act, 2002.

#51. One of the following now is not a Department of Finance Ministry:

(A) Department of Economic Afairs

(B) Department of Expenditure

(D) Department of Banking Affairs
The finance ministry already has five departments – Department of Economic Affairs, Department of Expenditure, Department of Revenue, Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) and Department of Financial Services.

#52. The All India Whips Conference is organised by:

(A) Ministry of Pariamentary Affairs

(B) Chief Ministers of States

(D) Vice-President of India
This Conference is being organized by the Union Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (MoPA) and the Government of Rajasthan.

#53. The purpose of Uniform Civil Code incorporated in Article 44 of Indian Constitution is for:

(A) National Security

(B) Cultural Integration

(D) Welfare of Minorities
#54. Policy as Rational choice in competitive situation is:

(A) Game Theory

(B) Rational Theory

(D) Systems Theory
#55. Keeping control over delegated legislation is the power of:

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha

(D) Supreme Court
Parliament has the overall control over the delegated legislation as it takes account with the statutory committees which make law through bills.

#56. The Goveming Councl of NITI Aayog comprises of:

(A) Prime Minister and all Chief Ministers

(B) Chief Ministers and Experts and Specialists

(D) Chief Ministers and Union Finance Minister
The Governing Council of NITI Aayog comprises the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India; Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislature; Lt Governors of other UTs; Ex-Officio Members; Vice Chairman, NITI Aayog; Full-Time Members, NITI Aayog; and Special Invitees.

#57. The Chairman of Zonal Council in India is:

(A) Finance Minister

(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha .

(C)Union Home Minister

(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
The idea of creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956.Five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956.The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils. The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.

The Northern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, National Capital Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Chandigarh;
The Central Zonal Council, comprising the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh;
The Eastern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal;
The Western Zonal Council, comprising the States of Goa, Gujarat, Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli;
The Southern Zonal Council, comprising the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
The North Eastern States i.e. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils and their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, 1972.
#58. For each country, Global Hunger Index Values are determined by which of the following indicators?

(1) Under Nourishment
(2) Child Mortality
(3) Child Stunting
(4) Child Wasting

The correct answer is:

(1), (2) and (4)

(2), (3) and (4)

(3) and (4)

(1), (2), (3) and (4)
GHI scores are calculated using a three-step process that draws on available data from various sources to capture the multidimensional nature of hunger.

First, for each country, values are determined for four indicators:

UNDERNOURISHMENT: the share of the population that is undernourished (that is, whose caloric intake is insufficient);
CHILD WASTING: the share of children under the age of five who are wasted (that is, who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition);
CHILD STUNTING: the share of children under the age of five who are stunted (that is, who have low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition); and
CHILD MORTALITY: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (in part, a reflection of the fatal mix of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments).
#59. The reserve held by commercial banks over and above the statutory minimum with the RBI are called:

(A) Cash Reserve

(B) Deposit Reserve

(D) Excess Reserve
Definition

#60. Which of the following promoted the concept of Self Help Groups (SHGs) for financing the poor?

(A) NITI Aayog

(B) RBI

(D) Union Ministry of Labour
NABARD developed the model of Self Help Group for financing the poor.

#61. Which of the following is not a financial inclusion scheme?

(A) Pradhan Mantri Jandhan Yojana

(B) Suraksha Bandhan Scheme

(D) HRIDAY
#62. Sishu, Kishore and Tarun are the schemes of:

(A) Industrial Development Bank of India

(B) Micro Units Development and Reference Agency Ltd

(D) Regional Rural Banks
#63. Which of the following indicators is not used to calculate Human Development Index ?

(A) Education

(B) Per Capita Income

(D) Social Inequality
#64. Which of the following Committees recommended a poverty line based on nutritional requirements exclusively?

(A) Lakdawala Committee

(B) Rangarajan Committee

(D) Tendulkar Committee
#65. The first sustainable development goal aims to eradicate extreme poverty. How does the U. N. currently measure extreme poverty?

(A) People who are unemployed and unable to access welfare benefits from the state

(B) People who live on less than $5 a day.

(D) People who live on less than $A.25 a day
#66. Which is the highest allocation Ministry in Budget 2021-22?

(A) Ministry of Defence

(B) Ministry of Education

(D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
#67. Central Government has unveild a new series of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-/W) with as the base year.

(A) 2011

(B) 2016

(D) 2018
#68. The contribution of the primary sector to GDP of lndia is:

(A) Increasing over the years

(B) Remaining the same over the years

(D) At times increasing and at times decreasing over the years
#69. Robin Hood effect is related to which of the following ?

(A) Income and consumption

(B) Income generation

(D) Income taxation
The Robin Hood effect is the redistribution of wealth from the rich to the poor. The Robin Hood effect should not be confused with the Robinhood effect, which is the increased number, importance, and attention given to small retail investors using low-entry-barrier trading apps

#70. Out of the four concepts of money Supply used in India, M1, M2, M3, and M4. the Post Office Savings are included in:

(A) M1, only

(B) M3 and M4, only

(D) M2 and M4, only
RBI publishes figures for four alternative measures of money supply, viz. M1, M2, M3 and M4.
M1 = currency (notes plus coins)held by the public net demand deposits held by commercial banks.
M2 = M1 Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks
M3 = M1 Net time deposits of commercial banks
M4 = M3 Total deposits with Post Office savings organisations (excluding National Savings Certificates)
#71. The lnsurance Regulatory and Development Authority (RDA) is which type of body ?

(A) Constitutional Body

(B) Statutoy Body

(D) Non-governmental Body
Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI), is a statutory body formed under an Act of Parliament, i.e., Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999 (IRDAI Act 1999) for overall supervision and development of the Insurance sector in India.

#72. Deforestation is not a direct cause of:

(A) Loss of biodiversity

(B) Top soil erosion

(D) Species invasion
An invasive species is an organism that causes ecological or economic harm in a new environment where it is not native. . Invasive species can harm both the natural resources in an ecosystem as well as threaten human use of these resources.

Other three options are direct causes of deforestation.

#73. The succession where the community increases its diversity and complexity with time is called:

(A) Primary succession

B) Progressive succession

(D) Denuded succession
Primary succession is ecological succession that begins in essentially lifeless areas, such as regions in which there is no soil or where the soil is incapable of sustaining life (because of recent lava flows, newly formed sand dunes, or rocks left from a retreating glacier).

Progressive succession refers to the succession where the community becomes. complex and contains more species and biomass over time.

Retrogressive succession refers to the succession where the community becomes. simplistic and contains fewer species and less biomass over time.

Denuded succession starts on the secondary bare area which was once occupied by original vegetation but later became completely cleared of vegetation by the process called denudation. This denudation process is brought about by the destructive agencies, such as fire, cultivation, strong winds, and rains.

#74. Biochemical oxygen demand of water is a measure of:

(A) Water nirate level

(B) Water phosphate level

(D) Water pesticide load
BOD is a measure of the amount of oxygen required to remove waste organic matter from water in the process of decomposition by aerobic bacteria (those bacteria that live only in an environment containing oxygen).

It is an important water quality parameter because it provides an index to assess the effect discharged wastewater will have on the receiving environment. Depletion of BOD causes stress on aquatic organisms, making the environment unsuitable for life.

#75. Which of the following does not belong to natural air pollutant?

(A) Hydrocarbon

(B) SOx

(D) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
Peroxyacetyl nitrate is an unstable, highly oxygenated compound that exists only in the atmosphere. It is a key intermediate in the formation of the air pollutant ozone.

#76. Ex situ conservation includes:

(A) National parks

(B) Botanic gardens

(D) Wildlife sanctuaries
Ex situ conservation is conservation of selected rare plants/animals in places outside their natural homes. It includes botanical gardens or zoological parts, seed banks, cryopreservation, field gene banks and sacred plants.

#77. The database generated by ENVIS is used for the management of:

(A) Biodiversity

(B) Freshwater recharge

(D) Popular Growth
Environmental Information System (ENVIS) is a decentralized system of Centres mandated to develop a web-based distributed network of subject-specific databases. Its purpose is to integrate country-wide efforts in environmental information collection, collation, storage, retrieval and dissemination to all concerned.

#78. CBD is expanded as:

(A) Convention on Bio-Diversity

(B) Conservation of Bio-Diversity

(D) Centre of Biological Diversity
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), known informally as the Biodiversity Convention, is a multilateral treaty.

The convention was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992 and entered into force on 29 December 1993. The United States is the only UN member state which has not ratified the convention. It has two supplementary agreements, the Cartagena Protocol and Nagoya Protocol.

#79. Which of the following is a correct combination ?

(A) Sundarban- Rhinoceros

(B) Kaziranga- Lion

(D) Balukhanda- Black buck
The sanctuary is home to a herd of Blackbuck and Spotted Deer. It is located in the Indian state of Odisha.

#80. Which of the following is expected to be a cause of the rise in sea level?

(A) Ozone layer depletion

(B) Monsoon rain

(D) Continental drift
The melting of the polar ice cap directly causes the rise in sea level.

#81. The solar energy is a:

(A) Conventional energy source

(B) Non-Conventional energy source

(D) Exhaustible energy sourcee
Solar power is energy from the sun that is converted into thermal or electrical energy. Solar energy is the cleanest and most abundant renewable energy source available.

#82. Bats use – to navigate and find food

(A) Resonance

(B) Magneto-reception

(D) Echolocation
Bats navigate and find insect prey using echolocation. They produce sound waves at frequencies above human hearing, called ultrasound. The sound waves emitted by bats bounce off objects in their environment.

#83. Nucleic acid present in corona virus is:

(A) Deoxyribonucleic acid

(B) Oxyribonucleic acid

(D) Chromatin
coronavirus, any virus belonging to the family Coronaviridae.

Coronaviruses have enveloped virions (virus particles) that measure approximately 120 nm (1 nm = 10−9 metre) in diameter. Club-shaped glycoprotein spikes in the envelope give the viruses a crownlike, or coronal, appearance.

The nucleocapsid, made up of a protein shell known as a capsid and containing the viral nucleic acids, is helical or tubular.

The coronavirus genome consists of a single strand of positive-sense RNA (ribonucleic acid).

#84. Television signals are:

(A) Frequency modulated

(B) Amplitude modulated

(D) Phase modulated
For T.V broadcasting , frequency modulation for audio signal and amplitude modulation for video transmission are used.

#85. Electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy in:

(A) Dynamo

(B) Microphone

(D) Heater
An electric motor converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. A generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy.

#86. One light year is:

(A) The distance travelled by light in free space in one year

(B) The light emitted by sun in one year

(D) Intensity of light emitted by sun in one year
Light-year is the distance light travels in one year. One light-year is about 9 trillion km and also equal to approx 6.5×10^5 earht’s years.

#87. Bleeding from nose is caused when a person is there at:

(A) Higher altitudes where atmospheric pressure is low

(B) Lower altitudes where atmospheric pressure is high

(D) No effect of altitude
Bleeding from nose is caused when a person is there at higher altitudes where atmospheric pressure is low.

#88. The main component of biogas is:

(A) Butane

(B) Ethylene

(D) Propane
The biogas (methane) produced in the anaerobic fermentation process is a mixed gas, and its main contents are CH4, CO2, H2S, and water.

#89. Subatomic particles are:

(A) Electrons

(B) Protons

(D) All of these
Subatomic particles are elctrons,protons and neutrons.

#90. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas because it:

(A) Binds to digestive hormones

(B) Damages lungs

(D) Binds to haemoglobin
Carbon monoxide (CO) is a poisonous, colorless, odorless and tasteless gas. It is harmful when breathed because it displaces oxygen in the blood and deprives the heart, brain and other vital organs of oxygen.

#91. Which is NOT a synthetic polymer?

(A) PVC

(B) Nylon

(D) Resin
Examples of synthetic polymers include nylon, polyethylene, polyester, Teflon, and epoxy etc.

Examples of naturally occurring polymers are silk, wool, DNA, cellulose and proteins etc.

#92. Bee sting causes severe pain and burning sensation due to the presence of:

(A) Acetic acid

(B) Sulfuric acid

(D) Methanoic acid
The sting of a honey bee causes pain and burning sensations because it contains formic acid.

Formic acid (HCO2H), also called methanoic acid, the simplest of the carboxylic acids, used in processing textiles and leather.

#93. Albinism is caused due to the deficiency of a/an:

(A) Homone

(B) Enzyme

(D) Metal
It is caused by the deficiency of tyrosinase enzyme.

#94. In ballpoint pens, dyes used are:

(A) Water based

(B) Alcohol based

(D) Oil based
The dyes used in blue and black ballpoint pens are basic dyes based on triarylmethane and acid dyes derived from diazo compounds or phthalocyanine.

#95. Which one of the following colours is least deviated by the glass prism ?

(A) Green

(B) Red

(D) Orange
#96. ‘Ficus benghalensis’ is the scientific name of:

(A) Brinjal

(B) Banana

(D) Banyan
Ficus benghalensis also called Indian banyan or banyan fig, unusually shaped tree of the mulberry family (Moraceae) native to the Indian subcontinent.

#97. Spirogyra is a kind of:

(A) Algae

(B) Fungi

(D) Virus
Spirogyra is an example of Green algae.

#98. Which of the following substances is not synthetic?

(A) Fibroin

(B) Lexan

(D) Teflon
#99. Change in the base sequence within a gene is called:

(A) Mutation

(B) Cloning

(D) Breeding
With base substitution mutations, only a single nucleotide within a gene sequence is changed.

#100. Hypsometer is used to measure:

(A) The pressure of gas

(B) The boiling point of liquids

(D) The depth of ocean
A hypsometer is an instrument for measuring height or elevation.